2w051b Vol 2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The word hygroscopicity refers to what property of an explosive?

    • Moisture-absorbing.
    • Tendency to produce sensitive metallic salts.
    • Ability of an explosive to be cast into a mold or form.
    • Ability to liberate gaseous products during detonation.
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2w051b Vol 2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be

    • Cheap.

    • Non-hygroscopic.

    • Common to America.

    • Vital to the war effort.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheap.
    Explanation
    The requirement for military explosives is that the raw materials must be cheap. This means that the cost of acquiring the raw materials should be low, allowing for the production of explosives in large quantities without putting a strain on the military budget. By using cheap raw materials, the military can ensure that they have an adequate supply of explosives to support their operations.

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  • 3. 

    How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?

    • Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.

    • With a super quick action HE train.

    • With a delay action HE train.

    • Use a non-delay element.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.
    Explanation
    To achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb, a time action high-explosive (HE) train is used. This means that the bomb is equipped with a timer that determines when the explosion will occur after the bomb is dropped. By setting the timer to the desired delay, the bomb can be detonated in mid-air, creating an airburst effect. This technique is often used to maximize the blast radius and damage potential of the bomb, especially in situations where ground impact may not be as effective.

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  • 4. 

    The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

    • Light

    • Altitude.

    •  humidity

    • Chemical composition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The visibility of pyrotechnics is controlled by four factors: candlepower, color, weather, and light. These factors determine how well the pyrotechnics can be seen. While candlepower and color play a role in the brightness and distinctiveness of the pyrotechnics, weather conditions such as humidity and altitude can also affect visibility. However, the most crucial factor is light. Adequate lighting conditions are necessary for pyrotechnics to be visible to the audience.

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  • 5. 

    The primary reason the AN–MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld while burning is to allow

    • Downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water.

    • Climb a tree and push the flare above the forest canopy

    • Wave the flare, causing movement that helps attract attention.

    • Throw the flare into a clearing without risking undue exposure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water.
    Explanation
    The primary reason the AN-MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld while burning is to allow a downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water. This suggests that the flare is designed to be easily held and operated by someone in water, indicating that it is waterproof and buoyant. This would enable a pilot who has ejected into water to easily signal for help without having to let go of the flare or risk dropping it.

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  • 6. 

    The largest caliber ammunition that we classify as “small arms” is

    • Caliber .38.

    • Caliber .50.

    • 5.56 millimeter.

    • 7.62 millimeter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Caliber .50.
    Explanation
    The largest caliber ammunition that is classified as "small arms" is caliber .50. This means that any ammunition with a caliber larger than .50 would be considered as something other than small arms.

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  • 7. 

    The AN–M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical filler to produce what kind of smoke?

    • Poisonous.

    • Orange.

    • White.

    • Black.

    Correct Answer
    A. White.
    Explanation
    The AN-M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical filler to produce white smoke. Hexachloroethane is a white crystalline powder that, when ignited, produces a dense white smoke. This type of smoke is commonly used in military operations for signaling, obscuring vision, and creating a smoke screen.

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  • 8. 

    Which safety feature is designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?

    • Seal wires.

    • Cotter pins.

    • Safety blocks.

    • Detonator safe” feature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cotter pins.
    Explanation
    Cotter pins are safety features that are designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled. These pins are inserted through holes in the components, effectively locking them in place and ensuring that they do not accidentally arm or detonate. Cotter pins provide a secure and reliable method of preventing unintended movement and are commonly used in various mechanical and safety applications.

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  • 9. 

    What action must you take to set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6 seconds on an M904 fuze?

    • Press the time lock.

    • Install the stop screw in the fuze body.

    • Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.

    • Press the detent pin on the arming vane shaft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.
    Explanation
    To set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6 seconds on an M904 fuze, the action that must be taken is to remove the stop screw from the fuze body. This will allow the arming vane shaft to rotate freely and reduce the time it takes for the fuze to arm.

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  • 10. 

    The incendiary composition of the 20 millimeter armor-piercing incendiary (API) round is initiated by

    • Impact

    • Inertia forces.

    • Fuze functioning.

    • Friction during firing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impact
    Explanation
    The incendiary composition of the 20 millimeter armor-piercing incendiary (API) round is initiated by impact. This means that when the round hits its target, the impact causes a reaction in the incendiary composition, leading to the release of heat and fire. The other options, such as inertia forces, fuze functioning, and friction during firing, may play a role in the overall functioning of the round, but they do not directly initiate the incendiary reaction.

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  • 11. 

    What 20 millimeter projectile component enables spin and stabilization in flight?

    • Tail fin.

    • Bourrelet.

    • Rotating band.

    • Aluminum windscreen

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotating band.
    Explanation
    The rotating band is a component of a 20 millimeter projectile that enables spin and stabilization in flight. As the projectile is fired, the rotating band engages with the rifling in the barrel, causing the projectile to spin rapidly. This spin helps to stabilize the projectile's flight, improving accuracy and increasing its range. The rotating band also provides a gas seal, preventing propellant gases from escaping and ensuring that the projectile achieves maximum velocity. Overall, the rotating band plays a crucial role in the performance of the 20 millimeter projectile during flight.

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  • 12. 

    The 30 millimeter dummy ammunition

    • Acts as a ballast.

    • Is for target practice on small ranges.

    • Is for use in static displays and award presentations.

    • Is for familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is for familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.
    Explanation
    The 30 millimeter dummy ammunition is used for familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system. This means that it is not intended for actual use in combat or target practice, but rather for training purposes. It allows personnel to become familiar with the gun system and practice the mechanical operations involved in firing it.

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  • 13. 

    The 30 millimeter cartridge case is made of

    • Steel.

    • Brass.

    • Metal.

    • Aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aluminum.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aluminum. Aluminum is commonly used in the construction of cartridge cases due to its lightweight and high strength properties. It provides the necessary durability to withstand the pressure and heat generated during firing, while also being lightweight enough for easy handling and transportation. Steel and brass are also used in cartridge cases, but aluminum is preferred for its specific combination of strength and weight. Metal is a broad term that encompasses various materials, so it is not a specific enough answer.

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  • 14. 

    How many separate lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30 millimeter round of ammunition?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
  • 15. 

    How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round?

    • 10 seconds.

    • 12 seconds.

    • 16 seconds.

    • 20 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 seconds.
    Explanation
    The red tracer composition in the 40 millimeter AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round burns for 12 seconds.

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  • 16. 

    What aircraft is equipped to fire 105 millimeter ammunition?

    • B–52

    • B–1B.

    • KC–10.

    • AC–130.

    Correct Answer
    A. AC–130.
    Explanation
    The AC-130 aircraft is equipped to fire 105 millimeter ammunition. The B-52 and B-1B aircraft are not equipped with this capability. The KC-10 is a refueling aircraft and does not have the capability to fire ammunition. Therefore, the correct answer is AC-130.

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  • 17. 

    The high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile will produce approximately how many fragments?

    • 300.

    • 1,300.

    • 3,300.

    • 13,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 13,000.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 13,000. This is because the high fragmentation (HF) PGU-45/B projectile is designed to produce a large number of fragments upon detonation. The high fragmentation capability of the projectile allows it to break apart into numerous smaller pieces, resulting in a higher number of fragments. Therefore, it is expected that the projectile will produce approximately 13,000 fragments.

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  • 18. 

    In order to optimize lethality the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze is

    • 15 feet.

    • 30 feet.

    • 32 feet.

    • 42 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 feet.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 feet. The factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU-160/B fuze is 15 feet. This means that the fuze is designed to detonate the explosive payload when it reaches a height of 15 feet above the target. This height is optimized for maximum lethality, as it allows the explosive to disperse and cause damage over a wider area.

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  • 19. 

    The approximate length of a complete 105 millimeter round is

    • 18 inches.

    • 31 inches.

    • 40 inches.

    • 105 millimeters.

    Correct Answer
    A. 31 inches.
    Explanation
    The approximate length of a complete 105 millimeter round is 31 inches. This is because the length of the round is not given in millimeters, but in inches. Therefore, we need to convert the given length of 105 millimeters into inches. 105 millimeters is approximately equal to 4.13 inches. Hence, the correct answer is 31 inches.

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  • 20. 

    The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides

    • Less heat than the M206 flare.

    • More heat than the M206 flare.

    • More flexibility due to its smaller size.

    • Smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.
    Explanation
    The SD-206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes. This means that it is designed to emit smoke rather than heat, making it suitable for training exercises where the goal is to simulate the presence of a flare without the risk of causing a fire or generating excessive heat. The option stating that it provides less heat than the M206 flare is incorrect, as the SD-206 does not provide heat at all. The option mentioning more flexibility due to its smaller size and more heat than the M206 flare are also incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of the SD-206 flare.

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  • 21. 

    Removers (cartridge-actuated device) are designed to

    • Remove the pilots’ safety harnesses/cables prior to ejection.

    • Remove the control console from the aircraft.

    • Eject crew members out of cockpit.

    • Jettison the aircraft canopy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Jettison the aircraft canopy.
    Explanation
    Removers (cartridge-actuated device) are designed to jettison the aircraft canopy. This means that they are specifically designed to detach or release the canopy of the aircraft in order to provide an emergency exit for the crew members. This action allows the crew members to safely escape from the cockpit in case of an emergency situation.

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  • 22. 

    Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

    • Pressure.

    • Energy.

    • Vapors.

    • Heat

    Correct Answer
    A. Vapors.
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate or vaporize. When a substance is volatile, it easily converts into a gaseous state, producing vapors. These vapors can be released into the air, creating a potentially hazardous or flammable environment. Therefore, the correct answer is vapors.

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  • 23. 

    The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called

    • Detonation.

    • Disposition

    • Deflagration

    • Decomposition

    Correct Answer
    A. Deflagration
    Explanation
    Deflagration is the correct answer because it refers to the tendency of a substance to burn rapidly and produce a sparkling combustion. It is a type of combustion that occurs at a subsonic speed and is characterized by a flame front that moves through the substance. This process is different from detonation, which involves a supersonic speed and a shock wave. Disposition refers to a person's inherent qualities or tendencies, while decomposition refers to the breakdown of a substance into simpler components.

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  • 24. 

    What is a shaped charge used for?

    • Bring down walls and collapse roofs.

    • Any application in the munitions field.

    • Ignite rocket motors equipped with electric squibs.

    • To produce an explosive penetration of a solid target.

    Correct Answer
    A. To produce an explosive penetration of a solid target.
    Explanation
    A shaped charge is designed to produce an explosive penetration of a solid target. It is commonly used in military applications, such as anti-tank warfare, where it can effectively penetrate armored vehicles or fortifications. The charge is shaped in a way that focuses the explosive energy into a narrow jet, which can then penetrate the target with a high velocity. This makes it a powerful tool for demolishing structures, breaching barriers, or disabling enemy vehicles.

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  • 25. 

    The components of a typical small-arms cartridge are cartridge case,

    • Primer, bullet, and propellant.

    • Primer, bullet, and detonator.

    • Shot pellets, and propellant.

    • Propellant, and tracer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primer, bullet, and propellant.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is primer, bullet, and propellant. A small-arms cartridge consists of these three components. The primer is a small explosive charge that ignites the propellant when struck by the firing pin. The propellant is a chemical substance that burns rapidly, creating high-pressure gas to propel the bullet out of the cartridge case and down the barrel. The bullet is the projectile that is fired from the firearm.

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  • 26. 

    The filler for the M34 smoke grenade is

    • Adamsite and silica aerogel.

    • Chloroacetophenone.

    • White phosphorus.

    • Magnesium oxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. White phosphorus.
    Explanation
    White phosphorus is the correct answer for the filler of the M34 smoke grenade. White phosphorus is a highly reactive substance that ignites upon contact with air and produces thick white smoke. It is commonly used in smoke grenades to create a smokescreen for military operations or to signal locations. Adamsite and silica aerogel are not commonly used as fillers for smoke grenades, while chloroacetophenone is a tear gas agent and magnesium oxide is a fire retardant, making them unsuitable for smoke grenade fillers.

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  • 27. 

    The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and

    • Proximity

    • Hydraulic.

    • Electrical.

    • Inertia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximity
    Explanation
    The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and proximity. Proximity fuzes are designed to detonate when they come within a certain distance of the target. This type of fuze is commonly used in air defense systems, where it can detect and explode near incoming enemy aircraft or missiles. Proximity fuzes rely on various technologies such as radar or infrared sensors to determine the distance to the target and initiate the detonation at the right moment. This allows for a higher probability of hitting the target and causing damage even if the projectile itself doesn't directly impact it.

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  • 28. 

    What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?

    • T35

    • T45

    • T55

    • FZU–2/B.

    Correct Answer
    A. T45
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T45. The T45 adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze.

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  • 29. 

    Which series practice bomb only weighs 5 pounds?

    • BDU–48

    • BDU–50.

    • BDU–56.

    • MK–106.

    Correct Answer
    A. MK–106.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MK-106. The question asks for the series practice bomb that weighs only 5 pounds. Among the given options, the MK-106 is the only one that fits this criteria. The BDU-48, BDU-50, and BDU-56 are not mentioned to weigh 5 pounds, so they are not the correct answer.

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  • 30. 

    The components of a wind-corrected munitions dispenser are a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and

    • Dummy fuze.

    • Rocket motor.

    • Signal cartridge.

    • Flight program software.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight program software.
    Explanation
    The components listed in the question are the fin guidance system, variable position umbilical connector, and dummy fuze. None of these components are related to flight program software. Therefore, the correct answer is flight program software.

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  • 31. 

    How is 20 millimeter ammunition classified?

    • According to its purpose

    • As either combat or noncombat ammunition.

    • By the type of gun system in which it is used.

    • By its initiation method (electric or percussion).

    Correct Answer
    A. According to its purpose
    Explanation
    The classification of 20 millimeter ammunition is based on its purpose. This means that it is categorized as either combat or noncombat ammunition, depending on its intended use.

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  • 32. 

    The identifying information of a 20 millimeter round of ammunition is marked on the

    • Fuze.

    • Primer.

    • Bourrelet.

    • Projectile.

    Correct Answer
    A. Projectile.
    Explanation
    The identifying information of a 20 millimeter round of ammunition is marked on the projectile. This is because the projectile is the actual bullet or missile that is fired from a firearm or weapon. It is the part of the ammunition that is propelled towards the target. Therefore, it makes sense for the identifying information to be marked on the projectile itself for easy identification and tracking purposes. The fuze is the device that initiates the explosion, the primer is the ignition component, and the bourrelet is a band around the projectile that helps with sealing and stability.

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  • 33. 

    How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds?

    • It is painted blue.

    • It is hollow and lighter.

    • The projectile is non-separable and the total cartridge is gold in color.

    • It is made up of three sections and the total cartridge is gold in color

    Correct Answer
    A. The projectile is non-separable and the total cartridge is gold in color.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the projectile is non-separable and the total cartridge is gold in color. This means that the projectile cannot be separated from the cartridge, and the entire cartridge is painted gold. This is a distinguishing feature that sets it apart from other 25 mm rounds. The other options, such as being painted blue or being hollow and lighter, are not mentioned as characteristics of a 25 mm dummy cartridge.

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  • 34. 

    What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired?

    • Lock ring.

    • Split latch.

    • Safety block.

    • Detonator safety latch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lock ring.
    Explanation
    The lock ring is the device that holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired. It is responsible for keeping the fuze secure and preventing accidental detonation. The lock ring ensures the safety of the device until it is ready to be used.

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  • 35. 

    What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter high-explosive (HE) round?

    • Comp B

    • Comp C.

    • Cyclonite (RDX).

    • Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate (PETN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Comp B
    Explanation
    Comp B is the correct answer. Comp B is a type of explosive that is commonly used in military projectiles, including the 105 millimeter high-explosive (HE) round. It is a mixture of TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and RDX (Cyclonite), which makes it highly effective as a high-explosive filler. Comp B is known for its stability and reliability, making it a suitable choice for military applications.

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  • 36. 

    Countermeasure flares are designed

    • As emergency signaling by a downed aircraft.

    • To illuminate emergency landing fields at night.

    • For emergency signaling to rescue aircraft from the ground.

    • To divert enemy infrared/heat-seeking missiles away from original target.

    Correct Answer
    A. To divert enemy infrared/heat-seeking missiles away from original target.
    Explanation
    Countermeasure flares are designed to divert enemy infrared/heat-seeking missiles away from their original target. These flares release a bright light and heat source, which distracts the missiles and lures them away from the aircraft. This helps to protect the aircraft and increase its chances of survival during combat situations. The other options mentioned, such as emergency signaling and illuminating landing fields, are not the primary purpose of countermeasure flares.

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  • 37. 

    How is an ALA–17 series flare ignited?

    • A percussion-type firing pin.

    • A pull friction-striker in the flare.

    • An electric squib ignition assembly.

    • By spontaneous ignition when ejected into the atmosphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. An electric squib ignition assembly.
    Explanation
    The ALA-17 series flare is ignited using an electric squib ignition assembly. This means that an electrical current is used to activate the squib, which in turn ignites the flare. This method provides a reliable and controlled ignition process for the flare, ensuring that it is ignited safely and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    Electric squibs (propellant-actuated device) are similar to

    • Aircraft thrusters.

    • Electrical fuzes.

    • Blasting caps.

    • Arming wire.

    Correct Answer
    A. Blasting caps.
    Explanation
    Electric squibs (propellant-actuated devices) are similar to blasting caps. Both electric squibs and blasting caps are explosive devices that are used to initiate or trigger a larger explosion or combustion process. They are typically used in industries such as mining, demolition, and pyrotechnics. Electric squibs and blasting caps are designed to be activated through an electrical current, which causes a small explosion or ignition that sets off the main explosive charge. This similarity in function and activation method makes blasting caps the most appropriate comparison to electric squibs.

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  • 39. 

    How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?

    • Electric igniter.

    • Percussion primer.

    • By lighting the fuze.

    • Concentrated laser beam

    Correct Answer
    A. Percussion primer.
    Explanation
    The A/P25S-5A distress signal kit is ignited using a percussion primer. A percussion primer is a device that contains a small explosive charge and a percussion cap. When struck with enough force, the percussion cap ignites the explosive charge, which then ignites the distress signal kit. This method of ignition is commonly used in emergency signaling devices as it provides a reliable and instantaneous ignition source.

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  • 40. 

     What altitude is attainable by the M131 signal when fired?

    • 1,000 feet.

    • 1,500 feet.

    • 2,000 feet.

    • 2,500 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,500 feet.
    Explanation
    The M131 signal can attain an altitude of 1,500 feet when fired.

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  • 41. 

    What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

    • Inert powder.

    • Black powder.

    • Composition B.

    • White phosphorus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Black powder.
    Explanation
    The explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade is black powder. Black powder is a type of gunpowder that consists of sulfur, charcoal, and potassium nitrate. It is commonly used as a propellant in firearms and fireworks. In the case of the M30 practice grenade, black powder is used to create a small explosion for training or practice purposes, without causing significant damage or harm.

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  • 42. 

    What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?

    • Composition B.

    • Composition C.

    • Cyclonite (RDX).

    • White phosphorus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Composition B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Composition B. Composition B is a type of explosive filler commonly used in M26 fragmentation grenades. It is a mixture of TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and RDX (Cyclonite). Composition B is known for its high explosive power and stability, making it an effective choice for military explosives.

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  • 43. 

    With the exception of the explosive filler, the BLU–126/B and BLU–129/B are identical to the

    • M117 series bomb.

    • MK82 MOD 2 bomb.

    • MK84 MOD 3 bomb.

    • BLU–109 series bomb.

    Correct Answer
    A. MK82 MOD 2 bomb.
    Explanation
    The given statement states that the BLU-126/B and BLU-129/B bombs are identical to a certain bomb, except for the explosive filler. The correct answer, MK82 MOD 2 bomb, implies that the BLU-126/B and BLU-129/B bombs are identical to the MK82 MOD 2 bomb in all aspects except for the explosive filler. This means that the design, structure, and other components of the BLU-126/B and BLU-129/B bombs are the same as the MK82 MOD 2 bomb, but they differ only in terms of the explosive material used.

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  • 44. 

    The CBU–89 is loaded with which submunitions?

    • BLU–91/B bomblets only.

    • BLU–91/B and BLU–92/B bomblets.

    • BLU–91/B, BLU–92/B and BLU–97/B bomblets.

    • BLU–91/B, BLU–92/B, BLU–97/B, and BLU–108/B bomblets.

    Correct Answer
    A. BLU–91/B and BLU–92/B bomblets.
    Explanation
    The CBU-89 is loaded with BLU-91/B and BLU-92/B bomblets.

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  • 45. 

    Once free falling over the target area what imparts spin and upward thrust for BLU–108 submunitions?

    • MXU–650 airfoil group.

    • Drogue parachute.

    • Impulse cartridge.

    • Rocket motor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rocket motor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is rocket motor. Once free falling over the target area, the BLU-108 submunitions are equipped with a rocket motor that imparts spin and upward thrust. This rocket motor provides the necessary propulsion to ensure that the submunitions are accurately delivered to their intended target. The spin and upward thrust help in stabilizing the submunitions and improving their accuracy during descent, increasing the chances of hitting the target effectively.

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  • 46. 

    Which 20 millimeter round carries the M505 point-detonating fuze?

    • Target practice (TP).

    • Armor-piercing tracer (APT).

    • High-explosive incendiary (HEI).

    • Armor-piercing incendiary (API).

    Correct Answer
    A. High-explosive incendiary (HEI).
    Explanation
    The M505 point-detonating fuze is carried by the High-explosive incendiary (HEI) 20 millimeter round. This type of round is designed to explode upon impact, causing both high-explosive and incendiary effects. It is commonly used for anti-aircraft purposes and can be effective against various types of targets.

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  • 47. 

    The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces

    • An off-white light of two-million candlepower.

    • An off-white light of 500,000 candlepower.

    • White light of one-million candlepower.

    • White light of 300,000 candlepower.

    Correct Answer
    A. An off-white light of two-million candlepower.
    Explanation
    The LUU-2 series aircraft flare produces an off-white light of two-million candlepower. This means that the flare emits a strong, bright light with a candlepower measurement of two million. The term "off-white" indicates that the light may have a slightly yellowish or creamy tint, rather than being pure white. The high candlepower value suggests that the flare is very bright and can illuminate a large area.

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  • 48. 

    The LUU–19 series illumination flare produces

    • Red light.

    • Green light.

    • Visible light.

    • Light in the near-infrared region.

    Correct Answer
    A. Light in the near-infrared region.
    Explanation
    The LUU-19 series illumination flare produces light in the near-infrared region. This means that the flare emits light that is not visible to the naked eye but can be detected by infrared sensors or cameras. Near-infrared light has longer wavelengths than visible light and is often used for surveillance, night vision, and other applications where visibility in the dark is required.

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  • 49. 

    How much gas pressure can a thruster (cartridge-actuated device) produce?

    • 9,000 to 10,000 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • 7,000 to 8,000 (psi).

    • 250 to 6,000 (psi).

    • 1 to 250 (psi).

    Correct Answer
    A. 250 to 6,000 (psi).
    Explanation
    A thruster, specifically a cartridge-actuated device, is capable of producing gas pressure ranging from 250 to 6,000 pounds per square inch (psi). This range indicates the potential variability in the gas pressure output of a thruster, which can be adjusted depending on the specific requirements of the application or task at hand.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 01, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Brian Kelly
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