Cwpc
68 Questions
| Attempts: 114
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The four instruments of national power, known as DIME are: Defense, Intelligence, Mission Analysis and Environment
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Diplomatic - Information - Military - EconomicRate this question:
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- 2.
The four pillars of the 2017 National Security Strategy are: 1. Protect the American people, the Homeland and the American way of life 2. Promote American prosperity 3. Preserve peace through strength 4. Advance American Influence.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 3.
The SECDEF's Unified Command Plan (UCP) establishes Combatant Command (CCMD) missions and responsibilities.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 4.
The Guidance for Employment of the Force includes the following guidance: 1. Security Assistance 2. Beddown Planning 3. Force Management 4. Global Posture Planning
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
- Security cooperation
- Contingency planning
- Posture Planning
- Force managementRate this question:
-
- 5.
Warfare is typically divided into three levels: Regional, operational, and geographical
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Strategic - Operational - TacticalRate this question:
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- 6.
The National Military Strategy defines how we will use the military instrument of national power in support of national objectives in the Unified Command Plan.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 7.
The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP) is the primary vehicle through which the joint base commander exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Chair of the Joint Chiefs of Staff's (CJCS) exercises responsibility for directing the preparation of joint plans.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The GFMIG integrates complementary assignment, apportionment and allocation information into a single Global Force Management (GFM) document.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 9.
The GCC's theater strategy is developed in peacetime to facilitate the employment of military forces across the range of military operations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 10.
AFDD 3600.1 establishes important Information Operations Policy.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 11.
ROEs may restrict the the engagement of certain targets, or the use of particular weapons systems, out of a desire to tilt world opinion in a particular direction, place a positive limit on the escalation of hostilities, or avoid antagonizing the enemy.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 12.
The three DOD cyber missions are: 1. Defend its own networks, systems and information 2. Advance cyber attacks on all enemies 3. Assist the Department of Homeland Security with voter hacks
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 13.
The four types of command authorities are Combatant Command, Operational Control, Tactical Control and
- A.
Administrative Control
- B.
Support
Correct Answer
B. Support -
- 14.
Forces are assigned or reassigned when the transfer of forces will be temporary.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 15.
Chain of Command is the succession of commanding officers from a superior to a subordinate through which command is exercised. What's another characteristic of the chain of command?
- A.
The President and Secretary of Defense (SecDef) exercise authority and control of the Armed Forces through two distinct branches (Operational and Administrative)
- B.
The CJCS exercises authority and control of the Armed Forces through two distinct branches (COCOM and OPCON))
Correct Answer
A. The President and Secretary of Defense (SecDef) exercise authority and control of the Armed Forces through two distinct branches (Operational and Administrative) -
- 16.
The Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) provides a single face for all Air Force issues. The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) is designated to exploit the full capabilities of joint (air) operations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 17.
The Joint Planning and Execution Planning Community (JPEC) includes headquarters, commands, and agencies involved in joint operation planning, or are committed to a joint operation.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 18.
Contingency planning encompasses activities associated with the time-senstive development of Operational Orders (OPORD).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 19.
In execution planning, CCDRs are directed in the GEF and JSCP to prepare for a specific contingency.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 20.
There are four levels of contingency plans: Level 1 - Commander's Estimate Level 2 - Base Plan (BPLAN) Level 3 - Concept Plan (CONPLAN) Level 4 - Operation Plan (OPLAN) Which level may or may not include a TPFDD?
- A.
Level 3
- B.
Level 4
Correct Answer
A. Level 3 -
- 21.
The JFACC uses the Joint Operation Planning Process for Air (JOPPA) to develop the ________.
- A.
Joint Air Operations Plan
- B.
Service Component Plan
- C.
Theater Combat Plan
Correct Answer
A. Joint Air Operations Plan -
- 22.
Operational design employs various elements to develop and refine the commander's operational approach. Which three are elements of operational design?
- A.
Objectives
- B.
Operational reach
- C.
Assessment
- D.
Culmination
Correct Answer(s)
A. Objectives
B. Operational reach
D. Culmination -
- 23.
The Joint Planning Process is used to develop a (contingency) plan or (operation) order.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 24.
A campaign is a series of related major operations aimed at accomplishing the following objectives:
- A.
Tactical
- B.
Operational
- C.
Strategic
Correct Answer(s)
B. Operational
C. Strategic -
- 25.
Which document operationalizes the CCDR's strategy?
- A.
Joint Strategic Campaign Plan
- B.
Unified Command Plan
- C.
Campaign Plan
Correct Answer
C. Campaign Plan -
- 26.
Contingency plans are __________ of campaign plans that are deliberately planned for designated threats, catastrophic events, and non-crisis events.
- A.
Branches
- B.
OPORDS
- C.
CONPLAN
Correct Answer
A. Branches -
- 27.
Security Cooperation involves all DoD interactions with foreign defense establishments to build defense relationships that promote specific US security interests, build and develop friendly military capabilities, and provide US forces with peacetime and contingency access to a Host Nation (HN). Which is not a security cooperation program?
- A.
Security Assistance (SA)
- B.
Foreign Military Sales (FMS)
- C.
Foreign Internal Defense (FID)
- D.
All are security Cooperation programs
Correct Answer
D. All are security Cooperation programs -
- 28.
Military doctrine is defined as fundamental principles by which the military forces or elements thereof guide their actions in support of national objectives. Doctrine is considered
- A.
Authoritative and directive
- B.
Authoritative, but not directive
- C.
Directive, but not authoritative
Correct Answer
B. Authoritative, but not directive -
- 29.
Air Force Doctrine consists of three levels: 1. _________ 2. Operational (detailed organization of air and space forces) 3. Tactical (covers Tactics, Technique and Procedures (TTP))
- A.
Strategic
- B.
Service
- C.
Basic
Correct Answer
C. Basic -
- 30.
The LeMay Center for Doctrine Development and Education (LeMay Center) represents the Air Force in the development of joint doctrine.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 31.
Information Environment is defined as the aggregate of individuals, organizations, and systems that collect, process, disseminate or act on information. The Information Environment consists of three interrelated dimensions, which continuously interact with individuals, organizations, and systems. These dimensions are known as physical, informational and _________.
- A.
Cognitive
- B.
Logical
- C.
Electronic
Correct Answer
A. Cognitive -
- 32.
The four components of a UTC are the: 1. MISCAP (defines the mission of the UTC is capable of accomplishing) 2. Manpower Force Element (manpower details) 3. Logistics Detail (LOGDET, the supplies and equipment details) 4. __________
- A.
UTC Summary Details (SUMDET)
- B.
Title
- C.
Classification
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. Title -
- 33.
There are two types of UTCs (standard and non-standard). Non-standard UTCs are identified as either Z99 or associate. True or False: Unit manpower that cannot be captured in a standard UTC will be postured in a Z99 UTC
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 34.
Unit Type Management (UTM) in JOPES is used for all USAF UTC development, registration, and maintenance activities.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 35.
A force module provides a means of logically grouping records (forces and sustainment), which facilitate planning, analysis and monitoring
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 36.
Adaptive Planning and Execution System (APEX) is a DOD enterprise of joint policies, processes, procedures, and reporting structures supported by communications and information technology; that is used by the joint planning and execution community to monitor, plan, and execute mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization activities associated with joint operations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 37.
DCAPES is the Air Force‘s war planning system and provides an Air Force feed to JOPES' Automated Data Processing (ADP). Identify the additional ADP tools and systems.
- A.
JOPES Editing Tool (JET)
- B.
JOPES ADP Tool
- C.
Rapid Query Tool (RQT)
Correct Answer(s)
A. JOPES Editing Tool (JET)
C. Rapid Query Tool (RQT) -
- 38.
The USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) is the Air Force’s supporting document to the Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP) that provides Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, planning factors, and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) apportioned forces for conducting and supporting operations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 39.
Mobilization is the process of assembling and organizing __________ to support national objectives in time of war or other emergencies.
- A.
Active duty forces
- B.
Guard/Reserve forces
- C.
Nation resources
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Nation resources -
- 40.
Select all that apply. During Presidential Reserve Call-up (PRC):
- A.
POTUS can activate ARC only with declaration of national emergency
- B.
POTUS can activate ARC without declaration of national emergency
- C.
POTUS can activate ARC forces for no more than 365 days
- D.
PRC is limited to not more than 200,000 Ready Reserve
Correct Answer(s)
B. POTUS can activate ARC without declaration of national emergency
C. POTUS can activate ARC forces for no more than 365 days
D. PRC is limited to not more than 200,000 Ready Reserve -
- 41.
AFI 10-401 augments the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) volumes with detailed Air Force guidance and instructions. True or False: AFI 10-401 prescribes and explains how the Air Force participates in the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC).
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 42.
AFI 10-401 provides guidance for Unit Type Code (UTC) development for the United States and its allies.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 43.
The Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD) is defined as the time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan or operation order or ongoing rotation of forces.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 44.
Select all that apply The DOC Statement is now a convenient single document that compiles specific resources units are required to report and the following:
- A.
Core METL
- B.
War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)
- C.
Transportation feasibility
- D.
UTC Availability (UTA)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Core METL
B. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)
D. UTC Availability (UTA) -
- 45.
ART allows units the ability to report UTC level readiness data.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True -
- 46.
Teaming is defined as filling out a deployed unit with smaller portions from multiple units.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 47.
The AFIMSC Division Chiefs are the individulals accountable for the management and oversight of all personnel and equipment within a specific functional discipline to support operation planning and execution.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
- 48.
Who assists in scheduling Functional Area Manager (FAM) training requirements, determining additional training requirements, and tracking appointment status of all Functional Area Manager (FAM)s in the command or agency?
- A.
Air Force Installation and Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)
- B.
Office of FAM Oversight (OFAMO)
- C.
HAF A3/Plans and Policy Division
Correct Answer
B. Office of FAM Oversight (OFAMO) -
- 49.
The process of identifying forces recommended and identified by JFPs via their Service components and allocated by SecDef to meet CCDR force requirements is _____________
- A.
Contingency Planning
- B.
Joint Force Provider Planning
- C.
Execution Sourcing
Correct Answer
C. Execution Sourcing -
- 50.
Operational Contract Support (OCS) is the process of planning for and obtaining supplies, services, and construction from military sources in support of joint operations.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 10, 2018Quiz Created by
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