Cwpc

1. The four instruments of national power, known as DIME are: Defense, Intelligence, Mission Analysis and Environment

True

False

Diplomatic - Information - Military - Economic

Explanation

Diplomatic - Information - Military - Economic

2. There are four levels of contingency plans: Level 1 - Commander's Estimate Level 2 - Base Plan (BPLAN) Level 3 - Concept Plan (CONPLAN) Level 4 - Operation Plan (OPLAN) Which level may or may not include a TPFDD?

Level 3

Level 4

3. A force module provides a means of logically grouping records (forces and sustainment), which facilitate planning, analysis and monitoring

True

False

4. The four pillars of the 2017 National Security Strategy are: 1. Protect the American people, the Homeland and the American way of life 2. Promote American prosperity 3. Preserve peace through strength 4. Advance American Influence.

True

False

5. Adaptive Planning and Execution System (APEX) is a DOD enterprise of joint policies, processes, procedures, and reporting structures supported by communications and information technology; that is used by the joint planning and execution community to monitor, plan, and execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization activities associated with joint operations.

True

False

6. Warfare is typically divided into three levels: Regional, operational, and geographical

True

False

Strategic - Operational - Tactical

Explanation

Strategic - Operational - Tactical

7. Military doctrine is defined as fundamental principles by which the military forces or elements thereof guide their actions in support of national objectives. Doctrine is considered

Authoritative and directive

Authoritative, but not directive

Directive, but not authoritative

8. Information Environment is defined as the aggregate of individuals, organizations, and systems that collect, process, disseminate or act on information. The Information Environment consists of three interrelated dimensions, which continuously interact with individuals, organizations, and systems. These dimensions are known as physical, informational and _________.

Cognitive

Logical

Electronic

9. The four components of a UTC are the: 1. MISCAP (defines the mission of the UTC is capable of accomplishing) 2. Manpower Force Element (manpower details) 3. Logistics Detail (LOGDET, the supplies and equipment details) 4. __________

UTC Summary Details (SUMDET)

Title

Classification

Option 4

10. Chain of Command is the succession of commanding officers from a superior to a subordinate through which command is exercised. What's another characteristic of the chain of command?

The CJCS exercises authority and control of the Armed Forces through two distinct branches (COCOM and OPCON))

11. Airlift Operations are described as either inter-theater (operations between two or more geographic combatant commands (GCCs) or intra-theater (operations exclusively within one GCC).

True

False

12. The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) provides a single face for all Air Force issues. The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) is designated to exploit the full capabilities of joint (air) operations.

True

False

13. The Joint Planning and Execution Planning Community (JPEC) includes headquarters, commands, and agencies involved in joint operation planning, or are committed to a joint operation.

True

False

14. Who assists in scheduling Functional Area Manager (FAM) training requirements, determining additional training requirements, and tracking appointment status of all Functional Area Manager (FAM)s in the command or agency?

Air Force Installation and Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)

Office of FAM Oversight (OFAMO)

HAF A3/Plans and Policy Division

15. Security Cooperation involves all DoD interactions with foreign defense establishments to build defense relationships that promote specific US security interests, build and develop friendly military capabilities, and provide US forces with peacetime and contingency access to a Host Nation (HN). Which is not a security cooperation program?

Security Assistance (SA)

Foreign Military Sales (FMS)

Foreign Internal Defense (FID)

All are security Cooperation programs

16. The USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) is the Air Force's supporting document to the Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP) that provides Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, planning factors, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) apportioned forces for conducting and supporting operations.

True

False

17. ROEs may restrict the the engagement of certain targets, or the use of particular weapons systems, out of a desire to tilt world opinion in a particular direction, place a positive limit on the escalation of hostilities, or avoid antagonizing the enemy.

True

False

18. AFI 10-401 augments the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) volumes with detailed Air Force guidance and instructions. True or False: AFI 10-401 prescribes and explains how the Air Force participates in the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC).

True

False

19. The four types of command authorities are Combatant Command, Operational Control, Tactical Control and

Administrative Control

Support

20. Forces are assigned or reassigned when the transfer of forces will be temporary.

True

False

21. Contingency plans are __________ of campaign plans that are deliberately planned for designated threats, catastrophic events, and non-crisis events.

Branches

OPORDS

CONPLAN

22. ART allows units the ability to report UTC level readiness data.

True

False

23. Teaming is defined as filling out a deployed unit with smaller portions from multiple units.

True

False

24. DCAPES is the Air Force's war planning system and provides an Air Force feed to JOPES' Automated Data Processing (ADP). Identify the additional ADP tools and systems.

JOPES Editing Tool (JET)

JOPES ADP Tool

Rapid Query Tool (RQT)

Submit

25. Mobilization is the process of assembling and organizing __________ to support national objectives in time of war or other emergencies.

Active duty forces

Guard/Reserve forces

Nation resources

Option 4

26. The assessment process uses measures of performance (MOPs) to evaluate task performance at all levels of war and measures of effectiveness (MOEs) to determine progress of operations toward achieving objectives. True of False: MOEs are criteria used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or operational environment.

True

False

27. The JFACC uses the Joint Operation Planning Process for Air (JOPPA) to develop the ________.

Joint Air Operations Plan

Service Component Plan

Theater Combat Plan

28. The GFMIG integrates complementary assignment, apportionment and allocation information into a single Global Force Management (GFM) document.

True

False

29. The three DOD cyber missions are: 1. Defend its own networks, systems and information 2. Advance cyber attacks on all enemies 3. Assist the Department of Homeland Security with voter hacks

True

False

30. Air Force Doctrine consists of three levels: 1. _________ 2. Operational (detailed organization of air and space forces) 3. Tactical (covers Tactics, Technique and Procedures (TTP))

Strategic

Service

Basic

31. There are two types of UTCs (standard and non-standard). Non-standard UTCs are identified as either Z99 or associate. True or False: Unit manpower that cannot be captured in a standard UTC will be postured in a Z99 UTC

True

False

32. The Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD) is defined as the time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan or operation order or ongoing rotation of forces.

True

False

33. Match the following

WMP-1

WMP-2

WMP-3

WMP-4

WMP-5

Submit

34. Assessment is a process that measures progress of the joint force toward mission accomplishment.

True

False

35. The AFIMSC Division Chiefs are the individulals accountable for the management and oversight of all personnel and equipment within a specific functional discipline to support operation planning and execution.

True

False

36. Planning for _________ is normally tasked in the JSCP based on the GEF or other directive.

Contingencies

Crises

37. Matching: Identify the components of DCAPES

UTM

MANFOR

LOGFOR

Submit

38. Select all that apply. During Presidential Reserve Call-up (PRC):

POTUS can activate ARC only with declaration of national emergency

POTUS can activate ARC without declaration of national emergency

POTUS can activate ARC forces for no more than 365 days

PRC is limited to not more than 200,000 Ready Reserve

Submit

39. Operational design employs various elements to develop and refine the commander's operational approach. Which three are elements of operational design?

Objectives

Operational reach

Assessment

Culmination

Submit

40. A campaign is a series of related major operations aimed at accomplishing the following objectives:

Tactical

Operational

Strategic

Submit

41. Information Environment. The information environment is the aggregate of individuals, organizations, and systems that collect, process, disseminate, or act on information. This environment consists of three interrelated dimensions, which continuously interact with individuals, organizations, and systems. What are the three interrelated dimensions?

Physical Dimension

Informational Dimension

Cyber Dimension

Cognitive Dimension

Submit

42. Operational Contract Support (OCS) is the process of planning for and obtaining supplies, services, and construction from military sources in support of joint operations.

True

False

43. War Reserve Materiel (WRM)—Materiel required, in addition to mobility equipment and primary operating stocks, to support wartime activities reflected in the USAF War and Mobilization (WMP) Plan until the industrial base can meet wartime demands. True or False: WRM comprises of national resources positioned as either starter or swing stock, or a combination of both, to maximize worldwide warfighting capability

True

False

44. Contingency planning encompasses activities associated with the time-senstive development of Operational Orders (OPORD).

True

False

45. The SECDEF's Unified Command Plan (UCP) establishes Combatant Command (CCMD) missions and responsibilities.

True

False

46. AFDD 3600.1 establishes important Information Operations Policy.

True

False

47. The LeMay Center for Doctrine Development and Education (LeMay Center) represents the Air Force in the development of joint doctrine.

True

False

48. Select all that apply The DOC Statement is now a convenient single document that compiles specific resources units are required to report and the following:

Core METL

War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)

Transportation feasibility

UTC Availability (UTA)

Submit

49. The process of identifying forces recommended and identified by JFPs via their Service components and allocated by SecDef to meet CCDR force requirements is _____________

Contingency Planning

Joint Force Provider Planning

Execution Sourcing

50. USTRANSCOM's three component commands -- the Army's Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC), Scott AFB, Ill.; the Navy's Military Sealift Command (MSC), Washington, D.C.; and the Air Force's Air Mobility Command (AMC), Scott AFB, Ill. -- provide intermodal transportation across the spectrum of military operations. Match the following:

SDDC

MSC

AMC

Submit

51. Planning for crises is initiated to respond to an unforeseen current event, emergency, or time-sensitive crisis. The final product of execution planning is a plan.

True

False

52. The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP) is the primary vehicle through which the joint base commander exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.

True

False

Chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS) exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.

Explanation

Chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS) exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.

53. Select all that apply: Acquisition and Cross-Service Agreement (ACSA):

Is a legal instrument

Authorizes the acquisition and reciprocal provision of LSSS

Title 22 authorization

May or may not be reimbursed

Submit

54. Which document operationalizes the CCDR's strategy?

Joint Strategic Campaign Plan

Unified Command Plan

Campaign Plan

55. The Integrated Deployment System (IDS) is a family of plans used for wing-level deployments and contingency operations.

True

False

56. Unit Type Management (UTM) in JOPES is used for all USAF UTC development, registration, and maintenance activities.

True

False

57. The Joint Planning Process is used to develop a (contingency) plan or (operation) order.

True

False

58. The Guidance for Employment of the Force includes the following guidance: 1. Security Assistance 2. Beddown Planning 3. Force Management 4. Global Posture Planning

True

False

- Security cooperation
- Contingency planning
- Posture Planning
- Force management

Explanation

- Security cooperation
- Contingency planning
- Posture Planning
- Force management

59. The National Military Strategy defines how we will use the military instrument of national power in support of national objectives in the Unified Command Plan.

True

False

60. The GCC's theater strategy is developed in peacetime to facilitate the employment of military forces across the range of military operations.

True

False

61. Base support and expeditionary site planning objectives are the : - effective collection, storage, and use of extensive site data to support warfighter decision-making, and

Effective beddown and sustainment planning permits the JFLCC to maximize the effects of force application while operating with unlimited resources.

62. Which activities BEST describe the role of a planner after the Execute Order (EXORD) has been published?

Situation reporting

Coordinating

Managing force movement

Directing operation changes through ALERT orders

Submit

63. The ESP, Part 1 documents an installation's resources and capabilities by functional area without assessing the impact of a wartime or contingency tasking at an installation with a permanent AF presence?

True

False

64. AFI 10-401 provides guidance for Unit Type Code (UTC) development for the United States and its allies.

True

False

65. In execution planning, CCDRs are directed in the GEF and JSCP to prepare for a specific contingency.

True

False

66. Execution Planning. Identification of preferred forces is done in execution planning, just as in contingency planning. Contingency sourcing is rarely used during execution planning due to the time constraints involved; however, if time allows, the option exists for the CJCS to direct JFPs to contingency source a crisis action plan. The detailed information requirements specified to support the execution sourcing process, either emergent or rotational, preclude completion until most assumptions are validated. Match the following:

Emergent

Rotational

Submit

67. Match the Deployment Work Centers required to support base level deployment operations. Deployment Control Center (DCC) Cargo Deployment Function (CDF Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC)

DCC

CDF

PDF

Submit

68. Match the TPFDD elements

Orgin

APOE

APOD

Destination

Submit

1. The four instruments of national power, known as DIME are: Defense, Intelligence, Mission Analysis and Environment

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. There are four levels of contingency plans: Level 1 - Commander's Estimate Level 2 - Base Plan (BPLAN) Level 3 - Concept Plan (CONPLAN) Level 4 - Operation Plan (OPLAN) Which level may or may not include a TPFDD?

3. A force module provides a means of logically grouping records (forces and sustainment), which facilitate planning, analysis and monitoring

4. The four pillars of the 2017 National Security Strategy are: 1. Protect the American people, the Homeland and the American way of life 2. Promote American prosperity 3. Preserve peace through strength 4. Advance American Influence.

6. Warfare is typically divided into three levels: Regional, operational, and geographical

7. Military doctrine is defined as fundamental principles by which the military forces or elements thereof guide their actions in support of national objectives. Doctrine is considered

9. The four components of a UTC are the: 1. MISCAP (defines the mission of the UTC is capable of accomplishing) 2. Manpower Force Element (manpower details) 3. Logistics Detail (LOGDET, the supplies and equipment details) 4. __________

10. Chain of Command is the succession of commanding officers from a superior to a subordinate through which command is exercised. What's another characteristic of the chain of command?

11. Airlift Operations are described as either inter-theater (operations between two or more geographic combatant commands (GCCs) or intra-theater (operations exclusively within one GCC).

12. The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) provides a single face for all Air Force issues. The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) is designated to exploit the full capabilities of joint (air) operations.

13. The Joint Planning and Execution Planning Community (JPEC) includes headquarters, commands, and agencies involved in joint operation planning, or are committed to a joint operation.

14. Who assists in scheduling Functional Area Manager (FAM) training requirements, determining additional training requirements, and tracking appointment status of all Functional Area Manager (FAM)s in the command or agency?

17. ROEs may restrict the the engagement of certain targets, or the use of particular weapons systems, out of a desire to tilt world opinion in a particular direction, place a positive limit on the escalation of hostilities, or avoid antagonizing the enemy.

18. AFI 10-401 augments the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) volumes with detailed Air Force guidance and instructions. True or False: AFI 10-401 prescribes and explains how the Air Force participates in the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC).

19. The four types of command authorities are Combatant Command, Operational Control, Tactical Control and

20. Forces are assigned or reassigned when the transfer of forces will be temporary.

21. Contingency plans are __________ of campaign plans that are deliberately planned for designated threats, catastrophic events, and non-crisis events.

22. ART allows units the ability to report UTC level readiness data.

23. Teaming is defined as filling out a deployed unit with smaller portions from multiple units.

24. DCAPES is the Air Force's war planning system and provides an Air Force feed to JOPES' Automated Data Processing (ADP). Identify the additional ADP tools and systems.

25. Mobilization is the process of assembling and organizing __________ to support national objectives in time of war or other emergencies.

27. The JFACC uses the Joint Operation Planning Process for Air (JOPPA) to develop the ________.

28. The GFMIG integrates complementary assignment, apportionment and allocation information into a single Global Force Management (GFM) document.

29. The three DOD cyber missions are: 1. Defend its own networks, systems and information 2. Advance cyber attacks on all enemies 3. Assist the Department of Homeland Security with voter hacks

30. Air Force Doctrine consists of three levels: 1. _________ 2. Operational (detailed organization of air and space forces) 3. Tactical (covers Tactics, Technique and Procedures (TTP))

31. There are two types of UTCs (standard and non-standard). Non-standard UTCs are identified as either Z99 or associate. True or False: Unit manpower that cannot be captured in a standard UTC will be postured in a Z99 UTC

32. The Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD) is defined as the time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan or operation order or ongoing rotation of forces.

33. Match the following

34. Assessment is a process that measures progress of the joint force toward mission accomplishment.

35. The AFIMSC Division Chiefs are the individulals accountable for the management and oversight of all personnel and equipment within a specific functional discipline to support operation planning and execution.

36. Planning for _________ is normally tasked in the JSCP based on the GEF or other directive.

37. Matching: Identify the components of DCAPES

38. Select all that apply. During Presidential Reserve Call-up (PRC):

39. Operational design employs various elements to develop and refine the commander's operational approach. Which three are elements of operational design?

40. A campaign is a series of related major operations aimed at accomplishing the following objectives:

42. Operational Contract Support (OCS) is the process of planning for and obtaining supplies, services, and construction from military sources in support of joint operations.

44. Contingency planning encompasses activities associated with the time-senstive development of Operational Orders (OPORD).

45. The SECDEF's Unified Command Plan (UCP) establishes Combatant Command (CCMD) missions and responsibilities.

46. AFDD 3600.1 establishes important Information Operations Policy.

47. The LeMay Center for Doctrine Development and Education (LeMay Center) represents the Air Force in the development of joint doctrine.

48. Select all that apply The DOC Statement is now a convenient single document that compiles specific resources units are required to report and the following:

49. The process of identifying forces recommended and identified by JFPs via their Service components and allocated by SecDef to meet CCDR force requirements is _____________

51. Planning for crises is initiated to respond to an unforeseen current event, emergency, or time-sensitive crisis. The final product of execution planning is a plan.

52. The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP) is the primary vehicle through which the joint base commander exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.

53. Select all that apply: Acquisition and Cross-Service Agreement (ACSA):

54. Which document operationalizes the CCDR's strategy?

55. The Integrated Deployment System (IDS) is a family of plans used for wing-level deployments and contingency operations.

56. Unit Type Management (UTM) in JOPES is used for all USAF UTC development, registration, and maintenance activities.

57. The Joint Planning Process is used to develop a (contingency) plan or (operation) order.

58. The Guidance for Employment of the Force includes the following guidance: 1. Security Assistance 2. Beddown Planning 3. Force Management 4. Global Posture Planning

59. The National Military Strategy defines how we will use the military instrument of national power in support of national objectives in the Unified Command Plan.

60. The GCC's theater strategy is developed in peacetime to facilitate the employment of military forces across the range of military operations.

61. Base support and expeditionary site planning objectives are the : - effective collection, storage, and use of extensive site data to support warfighter decision-making, and

62. Which activities BEST describe the role of a planner after the Execute Order (EXORD) has been published?

63. The ESP, Part 1 documents an installation's resources and capabilities by functional area without assessing the impact of a wartime or contingency tasking at an installation with a permanent AF presence?

64. AFI 10-401 provides guidance for Unit Type Code (UTC) development for the United States and its allies.

65. In execution planning, CCDRs are directed in the GEF and JSCP to prepare for a specific contingency.

67. Match the Deployment Work Centers required to support base level deployment operations. Deployment Control Center (DCC) Cargo Deployment Function (CDF Personnel Deployment Function (PDF) Unit Deployment Control Center (UDCC)

68. Match the TPFDD elements