2w051b Vol 2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S

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2w051b Vol 2 Ure Questions I.Y.A.A.Y.A.S - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce

    • A.

      Pressure.

    • B.

      Energy.

    • C.

      Vapors.

    • D.

      Heat

    Correct Answer
    C. Vapors.
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to evaporate or vaporize. When a substance is volatile, it easily converts into a gaseous state, producing vapors. These vapors can be released into the air, creating a potentially hazardous or flammable environment. Therefore, the correct answer is vapors.

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  • 2. 

    The word hygroscopicity refers to what property of an explosive?

    • A.

      Moisture-absorbing.

    • B.

      Tendency to produce sensitive metallic salts.

    • C.

      Ability of an explosive to be cast into a mold or form.

    • D.

      Ability to liberate gaseous products during detonation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Moisture-absorbing.
    Explanation
    Hygroscopicity refers to the property of an explosive to absorb moisture. This means that the explosive has the ability to attract and retain water molecules from its surroundings. This property is important because moisture can affect the stability and performance of the explosive. Moisture-absorbing explosives are more prone to degradation and can become less effective over time. Therefore, understanding the hygroscopicity of an explosive is crucial in ensuring its reliability and safety.

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  • 3. 

    A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be

    • A.

      Cheap.

    • B.

      Non-hygroscopic.

    • C.

      Common to America.

    • D.

      Vital to the war effort.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheap.
    Explanation
    The requirement for military explosives is that the raw materials must be cheap. This means that the cost of acquiring the raw materials should be low, allowing for the production of explosives in large quantities without putting a strain on the military budget. By using cheap raw materials, the military can ensure that they have an adequate supply of explosives to support their operations.

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  • 4. 

    The rate of transformation for high explosives is between 3,200 and

    • A.

      25,000 feet per second (fps).

    • B.

      28,000 fps

    • C.

      31,000 fps.

    • D.

      32,000 fps

    Correct Answer
    B. 28,000 fps
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 28,000 fps because it falls within the given range of 3,200 and 25,000 fps. The rate of transformation for high explosives can vary, but it is stated that it falls between these two values. Therefore, 28,000 fps is a valid rate within this range.

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  • 5. 

    The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called

    • A.

      Detonation.

    • B.

      Disposition

    • C.

      Deflagration

    • D.

      Decomposition

    Correct Answer
    C. Deflagration
    Explanation
    Deflagration is the correct answer because it refers to the tendency of a substance to burn rapidly and produce a sparkling combustion. It is a type of combustion that occurs at a subsonic speed and is characterized by a flame front that moves through the substance. This process is different from detonation, which involves a supersonic speed and a shock wave. Disposition refers to a person's inherent qualities or tendencies, while decomposition refers to the breakdown of a substance into simpler components.

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  • 6. 

    Explosive train primers are classified

    • A.

      By the size of the primer.

    • B.

      According to their location.

    • C.

      By the way they are initiated.

    • D.

      According to their functioning.

    Correct Answer
    C. By the way they are initiated.
    Explanation
    Explosive train primers are classified by the way they are initiated. This means that the classification is based on how the primers are activated or set off to initiate the explosive reaction. The size of the primer, their location, and their functioning may also be important factors in the classification, but the key factor is how they are initiated.

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  • 7. 

    What does an explosive train booster do?

    • A.

      Detonates the fuze

    • B.

      Detonates the main charge.

    • C.

      Transmits energy from one detonating component to the next.

    • D.

      Controls the delay in the functioning of the fuze’s explosive train.

    Correct Answer
    B. Detonates the main charge.
    Explanation
    An explosive train booster is responsible for detonating the main charge. This means that it initiates the explosion of the main explosive material, causing it to release a large amount of energy. The booster acts as a trigger, transmitting energy from one detonating component to the next, ultimately leading to the detonation of the main charge. It does not detonate the fuze or control the delay in the functioning of the fuze's explosive train.

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  • 8. 

    How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?

    • A.

      Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.

    • B.

      With a super quick action HE train.

    • C.

      With a delay action HE train.

    • D.

      Use a non-delay element.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.
    Explanation
    To achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb, a time action high-explosive (HE) train is used. This means that the bomb is equipped with a timer that determines when the explosion will occur after the bomb is dropped. By setting the timer to the desired delay, the bomb can be detonated in mid-air, creating an airburst effect. This technique is often used to maximize the blast radius and damage potential of the bomb, especially in situations where ground impact may not be as effective.

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  • 9. 

    How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?

    • A.

      Decrease standoff distance.

    • B.

      Decrease explosive charge.

    • C.

      Increase standoff distance

    • D.

      Increase explosive charge.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase standoff distance
    Explanation
    Increasing the standoff distance can increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge. Standoff distance refers to the distance between the shaped charge and the target. By increasing this distance, the shaped charge has more time to focus and direct the explosive energy towards the target, resulting in a greater penetration effect. This allows the shaped charge to generate a more concentrated and powerful jet of molten metal, which can effectively penetrate and defeat armored targets.

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  • 10. 

    What is a shaped charge used for?

    • A.

      Bring down walls and collapse roofs.

    • B.

      Any application in the munitions field.

    • C.

      Ignite rocket motors equipped with electric squibs.

    • D.

      To produce an explosive penetration of a solid target.

    Correct Answer
    D. To produce an explosive penetration of a solid target.
    Explanation
    A shaped charge is designed to produce an explosive penetration of a solid target. It is commonly used in military applications, such as anti-tank warfare, where it can effectively penetrate armored vehicles or fortifications. The charge is shaped in a way that focuses the explosive energy into a narrow jet, which can then penetrate the target with a high velocity. This makes it a powerful tool for demolishing structures, breaching barriers, or disabling enemy vehicles.

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  • 11. 

    The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and

    • A.

      Light

    • B.

      Altitude.

    • C.

       humidity

    • D.

      Chemical composition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The visibility of pyrotechnics is controlled by four factors: candlepower, color, weather, and light. These factors determine how well the pyrotechnics can be seen. While candlepower and color play a role in the brightness and distinctiveness of the pyrotechnics, weather conditions such as humidity and altitude can also affect visibility. However, the most crucial factor is light. Adequate lighting conditions are necessary for pyrotechnics to be visible to the audience.

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  • 12. 

    The classifications of pyrotechnics include illuminants

    • A.

      And signals only.

    • B.

      And igniters only

    • C.

      And combinations of signals only.

    • D.

      Signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators.

    Correct Answer
    D. Signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators.
    Explanation
    The classifications of pyrotechnics include signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators. This means that pyrotechnics can be categorized into three main types: signals, which are used for communication or warning purposes; combinations of signals and illuminants, which produce both light and sound effects; and simulators, which are used to replicate certain real-life situations or events. These classifications cover a wide range of pyrotechnic products and their intended uses.

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  • 13. 

    What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate?

    • A.

      Color of the signal produced.

    • B.

      Type of pyrotechnic ammunition.

    • C.

      Different factory modification of signals.

    • D.

      Different manufacturer identification codes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Color of the signal produced.
    Explanation
    The colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate the color of the signal produced. This is important for identifying and distinguishing between different types of signals, such as distress signals, smoke signals, or illumination signals. The color of the signal can provide crucial information to those interpreting and responding to the signal, allowing for effective communication and coordination in various situations.

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  • 14. 

    Approximately how many minutes does the MK6 signal flare burn?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    D. 40
    Explanation
    The MK6 signal flare burns for approximately 40 minutes.

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  • 15. 

    What pyrotechnic effects are produced by the AN–MK13 signal?

    • A.

      Flare and noise.

    • B.

      Smoke and noise.

    • C.

      Signal and illumination.

    • D.

      Smoke and illumination.

    Correct Answer
    D. Smoke and illumination.
    Explanation
    The AN-MK13 signal produces smoke and illumination. This means that when the signal is ignited, it releases smoke as well as produces a bright light. The smoke can be used for signaling or creating a visual barrier, while the illumination can be used to light up an area or provide visibility in low light conditions.

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  • 16. 

    The primary reason the AN–MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld while burning is to allow

    • A.

      Downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water.

    • B.

      Climb a tree and push the flare above the forest canopy

    • C.

      Wave the flare, causing movement that helps attract attention.

    • D.

      Throw the flare into a clearing without risking undue exposure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water.
    Explanation
    The primary reason the AN-MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld while burning is to allow a downed pilot to hold the flare while treading water. This suggests that the flare is designed to be easily held and operated by someone in water, indicating that it is waterproof and buoyant. This would enable a pilot who has ejected into water to easily signal for help without having to let go of the flare or risk dropping it.

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  • 17. 

    How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?

    • A.

      Electric igniter.

    • B.

      Percussion primer.

    • C.

      By lighting the fuze.

    • D.

      Concentrated laser beam

    Correct Answer
    B. Percussion primer.
    Explanation
    The A/P25S-5A distress signal kit is ignited using a percussion primer. A percussion primer is a device that contains a small explosive charge and a percussion cap. When struck with enough force, the percussion cap ignites the explosive charge, which then ignites the distress signal kit. This method of ignition is commonly used in emergency signaling devices as it provides a reliable and instantaneous ignition source.

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  • 18. 

    How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?

    • A.

      50,000 candlepower.

    • B.

      100,000 candlepower.

    • C.

      1,000,000 candlepower.

    • D.

      2,000,000 candlepower.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50,000 candlepower.
    Explanation
    The M127A1 signal produces 50,000 candlepower of light.

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  • 19. 

     What altitude is attainable by the M131 signal when fired?

    • A.

      1,000 feet.

    • B.

      1,500 feet.

    • C.

      2,000 feet.

    • D.

      2,500 feet.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1,500 feet.
    Explanation
    The M131 signal can attain an altitude of 1,500 feet when fired.

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  • 20. 

    The largest caliber ammunition that we classify as “small arms” is

    • A.

      Caliber .38.

    • B.

      Caliber .50.

    • C.

      5.56 millimeter.

    • D.

      7.62 millimeter.

    Correct Answer
    B. Caliber .50.
    Explanation
    The largest caliber ammunition that is classified as "small arms" is caliber .50. This means that any ammunition with a caliber larger than .50 would be considered as something other than small arms.

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  • 21. 

    The components of a typical small-arms cartridge are cartridge case,

    • A.

      Primer, bullet, and propellant.

    • B.

      Primer, bullet, and detonator.

    • C.

      Shot pellets, and propellant.

    • D.

      Propellant, and tracer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primer, bullet, and propellant.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is primer, bullet, and propellant. A small-arms cartridge consists of these three components. The primer is a small explosive charge that ignites the propellant when struck by the firing pin. The propellant is a chemical substance that burns rapidly, creating high-pressure gas to propel the bullet out of the cartridge case and down the barrel. The bullet is the projectile that is fired from the firearm.

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  • 22. 

    The filler for the M34 smoke grenade is

    • A.

      Adamsite and silica aerogel.

    • B.

      Chloroacetophenone.

    • C.

      White phosphorus.

    • D.

      Magnesium oxide.

    Correct Answer
    C. White pHospHorus.
    Explanation
    White phosphorus is the correct answer for the filler of the M34 smoke grenade. White phosphorus is a highly reactive substance that ignites upon contact with air and produces thick white smoke. It is commonly used in smoke grenades to create a smokescreen for military operations or to signal locations. Adamsite and silica aerogel are not commonly used as fillers for smoke grenades, while chloroacetophenone is a tear gas agent and magnesium oxide is a fire retardant, making them unsuitable for smoke grenade fillers.

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  • 23. 

    What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?

    • A.

      Inert powder.

    • B.

      Black powder.

    • C.

      Composition B.

    • D.

      White phosphorus.

    Correct Answer
    B. Black powder.
    Explanation
    The explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade is black powder. Black powder is a type of gunpowder that consists of sulfur, charcoal, and potassium nitrate. It is commonly used as a propellant in firearms and fireworks. In the case of the M30 practice grenade, black powder is used to create a small explosion for training or practice purposes, without causing significant damage or harm.

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  • 24. 

    What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?

    • A.

      Composition B.

    • B.

      Composition C.

    • C.

      Cyclonite (RDX).

    • D.

      White phosphorus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Composition B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Composition B. Composition B is a type of explosive filler commonly used in M26 fragmentation grenades. It is a mixture of TNT (Trinitrotoluene) and RDX (Cyclonite). Composition B is known for its high explosive power and stability, making it an effective choice for military explosives.

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  • 25. 

    The AN–M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical filler to produce what kind of smoke?

    • A.

      Poisonous.

    • B.

      Orange.

    • C.

      White.

    • D.

      Black.

    Correct Answer
    C. White.
    Explanation
    The AN-M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical filler to produce white smoke. Hexachloroethane is a white crystalline powder that, when ignited, produces a dense white smoke. This type of smoke is commonly used in military operations for signaling, obscuring vision, and creating a smoke screen.

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  • 26. 

    Which antipersonnel mine is commonly called the claymore?

    • A.

      M14.

    • B.

      M18A1.

    • C.

      M27A1.

    • D.

      M28A1.

    Correct Answer
    B. M18A1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M18A1. The M18A1 is commonly referred to as the claymore antipersonnel mine. It is a directional mine that is designed to be detonated towards a specific target, typically used in defensive or ambush situations. The mine is named after the Scottish sword, as it has a curved shape resembling a claymore sword. It is widely used by military forces around the world due to its effectiveness in inflicting casualties on enemy personnel.

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  • 27. 

    How much force pressed against the pressure plate is required to set off the M14 antipersonnel mine?

    • A.

      1 to 10 pounds.

    • B.

      10 to 15 pounds.

    • C.

      15 to 30 pounds.

    • D.

      20 to 35 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    D. 20 to 35 pounds.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20 to 35 pounds. This range of force is required to set off the M14 antipersonnel mine. Any force applied within this range will trigger the mine, causing it to explode.

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  • 28. 

    Which type of mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?

    • A.

      Light.

    • B.

      Small.

    • C.

      Heavy.

    • D.

      Medium

    Correct Answer
    A. Light.
    Explanation
    Light mortar is the correct answer because it is designed for shorter range engagements and has a smaller explosive charge compared to other types of mortars. Light mortars are typically used by infantry units to provide close support in combat situations where precision and mobility are key. They can be easily transported and quickly set up in various terrains, making them suitable for rapid deployment and maneuverability on the battlefield. The smaller explosive charge of the light mortar allows for more controlled and targeted strikes against enemy positions.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?

    • A.

      Light.

    • B.

      Small.

    • C.

      Heavy.

    • D.

      Medium.

    Correct Answer
    D. Medium.
    Explanation
    Medium type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying. This implies that medium type of mortar is not too light or too heavy to be carried in smaller loads. Light type of mortar would already be easy to carry, so breaking it down into smaller loads would not be necessary. Small type of mortar may already be in smaller loads, so breaking it down further would not be applicable. Heavy type of mortar would be too difficult to carry even in smaller loads, so breaking it down would not make it easier to carry.

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  • 30. 

    What device is used to detonate a high explosive (HE)?

    • A.

      Firing wire.

    • B.

      Blasting cap.

    • C.

      Galvanometer.

    • D.

      Detonating cord clip.

    Correct Answer
    B. Blasting cap.
    Explanation
    A blasting cap is a device used to detonate a high explosive (HE). It is a small explosive device that contains a sensitive primary explosive, which can be initiated by a flame, electric current, or impact. When the blasting cap is activated, it creates a shockwave that ignites the main explosive charge, causing it to detonate. Blasting caps are commonly used in mining, construction, and military operations to initiate controlled explosions.

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  • 31. 

    What weatherproof device is used to initiate a time fuze?

    • A.

      Firing wire.

    • B.

      M60 igniter.

    • C.

      Galvanometer.

    • D.

      Blasting machine.

    Correct Answer
    B. M60 igniter.
    Explanation
    The M60 igniter is a weatherproof device commonly used to initiate a time fuze. It is designed to withstand various weather conditions and ensure reliable ignition of the fuze. The firing wire, galvanometer, and blasting machine are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not provide the necessary weatherproofing or functionality required for initiating a time fuze.

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  • 32. 

    The M112 demo block is made of

    • A.

      Ammonia

    • B.

      Nitroglycerin

    • C.

      Black powder.

    • D.

      Composition C–4.

    Correct Answer
    D. Composition C–4.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is composition C-4. This is because the M112 demo block is commonly made of C-4, which is a type of plastic explosive. C-4 is known for its stability, high energy output, and versatility, making it suitable for various military and civilian applications. It is often used in demolition, mining, and military operations due to its reliable and powerful explosive properties.

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  • 33. 

    Blasting machines are used to provide the impulse needed in

    • A.

      Percussion detonations.

    • B.

      Electrical detonations.

    • C.

      Priming adapters.

    • D.

      Blasting caps.

    Correct Answer
    B. Electrical detonations.
    Explanation
    Blasting machines are used to provide the impulse needed in electrical detonations. These machines generate an electrical current that is used to initiate the detonation process. By delivering a controlled electrical impulse, blasting machines ensure that the detonation occurs at the desired time and with the necessary force. They are commonly used in mining, construction, and demolition industries to safely and efficiently trigger explosions for various purposes.

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  • 34. 

    The firing wire used in detonation systems is issued in what lengths?

    • A.

      50-foot.

    • B.

      100-foot.

    • C.

      500-foot.

    • D.

      1000-foot.

    Correct Answer
    C. 500-foot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 500-foot. This length is commonly used for firing wires in detonation systems. It provides enough flexibility and reach to connect the detonator to the control system while maintaining a safe distance from the explosive materials. Additionally, a 500-foot length allows for easy handling and storage during operations.

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  • 35. 

    The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and

    • A.

      Proximity

    • B.

      Hydraulic.

    • C.

      Electrical.

    • D.

      Inertia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximity
    Explanation
    The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and proximity. Proximity fuzes are designed to detonate when they come within a certain distance of the target. This type of fuze is commonly used in air defense systems, where it can detect and explode near incoming enemy aircraft or missiles. Proximity fuzes rely on various technologies such as radar or infrared sensors to determine the distance to the target and initiate the detonation at the right moment. This allows for a higher probability of hitting the target and causing damage even if the projectile itself doesn't directly impact it.

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  • 36. 

    What component in an electronically-timed fuze replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes?

    • A.

      Battery-firing device.

    • B.

      Arming lanyard assembly.

    • C.

      Electric charging assembly.

    • D.

      Electronically timed sensor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Electric charging assembly.
    Explanation
    In an electronically-timed fuze, the electric charging assembly replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes. The electric charging assembly is responsible for charging the electrical components of the fuze, allowing for precise timing and detonation. This component ensures that the fuze functions accurately and reliably, without the need for mechanical vanes to control the timing.

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  • 37. 

    Which safety feature is designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled?

    • A.

      Seal wires.

    • B.

      Cotter pins.

    • C.

      Safety blocks.

    • D.

      Detonator safe” feature.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cotter pins.
    Explanation
    Cotter pins are safety features that are designed to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled. These pins are inserted through holes in the components, effectively locking them in place and ensuring that they do not accidentally arm or detonate. Cotter pins provide a secure and reliable method of preventing unintended movement and are commonly used in various mechanical and safety applications.

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  • 38. 

    How do you change the firing delay times in a mechanically-timed M904 nose fuze?

    • A.

      By rotating the timing lock.

    • B.

      By changing the delay element.

    • C.

      By adjusting the calibrated dial.

    • D.

      The firing delay time is fixed and cannot be changed.

    Correct Answer
    B. By changing the delay element.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "By changing the delay element." This means that the firing delay times in a mechanically-timed M904 nose fuze can be altered by replacing the delay element. The delay element is responsible for determining the amount of time it takes for the fuze to detonate after impact or activation. By replacing the delay element with one that has a different timing, the firing delay times can be adjusted accordingly.

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  • 39. 

    What action must you take to set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6 seconds on an M904 fuze?

    • A.

      Press the time lock.

    • B.

      Install the stop screw in the fuze body.

    • C.

      Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.

    • D.

      Press the detent pin on the arming vane shaft.

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.
    Explanation
    To set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6 seconds on an M904 fuze, the action that must be taken is to remove the stop screw from the fuze body. This will allow the arming vane shaft to rotate freely and reduce the time it takes for the fuze to arm.

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  • 40. 

    What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?

    • A.

      T35

    • B.

      T45

    • C.

      T55

    • D.

      FZU–2/B.

    Correct Answer
    B. T45
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T45. The T45 adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze.

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  • 41. 

    Where is the M905 fuze installed in a general-purpose bomb body?

    • A.

      Either the nose or the tail.

    • B.

      The nose fuze well.

    • C.

      The tail fuze well.

    • D.

      Between the lugs.

    Correct Answer
    C. The tail fuze well.
    Explanation
    The M905 fuze is installed in the tail fuze well of a general-purpose bomb body. This means that the fuze is located in the rear section of the bomb body, where it is securely fitted into a designated compartment. This placement allows for proper functioning and activation of the fuze upon impact or detonation, ensuring the intended explosive effect of the bomb.

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  • 42. 

    Which device is used in place of arming wire with electrical fuzes?

    • A.

      Bungee cord.

    • B.

      Battery-firing device.

    • C.

      Linear-shaped charge.

    • D.

      Target-detecting device.

    Correct Answer
    B. Battery-firing device.
    Explanation
    A battery-firing device is used in place of arming wire with electrical fuzes. This device is responsible for initiating the electrical current that activates the fuzes, allowing for the detonation of explosives or other devices. It eliminates the need for manual arming with wire, providing a more efficient and controlled method of initiating the fuzes.

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  • 43. 

    When installed in the nose fuze well, how many FZU–2/B boosters are used with the FMU–

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    D. 4
  • 44. 

    What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze?

    • A.

      FZU–39/B sensor.

    • B.

      FZU–48/B initiator.

    • C.

      Battery-firing device.

    • D.

      MK32 Mod 1 arming device.

    Correct Answer
    B. FZU–48/B initiator.
    Explanation
    The FZU-48/B initiator is the component that provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuze.

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  • 45. 

    Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers?

    • A.

      FZU–39/B.

    • B.

      FMU–56/B.

    • C.

      FMU–110/B.

    • D.

      FMU–124/B

    Correct Answer
    A. FZU–39/B.
    Explanation
    The FZU-39/B is the correct answer because it is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the SUU-64/B, SUU-65/B, and SUU-66/B dispensers.

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  • 46. 

    Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting of 15 feet above ground level that is built into the fuze at the time of manufacture?

    • A.

      FZU–39/B.

    • B.

      FMU–56/B.

    • C.

      FMU–110/B.

    • D.

      FMU–113/B.

    Correct Answer
    D. FMU–113/B.
    Explanation
    The FMU-113/B proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting of 15 feet above ground level that is built into the fuze at the time of manufacture.

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  • 47. 

    Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb?

    • A.

      BSU–49/B.

    • B.

      BSU–50/B.

    • C.

      BSU–92.

    • D.

      BSU–93.

    Correct Answer
    A. BSU–49/B.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BSU-49/B.

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  • 48. 

    Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?

    • A.

      BLU–113.

    • B.

      BLU–118.

    • C.

      BLU–122.

    • D.

      BLU–126.

    Correct Answer
    D. BLU–126.
    Explanation
    The BLU-126 bomb is not classified as a penetrator.

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  • 49. 

    Which 4,000 pound penetrator bomb is used as the warhead/bomb body for the GBU– 28A/B?

    • A.

      BLU–113.

    • B.

      BLU–118.

    • C.

      BLU–122.

    • D.

      BLU–126.

    Correct Answer
    A. BLU–113.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BLU-113. The BLU-113 is a 4,000 pound penetrator bomb that is used as the warhead/bomb body for the GBU-28A/B.

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  • 50. 

    Which bomb provides deeper penetration than the BLU–113 and is used with the GBU– 28C/B?

    • A.

      BLU–109.

    • B.

      BLU–118.

    • C.

      BLU–122.

    • D.

      BLU–126.

    Correct Answer
    C. BLU–122.
    Explanation
    The BLU-122 bomb provides deeper penetration than the BLU-113 and is used with the GBU-28C/B.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 01, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Brian Kelly
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