The largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms" is
Removers (cartridge-actuated device) are designed to
The 30 millimeter dummy ammunition
Which safety feature is designed to prevent movement of the arming...
The 30 millimeter cartridge case is made of
The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are...
How many separate lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30...
How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter...
What action must you take to set the SECONDS TO ARM setting below 6...
The AN–M8 smoke grenade uses hexachloroethane as a chemical...
What aircraft is equipped to fire 105 millimeter ammunition?
The incendiary composition of the 20 millimeter armor-piercing...
What 20 millimeter projectile component enables spin and stabilization...
The word hygroscopicity refers to what property of an explosive?
A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be
The primary reason the AN–MK13 Mod 0 signal can be handheld...
The high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile will produce...
In order to optimize lethality the factory set height of burst (HOB)...
The approximate length of a complete 105 millimeter round is
The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides
How can you achieve an airburst with a general-purpose bomb?
The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and
How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm...
Which series practice bomb only weighs 5 pounds?
What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter M505A3 impact...
Electric squibs (propellant-actuated device) are similar to
The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling...
What is a shaped charge used for?
The components of a typical small-arms cartridge are cartridge case,
The filler for the M34 smoke grenade is
Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce
The components of a wind-corrected munitions dispenser are a fin...
How is 20 millimeter ammunition classified?
What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze?
What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105...
Countermeasure flares are designed
The identifying information of a 20 millimeter round of ammunition is...
How is an ALA–17 series flare ignited?
How is the A/P25S–5A distress signal kit ignited?
What is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?
Once free falling over the target area what imparts spin and upward...
What altitude is attainable by the M131 signal when fired?
Which 20 millimeter round carries the M505 point-detonating fuze?
The CBU–89 is loaded with which submunitions?
The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces
With the exception of the explosive filler, the BLU–126/B and...
The LUU–19 series illumination flare produces
How much gas pressure can a thruster (cartridge-actuated device)...
The classifications of pyrotechnics include illuminants
Approximately how many minutes does the MK6 signal flare burn?
Which type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for...
What component in an electronically-timed fuze replaces the arming...
How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30...
What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions...
Where is the M905 fuze installed in a general-purpose bomb body?
What 20 millimeter round is used for drill or testing the feeder...
What pyrotechnic effects are produced by the AN–MK13 signal?
The delayed arming distance of a M505 series fuze from the muzzle of a...
What weatherproof device is used to initiate a time fuze?
Blasting machines are used to provide the impulse needed in
The 105 millimeter clearing cartridge is designed to
The M112 demo block is made of
The firing wire used in detonation systems is issued in what lengths?
Explosive train primers are classified
Which antipersonnel mine is commonly called the claymore?
How much force pressed against the pressure plate is required to set...
Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with...
Which component is part of the ALE–50 series towed decoy system...
The rate of transformation for high explosives is between 3,200 and
Which fuze is used in 30 millimeter high-explosive incendiary (HEI)...
Which device is used in place of arming wire with electrical fuzes?
When installed in the nose fuze well, how many FZU–2/B boosters...
Which type of mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge?
What device is used to detonate a high explosive (HE)?
The BDU–33 series practice bomb weighs
Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb?
How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
The CBU–87/B is loaded with which submunitions?
When bulk-packed, how many rounds of 20 millimeter ammunition do you...
The PDU–5/B uses which suspension utility unit (SUU)?
The purpose of the ignition booster in the 25 millimeter round is to
How do you change the firing delay times in a mechanically-timed M904...
When 25 millimeter ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds are...
What is the weight of the BDU–48 series practice bomb?
The CBU–87 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?
What fuze is used in the 40 millimeter high-explosive incendiary (HEI)...
What does an explosive train booster do?
How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
Which 4,000 pound penetrator bomb is used as the warhead/bomb body for...
What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter round?
The CBU–105 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to...
What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the...
Which bomb provides deeper penetration than the BLU–113 and is...
The CBU–89 uses which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser?
The RR–170 chaff cartridge uses which impulse cartridge?
Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare?
Which proximity fuze has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting of 15 feet...