Ncp 5.10 Prep Exam

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| By Shay Hyams
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Shay Hyams
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 254
| Attempts: 254
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About This Quiz

This prep exam focuses on key aspects of Nutanix technology, including cluster configuration, CVM management, and dynamic scheduling.

Ncp 5.10 Prep Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the minimum amount of nodes needed to create a non-ROBO cluster with RF=2 + EC-X?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    To create a non-ROBO cluster with RF=2 + EC-X, we need to have at least two copies of the data (RF=2) and additional nodes to support erasure coding (EC-X). In this case, the minimum number of nodes needed would be 4. This is because we need 2 nodes for RF=2 and 2 additional nodes for EC-X.

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  • 3. 

    How many CVMs are created per cluster?

    • Same as number of the guest VMs

    • Equal to number of nodes

    • One per cluster

    • 2 (RF=2) or 3(RF=3)

    Correct Answer
    A. Equal to number of nodes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Equal to number of nodes." This means that for each cluster, there will be one CVM created for each node in the cluster. This ensures that each node has a corresponding CVM to manage and coordinate its operations within the cluster.

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  • 4. 

    What is the purpose of the Nutanix Oplog?

    • AOS log files repository

    • Sequential Read I/O buffer

    • AOS Services active memory space

    • Random Write I/O Buffer

    Correct Answer
    A. Random Write I/O Buffer
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Nutanix Oplog is to serve as a random write I/O buffer. This means that it is used to temporarily store data that is being written to the disk in a random order. By using the Oplog as a buffer, the system can optimize the write operations and improve overall performance. This allows for faster data writes and reduces the chances of data loss or corruption.

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  • 5. 

    What AHV feature provides hot spot detection and invokes Live Migration?

    • Acropolis Distributed Storage Fabric

    • Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler

    • Acropolis Management Fabric

    • Acropolis Data Replicator

    Correct Answer
    A. Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler
    Explanation
    The Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler is the AHV feature that provides hot spot detection and invokes Live Migration. This feature helps in identifying and managing hot spots within the cluster by automatically moving virtual machines to less utilized hosts. This ensures optimal performance and resource utilization by dynamically balancing the workload across the cluster.

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  • 6. 

    Prism listens on ports 80 and , if HTTP traffic comes in on port 80 it is redirected to HTTPS on port .   Which port?

    • 443

    • 8443

    • 9440

    • 9443

    Correct Answer
    A. 9440
    Explanation
    The given question states that Prism listens on ports 80 and [unknown port], and if HTTP traffic comes in on port 80, it is redirected to HTTPS on port [unknown port]. The correct answer is 9440 because it is the only option provided that is different from the known ports 80 and 443.

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  • 7. 

    Which is true about allssh and hostssh? (Multi-answer)

    • Run allssh from CVM, executes on all CVMs

    • Run hostssh from Host, executes on all CVMs

    • Run allssh from Host, executes on all Hosts

    • Run hostssh from CVM, executes on all Hosts

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Run allssh from CVM, executes on all CVMs
    A. Run hostssh from CVM, executes on all Hosts
  • 8. 

    Which CLI is used to run this command? cluster version

    • ECLI

    • Bash shell

    • ACLI

    • NCLI

    Correct Answer
    A. NCLI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nCLI. The command "cluster version" is run using the nCLI (network command line interface).

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  • 9. 

    What information is shared through Pulse? (Multi-answer)

    • Metadata

    • Identification data

    • System alerts

    • System-level statistics

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. System alerts
    A. System-level statistics
    Explanation
    Pulse shares system alerts and system-level statistics. System alerts provide information about any issues or problems that may arise in the system, allowing users to take appropriate actions. System-level statistics provide data and insights about the overall performance and usage of the system, helping users to monitor and analyze its efficiency.

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  • 10. 

    What is the purpose of the Cluster Lockdown script?

    • Disable all CLI and nCLI connections

    • Disable password challenged SSH connections

    • Disable CVM Bash Linux Shell connections

    • Disable key pair challenged SSH connections

    Correct Answer
    A. Disable password challenged SSH connections
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Cluster Lockdown script is to disable password challenged SSH connections. This means that users will not be able to connect to the cluster using SSH and will instead need to use a key pair for authentication. This helps to enhance the security of the cluster by preventing unauthorized access through password-based authentication.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of a Key Management Server?

    • Authenticate Nutanix nodes

    • Encryption of in-flight data

    • Authenticate user login

    • Act as proxy for Prism Central

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticate Nutanix nodes
    Explanation
    The purpose of a Key Management Server is to authenticate Nutanix nodes. This means that the server is responsible for verifying the identity of the Nutanix nodes, ensuring that they are authorized to access the network or perform certain actions. This authentication process helps to enhance the security of the system by preventing unauthorized access or malicious activities.

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  • 12. 

    Which 3 roles can be assigned to a Prism user?

    • Viewer

    • Super Administrator

    • User Administrator

    • Cluster Administrator

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Viewer
    A. User Administrator
    A. Cluster Administrator
    Explanation
    Prism users can be assigned three roles: Viewer, User Administrator, and Cluster Administrator. The Viewer role allows users to only view and access resources within the cluster. The User Administrator role has additional privileges to manage user accounts, roles, and permissions within the cluster. Lastly, the Cluster Administrator role has the highest level of access and control, allowing users to manage and configure all aspects of the cluster, including storage, networking, and virtual machines.

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  • 13. 

    Which two (2) of the following networking requirements are mandatory?

    • Configure CVM and Host in same VLAN

    • Don’t remove CVM from open vSwitch br0

    • Change VLAN away from vlan.0

    • Move higher speeds pNICs from bridge br0 to br1

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Configure CVM and Host in same VLAN
    A. Don’t remove CVM from open vSwitch br0
    Explanation
    The two mandatory networking requirements are to configure the CVM and the Host in the same VLAN and to not remove the CVM from the open vSwitch br0. These requirements ensure that the CVM and the Host are connected within the same network and that the CVM remains connected to the open vSwitch br0, which is essential for proper network communication and functionality.

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  • 14. 

    Which 3 AHV Modes can be Configured ? 

    • Balanced-TCP

    • Balanced-SLB

    • Balanced-UTP

    • Active/Backup

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Balanced-TCP
    A. Balanced-SLB
    A. Active/Backup
    Explanation
    The three AHV modes that can be configured are Balanced-TCP, Balanced-SLB, and Active/Backup. These modes allow for different load balancing and failover configurations in the AHV environment. Balanced-TCP and Balanced-SLB distribute the network traffic evenly across multiple AHV hosts, ensuring optimal performance and resource utilization. Active/Backup mode designates one AHV host as the active node, handling all the traffic, while the other hosts remain in standby mode, ready to take over in case of a failure. These modes provide flexibility and resilience in managing and maintaining the AHV infrastructure.

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  • 15. 

    What command, initiated from a CVM, is used to view the pNICs on all AHV nodes?

    Correct Answer
    A. Hostssh ovs-appctl bond/show
    Explanation
    The command "hostssh ovs-appctl bond/show" is used to view the pNICs on all AHV nodes.

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  • 16. 

    What is the purpose of the optional CVM interface Eth2?

    • Intra-cluster traffic between CVMs

    • Storage traffic between clusters

    • Management traffic within a cluster

    • CVM trunk port

    Correct Answer
    A. Intra-cluster traffic between CVMs
    Explanation
    The purpose of the optional CVM interface Eth2 is to facilitate communication and data transfer between CVMs within a cluster. This interface allows for efficient intra-cluster traffic, enabling seamless communication and collaboration between the different CVMs in the cluster.

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  • 17. 

    Which of these CLI commands is not valid?

    Correct Answer
    A. CVM$ manage_ovs [email protected] "ovs-vsctl set port br0-up bond_mode=active-backup"
    Explanation
    The command "CVM$ manage_ovs [email protected] "ovs-vsctl set port br0-up bond_mode=active-backup"" is not valid because it is missing the "--bridge_name" option which is required for the "manage_ovs" command.

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  • 18. 

    What is included in, or enabled by, the Nutanix NGT bundle?

    • Application Consistent Snapshots

    • Mouse and keyboard emulation

    • Crash Consistent Snapshots

    • Mobility Drivers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Application Consistent Snapshots
    A. Mobility Drivers
    Explanation
    The Nutanix NGT bundle includes two features: Application Consistent Snapshots and Mobility Drivers. Application Consistent Snapshots ensure that all data in an application is captured at a specific moment in time, allowing for reliable and consistent backups. Mobility Drivers enable seamless migration of virtual machines across different platforms, providing flexibility and ease of use for administrators.

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  • 19. 

    What disk formats are supported by the image service?

    • Qcow2, vdi, raw, udf, and iso

    • Raw, ova, vmdk, qcow2, and vdi

    • Vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2

    • Vmdk, qcow2, vdi, iso, ovf, and raw

    Correct Answer
    A. Vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2
    Explanation
    The image service supports various disk formats including vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2. These formats allow users to create and manage virtual machine images in different formats, depending on their specific needs and requirements.

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  • 20. 

    What is the purpose of “NCC”?

    • Hardware logs

    • Connect to any of the CVMs

    • Calculate reclaimable space of snapshot

    • Health Checks

    Correct Answer
    A. Health Checks
    Explanation
    The purpose of "NCC" is to perform health checks. This means that it is responsible for monitoring and assessing the overall health and functionality of a system or network. It ensures that all components are functioning properly and identifies any issues or abnormalities that may require attention or troubleshooting.

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  • 21. 

    The Analysis dashboard allows you to create which two (2) types of charts?

    • Entity 

    • Open Support Cases

    • Out-of-band management

    • Metric 

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Entity 
    A. Metric 
    Explanation
    The Analysis dashboard allows you to create two types of charts: Entity and Metric.

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  • 22. 

    Which 3 Storage Containers are pre-created upon Foundation?

    • SelfServiceContainer

    • NutanixManagementShare

    • Default-container-<unique_number>

    • PrismCentralContainer

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SelfServiceContainer
    A. NutanixManagementShare
    A. Default-container-<unique_number>
    Explanation
    The three storage containers that are pre-created upon Foundation are SelfServiceContainer, NutanixManagementShare, and default-container-. These containers are already set up and available for use when Foundation is installed.

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  • 23. 

    Where is the Oplog located?

    • Hard disk Drive (HDD)

    • Solid State Drive (SSD)

    • Disk-on-Module (DOM)

    • Random Access Memory

    Correct Answer
    A. Solid State Drive (SSD)
    Explanation
    The Oplog is located in a Solid State Drive (SSD). SSDs are known for their fast read and write speeds, making them an ideal choice for storing the Oplog. Unlike HDDs, which have mechanical moving parts, SSDs use flash memory to store data, resulting in faster access times and improved performance. Disk-on-Module (DOM) and Random Access Memory are not typically used for storing the Oplog.

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  • 24. 

    What optimization features can be configured at the storage container level?

    • Deduplication

    • VDisk thin provisioning

    • Erasure Coding

    • Compression

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Deduplication
    A. Erasure Coding
    A. Compression
    Explanation
    At the storage container level, various optimization features can be configured. Deduplication is a technique that eliminates duplicate data, reducing storage space requirements. Erasure Coding is a method of data protection that uses advanced algorithms to divide data into fragments and add redundancy, improving fault tolerance and reducing storage overhead. Compression reduces the size of data by eliminating redundant information, further optimizing storage space. Therefore, the correct answer is Deduplication, Erasure Coding, and Compression as these features can be configured at the storage container level to enhance storage efficiency and performance.

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  • 25. 

    A cluster running RF2 has 5 containers configured, each 20TB. No reserved capacity.  What is the size of the (single) storage pool ?

    • 20TB

    • 40TB

    • 100TB

    • 200TB

    Correct Answer
    A. 40TB
    Explanation
    Since each container is configured to be 20TB and there are 5 containers in the cluster, the total size of the storage pool would be 5 * 20TB = 100TB. However, since there is no reserved capacity mentioned in the question, it means that only half of the containers are available for use. Therefore, the size of the (single) storage pool would be 100TB / 2 = 50TB.

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  • 26. 

    A cluster (RF 3) currently has 5 storage containers.  Storage Pool: 15TB. You add 2 containers ‘A’ and ‘B’ with 1TB reserved capacity each. What is now the raw capacity of all seven containers?

    • Original 5 containers: 3TB each ; containers A and B: 3TB each

    • Original 5 containers: 4TB each ; containers A and B: 3TB each

    • Original 5 containers: 4TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each

    • Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each

    Correct Answer
    A. Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each." This is because the original 5 containers have a capacity of 3TB each, and the added containers A and B have a reserved capacity of 1TB each. Therefore, the raw capacity of all seven containers is 3TB for the original 5 containers and 4TB for containers A and B.

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  • 27. 

    When manually migrating Windows VMs, what are the prerequisites?

    • Remove all associated hypervisor snapshots

    • Remove all CD-ROM drives from the VM

    • VMs must be powered off before migration

    • Only 10 VMs can be migrated simultaneously

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Remove all associated hypervisor snapshots
    A. VMs must be powered off before migration
    Explanation
    The prerequisites for manually migrating Windows VMs are to remove all associated hypervisor snapshots and to power off the VMs before migration. Removing the snapshots ensures that the VMs are in a clean state without any previous snapshots that could cause issues during migration. Powering off the VMs before migration ensures that the migration process is smooth and there are no conflicts or data inconsistencies during the transfer.

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  • 28. 

    To build the VM on the AHV cluster, after a migration, what “Add Disk” Operation(s) can be used?

    • Clone from Image Service

    • Clone from ADSF file

    • Clone from VM list

    • Clone from Storagepool

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Clone from Image Service
    A. Clone from ADSF file
    Explanation
    The "Add Disk" operation can be used to clone from the Image Service or clone from an ADSF file. This means that when building the VM on the AHV cluster after a migration, you have the option to either clone from an existing image stored in the Image Service or clone from a specific ADSF file. The other options listed, "Clone from VM list" and "Clone from Storagepool," are not applicable in this scenario.

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  • 29. 

    How does the external server (client) gain access to the disks in the Volume Group (VG)?

    • Add the client’s IP address to the VG’s whitelist

    • Add the Cluster IP to the client

    • Add the client’s IQN to the VG’s whitelist

    • Add a Nutanix certificate to the client

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Add the client’s IP address to the VG’s whitelist
    A. Add the client’s IQN to the VG’s whitelist
    Explanation
    To gain access to the disks in the Volume Group (VG), the external server (client) needs to have its IP address and IQN added to the VG's whitelist. This allows the client to be recognized and authorized by the VG, granting it access to the disks. Adding the client's IP address ensures that only the specified IP can access the disks, while adding the client's IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name) provides a unique identifier for the client's iSCSI initiator, allowing it to establish a connection with the VG.

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  • 30. 

    Nutanix Volumes facilitates the support for which of the following use cases?

    • ISCSI for Microsoft Exchange Server

    • Shared storage for Linux-based clusters and Windows Server Failover Clustering (WSFC)

    • Shared storage for Oracle RAC environments

    • Bare-metal environments

    • All answers are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All answers are correct
    Explanation
    Nutanix Volumes supports multiple use cases including iSCSI for Microsoft Exchange Server, shared storage for Linux-based clusters and Windows Server Failover Clustering (WSFC), shared storage for Oracle RAC environments, and bare-metal environments.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements are true for Nutanix Volumes?

    • CHAP is supported

    • MPIO is NOT supported

    • Available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V

    • Only available for AHV clusters

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. CHAP is supported
    A. Available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V
    Explanation
    Nutanix Volumes support CHAP authentication and are available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V. MPIO is not supported. However, it is incorrect to say that Nutanix Volumes are only available for AHV clusters.

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  • 32. 

    Which feature(s) require(s) the Data Services IP?

    • Nutanix Disaster Recovery

    • Nutanix Volumes

    • Nutanix Files

    • Nutanix Micro-segmentation

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nutanix Volumes
    A. Nutanix Files
    Explanation
    The Data Services IP is required for Nutanix Volumes and Nutanix Files. This means that these features rely on the Data Services IP to function properly.

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  • 33. 

    Through what interface(s) is/are (anti-)affinity rules configured?

    • Affinity  : CLI

    • Anti-affinity  : CLI

    • Affinity  : Prism

    • Anti-affinity  : Prism

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Affinity  : CLI
    A. Anti-affinity  : CLI
    A. Affinity  : Prism
    Explanation
    (Anti-)affinity rules can be configured through both the CLI (Command Line Interface) and Prism interface. The CLI allows users to configure (anti-)affinity rules using command-line commands, while Prism provides a graphical user interface for configuring these rules. Therefore, the correct answer is that (anti-)affinity rules can be configured through CLI and Prism interfaces.

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  • 34. 

    What is the Fault Tolerance related to RF3?

    • 0

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Fault tolerance related to RF3 refers to the ability of a system or network to continue functioning properly even in the presence of faults or failures. In this context, the correct answer of 2 suggests that RF3 has a moderate level of fault tolerance. This means that the system or network can withstand certain faults or failures without completely failing or losing functionality. However, it may not be able to handle more severe or widespread faults and may require some level of recovery or repair.

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  • 35. 

    What applies to VM High Availability?

    • If disabled, VMs cannot be migrated and restarted on other hosts

    • When enabled, VMs are guaranteed to restart on remaining available hosts

    • If not set, VMs are revived on best-effort basis

    • When set, VMs are duplicated on remaining hosts in the same cluster

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. When enabled, VMs are guaranteed to restart on remaining available hosts
    A. If not set, VMs are revived on best-effort basis
    Explanation
    When VM High Availability is enabled, it ensures that if a host fails, the VMs running on that host will be automatically restarted on the remaining available hosts. This feature provides fault tolerance and minimizes downtime for the VMs. On the other hand, if VM High Availability is not set or disabled, the VMs will only be revived on a best-effort basis, meaning there is no guarantee that they will be restarted on other hosts.

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  • 36. 

    What is the result of a CVM becoming unavailable?

    • A route is added to the host’s routing table

    • The guest VMs on the same node are stunted

    • A route is added to the CVM’s routing table

    • VMs running on the node’s host are migrated

    Correct Answer
    A. A route is added to the host’s routing table
    Explanation
    When a CVM (Control Virtual Machine) becomes unavailable, a route is added to the host's routing table. This means that the host system will adjust its routing configuration to account for the unavailability of the CVM. This route addition allows the host to redirect network traffic appropriately, ensuring that communication can still occur despite the unavailability of the CVM.

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  • 37. 

    What is the result of a PD “Activate”?

    • Both sites are activated

    • Only the source site PD is activated

    • Both sites are deactivated

    • The destination site PD is activated

    Correct Answer
    A. Both sites are activated
    Explanation
    The result of a PD "Activate" is that both sites are activated.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

    • All replications require a Protection Domain (PD)

    • Only asynchronous replications require a PD

    • Protection Domains require Consistency Groups

    • Only synchronous replications require a PD

    Correct Answer
    A. All replications require a Protection Domain (PD)
    Explanation
    All replications require a Protection Domain (PD). This means that regardless of whether the replication is asynchronous or synchronous, a Protection Domain is necessary. A Protection Domain is a logical grouping of resources that ensures consistent replication and recovery of data. It provides a level of isolation and control over the replication process, allowing for better management and organization of replicated data. Therefore, it is essential for all types of replications to have a Protection Domain in place.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statement(s) are true for asynchronous replication?

    • NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication

    • Each cluster must have at least 2 nodes (RF2)

    • Retention Policies are only available on the target cluster(s)

    • Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication
    A. Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters
    Explanation
    NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication means that NearSync replication ensures that the data is replicated to the target cluster within a minimum time frame of one minute. Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters means that in order to set up uni-directional replication between source and target clusters, the Remote Site setup needs to be configured on both clusters.

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  • 40. 

    An Async Replication Protection Domain can contain what type of entities (choose two)?

    • Storage container(s)

    • Virtual Machines

    • Storage Pool(s)

    • Volume Groups

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Virtual Machines
    A. Volume Groups
    Explanation
    An Async Replication Protection Domain can contain virtual machines and volume groups. This means that it can protect and replicate both virtual machine instances and groups of volumes. This allows for the replication and protection of important data and configurations within a virtualized environment.

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  • 41. 

    Which replication statements are correct?

    • One CG can include multiple PDs

    • At least one PD must be configured

    • One PD can include multiple CGs

    • At least one CG must be configured

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. At least one PD must be configured
    A. One PD can include multiple CGs
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that at least one PD must be configured and that one PD can include multiple CGs. This means that in order to have a valid replication, there must be at least one primary database (PD) configured, and this PD can have multiple consumer groups (CGs) associated with it. This allows for the replication of data from the PD to multiple CGs, ensuring that the data is replicated to different destinations as desired.

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  • 42. 

    Which is true for PD Activate and Migrate options?

    • Migrate is initiated from the source site

    • Activate is initiated from the source site

    • Activate is initiated from the destination site

    • Migrate is initiated from the destination site

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Migrate is initiated from the source site
    A. Activate is initiated from the destination site
    Explanation
    Migrate is initiated from the source site because the term "migrate" typically refers to the process of moving data or resources from one location to another. In this case, it makes sense for the migration process to be initiated from the source site, where the data or resources are currently located. On the other hand, activate is initiated from the destination site because activating something usually involves enabling or starting a process or function at a specific location, which in this case would be the destination site.

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  • 43. 

    What applies to Prism Central?

    • Created during Foundation

    • Setup through Prism as 1, 2, or 3-VMs

    • Clusters and PC need to match hypervisor

    • Created by user as 1 or 3-VM

    Correct Answer
    A. Created by user as 1 or 3-VM
    Explanation
    Prism Central can be created by the user as either a single-VM or a three-VM setup. This means that the user has the flexibility to choose the number of VMs they want to allocate for Prism Central based on their requirements. This allows for customization and scalability in the deployment of Prism Central.

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  • 44. 

    What additional features are available with Prism  Pro (Prism Central with Pro license)?

    • Centralized Upgrades

    • VM right-sizing

    • Capacity Runway

    • VM Tagging

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Centralized Upgrades
    A. VM right-sizing
    Explanation
    Prism Pro with a Pro license offers additional features such as centralized upgrades and VM right-sizing. Centralized upgrades allow for the management and execution of upgrades across multiple clusters from a single interface, simplifying the upgrade process. VM right-sizing helps optimize resource allocation by identifying over or underutilized virtual machines and suggesting appropriate adjustments.

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  • 45. 

    Which features are only available in Prism Central/Pro and not Prism Element?

    • PowerShell cmdlets downloads

    • Self-Service with Calm

    • Flow

    • Analyze dashboard

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Self-Service with Calm
    A. Flow
    Explanation
    The features of Self-Service with Calm and Flow are only available in Prism Central/Pro and not in Prism Element. Prism Element does not have the capability to provide self-service functionality through Calm, which allows users to request and manage IT services. Additionally, Flow, which enables network automation and visualization, is also exclusive to Prism Central/Pro.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following applies to Prism Central?

    • Register a cluster to PC through PE

    • Unregister clusters through PC

    • Unregister a cluster from PC through PE

    • Discover/register clusters through PC

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Register a cluster to PC through PE
    A. Unregister a cluster from PC through PE
    Explanation
    Prism Central allows users to register a cluster to Prism Central through Prism Element (PE). This means that users can connect their cluster to Prism Central to manage and monitor it from a centralized interface. Additionally, Prism Central also allows users to unregister a cluster from Prism Central through Prism Element. This means that users can disconnect a cluster from Prism Central if they no longer want to manage it through the centralized interface.

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  • 47. 

    What applies to AOS/NCC?

    • NCC can be upgraded separately

    • NCC is part of the AOS bundle

    • AOS is installed on the SATA-DOM

    • Upgrade AOS first, then NCC

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. NCC can be upgraded separately
    A. NCC is part of the AOS bundle
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that NCC can be upgraded separately from AOS. This means that users have the option to upgrade NCC without necessarily upgrading AOS. Additionally, NCC is also part of the AOS bundle, indicating that it is included when installing AOS.

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  • 48. 

    What command places a host in Maintenance Mode in AHV?

    • Acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id

    • Ncli host maintenance host_id

    • Acli maintenance_mode.host host_id

    • Ncli maintenance_mode host=host_id

    Correct Answer
    A. Acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id". This command is used to place a host in Maintenance Mode in AHV. The "acli" command is the Acropolis Command Line Interface, and "host.enter_maintenance_mode" is the specific command that is used to initiate the Maintenance Mode on a host. The "host_id" parameter is used to specify the ID of the host that needs to be placed in Maintenance Mode.

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  • 49. 

    What allows a node to be added to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option?

    • The node is discoverable through IPv4

    • The node is not already part of a cluster

    • The node is discoverable through IPv6

    • Node and cluster have the same AOS version

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The node is not already part of a cluster
    A. The node is discoverable through IPv6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the node is not already part of a cluster and the node is discoverable through IPv6. In order to add a node to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option, the node must not already be part of a cluster. Additionally, the node must be discoverable through IPv6, indicating that it can be reached and communicated with over an IPv6 network. These two conditions must be met in order for a node to be successfully added to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 01, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Shay Hyams

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