# Ncp 5.10 Prep Exam

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Shay Hyams
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 252
Questions: 55 | Attempts: 252

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• 1.

### What is the minimum amount of nodes needed to create a non-ROBO cluster with RF=2 + EC-X?

• A.

2

• B.

3

• C.

4

• D.

5

C. 4
Explanation
To create a non-ROBO cluster with RF=2 + EC-X, we need to have at least two copies of the data (RF=2) and additional nodes to support erasure coding (EC-X). In this case, the minimum number of nodes needed would be 4. This is because we need 2 nodes for RF=2 and 2 additional nodes for EC-X.

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• 2.

### How many CVMs are created per cluster?

• A.

Same as number of the guest VMs

• B.

Equal to number of nodes

• C.

One per cluster

• D.

2 (RF=2) or 3(RF=3)

B. Equal to number of nodes
Explanation
The correct answer is "Equal to number of nodes." This means that for each cluster, there will be one CVM created for each node in the cluster. This ensures that each node has a corresponding CVM to manage and coordinate its operations within the cluster.

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• 3.

### What is the purpose of the Nutanix Oplog?

• A.

AOS log files repository

• B.

• C.

AOS Services active memory space

• D.

Random Write I/O Buffer

D. Random Write I/O Buffer
Explanation
The purpose of the Nutanix Oplog is to serve as a random write I/O buffer. This means that it is used to temporarily store data that is being written to the disk in a random order. By using the Oplog as a buffer, the system can optimize the write operations and improve overall performance. This allows for faster data writes and reduces the chances of data loss or corruption.

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• 4.

### What AHV feature provides hot spot detection and invokes Live Migration?

• A.

Acropolis Distributed Storage Fabric

• B.

Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler

• C.

Acropolis Management Fabric

• D.

Acropolis Data Replicator

B. Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler
Explanation
The Acropolis Dynamic Scheduler is the AHV feature that provides hot spot detection and invokes Live Migration. This feature helps in identifying and managing hot spots within the cluster by automatically moving virtual machines to less utilized hosts. This ensures optimal performance and resource utilization by dynamically balancing the workload across the cluster.

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• 5.

### Prism listens on ports 80 and , if HTTP traffic comes in on port 80 it is redirected to HTTPS on port .   Which port?

• A.

443

• B.

8443

• C.

9440

• D.

9443

C. 9440
Explanation
The given question states that Prism listens on ports 80 and [unknown port], and if HTTP traffic comes in on port 80, it is redirected to HTTPS on port [unknown port]. The correct answer is 9440 because it is the only option provided that is different from the known ports 80 and 443.

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• 6.

• A.

Run allssh from CVM, executes on all CVMs

• B.

Run hostssh from Host, executes on all CVMs

• C.

Run allssh from Host, executes on all Hosts

• D.

Run hostssh from CVM, executes on all Hosts

A. Run allssh from CVM, executes on all CVMs
D. Run hostssh from CVM, executes on all Hosts
• 7.

### Which CLI is used to run this command? cluster version

• A.

ECLI

• B.

Bash shell

• C.

ACLI

• D.

NCLI

D. NCLI
Explanation
The correct answer is nCLI. The command "cluster version" is run using the nCLI (network command line interface).

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• 8.

### What information is shared through Pulse? (Multi-answer)

• A.

• B.

Identification data

• C.

• D.

System-level statistics

D. System-level statistics
Explanation
Pulse shares system alerts and system-level statistics. System alerts provide information about any issues or problems that may arise in the system, allowing users to take appropriate actions. System-level statistics provide data and insights about the overall performance and usage of the system, helping users to monitor and analyze its efficiency.

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• 9.

### What is the purpose of the Cluster Lockdown script?

• A.

Disable all CLI and nCLI connections

• B.

• C.

Disable CVM Bash Linux Shell connections

• D.

Disable key pair challenged SSH connections

B. Disable password challenged SSH connections
Explanation
The purpose of the Cluster Lockdown script is to disable password challenged SSH connections. This means that users will not be able to connect to the cluster using SSH and will instead need to use a key pair for authentication. This helps to enhance the security of the cluster by preventing unauthorized access through password-based authentication.

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• 10.

### What is the purpose of a Key Management Server?

• A.

Authenticate Nutanix nodes

• B.

Encryption of in-flight data

• C.

• D.

Act as proxy for Prism Central

A. Authenticate Nutanix nodes
Explanation
The purpose of a Key Management Server is to authenticate Nutanix nodes. This means that the server is responsible for verifying the identity of the Nutanix nodes, ensuring that they are authorized to access the network or perform certain actions. This authentication process helps to enhance the security of the system by preventing unauthorized access or malicious activities.

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• 11.

### Which 3 roles can be assigned to a Prism user?

• A.

Viewer

• B.

• C.

• D.

A. Viewer
Explanation
Prism users can be assigned three roles: Viewer, User Administrator, and Cluster Administrator. The Viewer role allows users to only view and access resources within the cluster. The User Administrator role has additional privileges to manage user accounts, roles, and permissions within the cluster. Lastly, the Cluster Administrator role has the highest level of access and control, allowing users to manage and configure all aspects of the cluster, including storage, networking, and virtual machines.

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• 12.

### Which two (2) of the following networking requirements are mandatory?

• A.

Configure CVM and Host in same VLAN

• B.

Don’t remove CVM from open vSwitch br0

• C.

Change VLAN away from vlan.0

• D.

Move higher speeds pNICs from bridge br0 to br1

A. Configure CVM and Host in same VLAN
B. Don’t remove CVM from open vSwitch br0
Explanation
The two mandatory networking requirements are to configure the CVM and the Host in the same VLAN and to not remove the CVM from the open vSwitch br0. These requirements ensure that the CVM and the Host are connected within the same network and that the CVM remains connected to the open vSwitch br0, which is essential for proper network communication and functionality.

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• 13.

### Which 3 AHV Modes can be Configured ?

• A.

Balanced-TCP

• B.

Balanced-SLB

• C.

Balanced-UTP

• D.

Active/Backup

A. Balanced-TCP
B. Balanced-SLB
D. Active/Backup
Explanation
The three AHV modes that can be configured are Balanced-TCP, Balanced-SLB, and Active/Backup. These modes allow for different load balancing and failover configurations in the AHV environment. Balanced-TCP and Balanced-SLB distribute the network traffic evenly across multiple AHV hosts, ensuring optimal performance and resource utilization. Active/Backup mode designates one AHV host as the active node, handling all the traffic, while the other hosts remain in standby mode, ready to take over in case of a failure. These modes provide flexibility and resilience in managing and maintaining the AHV infrastructure.

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• 14.

### What command, initiated from a CVM, is used to view the pNICs on all AHV nodes?

B. Hostssh ovs-appctl bond/show
Explanation
The command "hostssh ovs-appctl bond/show" is used to view the pNICs on all AHV nodes.

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• 15.

### What is the purpose of the optional CVM interface Eth2?

• A.

Intra-cluster traffic between CVMs

• B.

Storage traffic between clusters

• C.

Management traffic within a cluster

• D.

CVM trunk port

A. Intra-cluster traffic between CVMs
Explanation
The purpose of the optional CVM interface Eth2 is to facilitate communication and data transfer between CVMs within a cluster. This interface allows for efficient intra-cluster traffic, enabling seamless communication and collaboration between the different CVMs in the cluster.

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• 16.

### Which of these CLI commands is not valid?

C. CVM\$ manage_ovs [email protected] "ovs-vsctl set port br0-up bond_mode=active-backup"
Explanation
The command "CVM\$ manage_ovs [email protected] "ovs-vsctl set port br0-up bond_mode=active-backup"" is not valid because it is missing the "--bridge_name" option which is required for the "manage_ovs" command.

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• 17.

### What is included in, or enabled by, the Nutanix NGT bundle?

• A.

Application Consistent Snapshots

• B.

Mouse and keyboard emulation

• C.

Crash Consistent Snapshots

• D.

Mobility Drivers

A. Application Consistent Snapshots
D. Mobility Drivers
Explanation
The Nutanix NGT bundle includes two features: Application Consistent Snapshots and Mobility Drivers. Application Consistent Snapshots ensure that all data in an application is captured at a specific moment in time, allowing for reliable and consistent backups. Mobility Drivers enable seamless migration of virtual machines across different platforms, providing flexibility and ease of use for administrators.

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• 18.

### What disk formats are supported by the image service?

• A.

Qcow2, vdi, raw, udf, and iso

• B.

Raw, ova, vmdk, qcow2, and vdi

• C.

Vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2

• D.

Vmdk, qcow2, vdi, iso, ovf, and raw

C. Vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2
Explanation
The image service supports various disk formats including vhd, raw, vmdk, vdi, iso, and qcow2. These formats allow users to create and manage virtual machine images in different formats, depending on their specific needs and requirements.

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• 19.

### What is the purpose of “NCC”?

• A.

Hardware logs

• B.

Connect to any of the CVMs

• C.

Calculate reclaimable space of snapshot

• D.

Health Checks

D. Health Checks
Explanation
The purpose of "NCC" is to perform health checks. This means that it is responsible for monitoring and assessing the overall health and functionality of a system or network. It ensures that all components are functioning properly and identifies any issues or abnormalities that may require attention or troubleshooting.

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• 20.

### The Analysis dashboard allows you to create which two (2) types of charts?

• A.

Entity

• B.

Open Support Cases

• C.

Out-of-band management

• D.

Metric

A. Entity
D. Metric
Explanation
The Analysis dashboard allows you to create two types of charts: Entity and Metric.

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• 21.

### Which 3 Storage Containers are pre-created upon Foundation?

• A.

SelfServiceContainer

• B.

NutanixManagementShare

• C.

Default-container-<unique_number>

• D.

PrismCentralContainer

A. SelfServiceContainer
B. NutanixManagementShare
C. Default-container-<unique_number>
Explanation
The three storage containers that are pre-created upon Foundation are SelfServiceContainer, NutanixManagementShare, and default-container-. These containers are already set up and available for use when Foundation is installed.

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• 22.

### Where is the Oplog located?

• A.

Hard disk Drive (HDD)

• B.

Solid State Drive (SSD)

• C.

Disk-on-Module (DOM)

• D.

Random Access Memory

B. Solid State Drive (SSD)
Explanation
The Oplog is located in a Solid State Drive (SSD). SSDs are known for their fast read and write speeds, making them an ideal choice for storing the Oplog. Unlike HDDs, which have mechanical moving parts, SSDs use flash memory to store data, resulting in faster access times and improved performance. Disk-on-Module (DOM) and Random Access Memory are not typically used for storing the Oplog.

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• 23.

### What optimization features can be configured at the storage container level?

• A.

Deduplication

• B.

VDisk thin provisioning

• C.

Erasure Coding

• D.

Compression

A. Deduplication
C. Erasure Coding
D. Compression
Explanation
At the storage container level, various optimization features can be configured. Deduplication is a technique that eliminates duplicate data, reducing storage space requirements. Erasure Coding is a method of data protection that uses advanced algorithms to divide data into fragments and add redundancy, improving fault tolerance and reducing storage overhead. Compression reduces the size of data by eliminating redundant information, further optimizing storage space. Therefore, the correct answer is Deduplication, Erasure Coding, and Compression as these features can be configured at the storage container level to enhance storage efficiency and performance.

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• 24.

### A cluster running RF2 has 5 containers configured, each 20TB. No reserved capacity.  What is the size of the (single) storage pool ?

• A.

20TB

• B.

40TB

• C.

100TB

• D.

200TB

B. 40TB
Explanation
Since each container is configured to be 20TB and there are 5 containers in the cluster, the total size of the storage pool would be 5 * 20TB = 100TB. However, since there is no reserved capacity mentioned in the question, it means that only half of the containers are available for use. Therefore, the size of the (single) storage pool would be 100TB / 2 = 50TB.

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• 25.

### A cluster (RF 3) currently has 5 storage containers.  Storage Pool: 15TB. You add 2 containers ‘A’ and ‘B’ with 1TB reserved capacity each. What is now the raw capacity of all seven containers?

• A.

Original 5 containers: 3TB each ; containers A and B: 3TB each

• B.

Original 5 containers: 4TB each ; containers A and B: 3TB each

• C.

Original 5 containers: 4TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each

• D.

Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each

D. Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each
Explanation
The correct answer is "Original 5 containers: 3TB each; containers A and B: 4TB each." This is because the original 5 containers have a capacity of 3TB each, and the added containers A and B have a reserved capacity of 1TB each. Therefore, the raw capacity of all seven containers is 3TB for the original 5 containers and 4TB for containers A and B.

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• 26.

### When manually migrating Windows VMs, what are the prerequisites?

• A.

Remove all associated hypervisor snapshots

• B.

Remove all CD-ROM drives from the VM

• C.

VMs must be powered off before migration

• D.

Only 10 VMs can be migrated simultaneously

A. Remove all associated hypervisor snapshots
C. VMs must be powered off before migration
Explanation
The prerequisites for manually migrating Windows VMs are to remove all associated hypervisor snapshots and to power off the VMs before migration. Removing the snapshots ensures that the VMs are in a clean state without any previous snapshots that could cause issues during migration. Powering off the VMs before migration ensures that the migration process is smooth and there are no conflicts or data inconsistencies during the transfer.

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• 27.

### To build the VM on the AHV cluster, after a migration, what “Add Disk” Operation(s) can be used?

• A.

Clone from Image Service

• B.

• C.

Clone from VM list

• D.

Clone from Storagepool

A. Clone from Image Service
Explanation
The "Add Disk" operation can be used to clone from the Image Service or clone from an ADSF file. This means that when building the VM on the AHV cluster after a migration, you have the option to either clone from an existing image stored in the Image Service or clone from a specific ADSF file. The other options listed, "Clone from VM list" and "Clone from Storagepool," are not applicable in this scenario.

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• 28.

### How does the external server (client) gain access to the disks in the Volume Group (VG)?

• A.

• B.

Add the Cluster IP to the client

• C.

Add the client’s IQN to the VG’s whitelist

• D.

Add a Nutanix certificate to the client

C. Add the client’s IQN to the VG’s whitelist
Explanation
To gain access to the disks in the Volume Group (VG), the external server (client) needs to have its IP address and IQN added to the VG's whitelist. This allows the client to be recognized and authorized by the VG, granting it access to the disks. Adding the client's IP address ensures that only the specified IP can access the disks, while adding the client's IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name) provides a unique identifier for the client's iSCSI initiator, allowing it to establish a connection with the VG.

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• 29.

### Nutanix Volumes facilitates the support for which of the following use cases?

• A.

ISCSI for Microsoft Exchange Server

• B.

Shared storage for Linux-based clusters and Windows Server Failover Clustering (WSFC)

• C.

Shared storage for Oracle RAC environments

• D.

Bare-metal environments

• E.

Explanation
Nutanix Volumes supports multiple use cases including iSCSI for Microsoft Exchange Server, shared storage for Linux-based clusters and Windows Server Failover Clustering (WSFC), shared storage for Oracle RAC environments, and bare-metal environments.

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• 30.

### Which of the following statements are true for Nutanix Volumes?

• A.

CHAP is supported

• B.

MPIO is NOT supported

• C.

Available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V

• D.

Only available for AHV clusters

A. CHAP is supported
C. Available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V
Explanation
Nutanix Volumes support CHAP authentication and are available for ESXi, AHV, and Hyper-V. MPIO is not supported. However, it is incorrect to say that Nutanix Volumes are only available for AHV clusters.

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• 31.

### Which feature(s) require(s) the Data Services IP?

• A.

Nutanix Disaster Recovery

• B.

Nutanix Volumes

• C.

Nutanix Files

• D.

Nutanix Micro-segmentation

B. Nutanix Volumes
C. Nutanix Files
Explanation
The Data Services IP is required for Nutanix Volumes and Nutanix Files. This means that these features rely on the Data Services IP to function properly.

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• 32.

### Through what interface(s) is/are (anti-)affinity rules configured?

• A.

Affinity  : CLI

• B.

Anti-affinity  : CLI

• C.

Affinity  : Prism

• D.

Anti-affinity  : Prism

A. Affinity  : CLI
B. Anti-affinity  : CLI
C. Affinity  : Prism
Explanation
(Anti-)affinity rules can be configured through both the CLI (Command Line Interface) and Prism interface. The CLI allows users to configure (anti-)affinity rules using command-line commands, while Prism provides a graphical user interface for configuring these rules. Therefore, the correct answer is that (anti-)affinity rules can be configured through CLI and Prism interfaces.

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• 33.

### What is the Fault Tolerance related to RF3?

• A.

0

• B.

1

• C.

2

• D.

3

C. 2
Explanation
Fault tolerance related to RF3 refers to the ability of a system or network to continue functioning properly even in the presence of faults or failures. In this context, the correct answer of 2 suggests that RF3 has a moderate level of fault tolerance. This means that the system or network can withstand certain faults or failures without completely failing or losing functionality. However, it may not be able to handle more severe or widespread faults and may require some level of recovery or repair.

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• 34.

### What applies to VM High Availability?

• A.

If disabled, VMs cannot be migrated and restarted on other hosts

• B.

When enabled, VMs are guaranteed to restart on remaining available hosts

• C.

If not set, VMs are revived on best-effort basis

• D.

When set, VMs are duplicated on remaining hosts in the same cluster

B. When enabled, VMs are guaranteed to restart on remaining available hosts
C. If not set, VMs are revived on best-effort basis
Explanation
When VM High Availability is enabled, it ensures that if a host fails, the VMs running on that host will be automatically restarted on the remaining available hosts. This feature provides fault tolerance and minimizes downtime for the VMs. On the other hand, if VM High Availability is not set or disabled, the VMs will only be revived on a best-effort basis, meaning there is no guarantee that they will be restarted on other hosts.

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• 35.

### What is the result of a CVM becoming unavailable?

• A.

A route is added to the host’s routing table

• B.

The guest VMs on the same node are stunted

• C.

A route is added to the CVM’s routing table

• D.

VMs running on the node’s host are migrated

A. A route is added to the host’s routing table
Explanation
When a CVM (Control Virtual Machine) becomes unavailable, a route is added to the host's routing table. This means that the host system will adjust its routing configuration to account for the unavailability of the CVM. This route addition allows the host to redirect network traffic appropriately, ensuring that communication can still occur despite the unavailability of the CVM.

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• 36.

### What is the result of a PD “Activate”?

• A.

Both sites are activated

• B.

Only the source site PD is activated

• C.

Both sites are deactivated

• D.

The destination site PD is activated

A. Both sites are activated
Explanation
The result of a PD "Activate" is that both sites are activated.

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• 37.

### Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

• A.

All replications require a Protection Domain (PD)

• B.

Only asynchronous replications require a PD

• C.

Protection Domains require Consistency Groups

• D.

Only synchronous replications require a PD

A. All replications require a Protection Domain (PD)
Explanation
All replications require a Protection Domain (PD). This means that regardless of whether the replication is asynchronous or synchronous, a Protection Domain is necessary. A Protection Domain is a logical grouping of resources that ensures consistent replication and recovery of data. It provides a level of isolation and control over the replication process, allowing for better management and organization of replicated data. Therefore, it is essential for all types of replications to have a Protection Domain in place.

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• 38.

### Which of the following statement(s) are true for asynchronous replication?

• A.

NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication

• B.

Each cluster must have at least 2 nodes (RF2)

• C.

Retention Policies are only available on the target cluster(s)

• D.

Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters

A. NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication
D. Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters
Explanation
NearSync provides a one-minute minimum replication means that NearSync replication ensures that the data is replicated to the target cluster within a minimum time frame of one minute. Uni-directional replication requires Remote Site setup on both source and target clusters means that in order to set up uni-directional replication between source and target clusters, the Remote Site setup needs to be configured on both clusters.

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• 39.

### An Async Replication Protection Domain can contain what type of entities (choose two)?

• A.

Storage container(s)

• B.

Virtual Machines

• C.

Storage Pool(s)

• D.

Volume Groups

B. Virtual Machines
D. Volume Groups
Explanation
An Async Replication Protection Domain can contain virtual machines and volume groups. This means that it can protect and replicate both virtual machine instances and groups of volumes. This allows for the replication and protection of important data and configurations within a virtualized environment.

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• 40.

### Which replication statements are correct?

• A.

One CG can include multiple PDs

• B.

At least one PD must be configured

• C.

One PD can include multiple CGs

• D.

At least one CG must be configured

B. At least one PD must be configured
C. One PD can include multiple CGs
Explanation
The correct answer states that at least one PD must be configured and that one PD can include multiple CGs. This means that in order to have a valid replication, there must be at least one primary database (PD) configured, and this PD can have multiple consumer groups (CGs) associated with it. This allows for the replication of data from the PD to multiple CGs, ensuring that the data is replicated to different destinations as desired.

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• 41.

### Which is true for PD Activate and Migrate options?

• A.

Migrate is initiated from the source site

• B.

Activate is initiated from the source site

• C.

Activate is initiated from the destination site

• D.

Migrate is initiated from the destination site

A. Migrate is initiated from the source site
C. Activate is initiated from the destination site
Explanation
Migrate is initiated from the source site because the term "migrate" typically refers to the process of moving data or resources from one location to another. In this case, it makes sense for the migration process to be initiated from the source site, where the data or resources are currently located. On the other hand, activate is initiated from the destination site because activating something usually involves enabling or starting a process or function at a specific location, which in this case would be the destination site.

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• 42.

### What applies to Prism Central?

• A.

Created during Foundation

• B.

Setup through Prism as 1, 2, or 3-VMs

• C.

Clusters and PC need to match hypervisor

• D.

Created by user as 1 or 3-VM

D. Created by user as 1 or 3-VM
Explanation
Prism Central can be created by the user as either a single-VM or a three-VM setup. This means that the user has the flexibility to choose the number of VMs they want to allocate for Prism Central based on their requirements. This allows for customization and scalability in the deployment of Prism Central.

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• 43.

### What additional features are available with Prism  Pro (Prism Central with Pro license)?

• A.

• B.

VM right-sizing

• C.

Capacity Runway

• D.

VM Tagging

B. VM right-sizing
Explanation
Prism Pro with a Pro license offers additional features such as centralized upgrades and VM right-sizing. Centralized upgrades allow for the management and execution of upgrades across multiple clusters from a single interface, simplifying the upgrade process. VM right-sizing helps optimize resource allocation by identifying over or underutilized virtual machines and suggesting appropriate adjustments.

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• 44.

### Which features are only available in Prism Central/Pro and not Prism Element?

• A.

• B.

Self-Service with Calm

• C.

Flow

• D.

Analyze dashboard

B. Self-Service with Calm
C. Flow
Explanation
The features of Self-Service with Calm and Flow are only available in Prism Central/Pro and not in Prism Element. Prism Element does not have the capability to provide self-service functionality through Calm, which allows users to request and manage IT services. Additionally, Flow, which enables network automation and visualization, is also exclusive to Prism Central/Pro.

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• 45.

### Which of the following applies to Prism Central?

• A.

Register a cluster to PC through PE

• B.

Unregister clusters through PC

• C.

Unregister a cluster from PC through PE

• D.

Discover/register clusters through PC

A. Register a cluster to PC through PE
C. Unregister a cluster from PC through PE
Explanation
Prism Central allows users to register a cluster to Prism Central through Prism Element (PE). This means that users can connect their cluster to Prism Central to manage and monitor it from a centralized interface. Additionally, Prism Central also allows users to unregister a cluster from Prism Central through Prism Element. This means that users can disconnect a cluster from Prism Central if they no longer want to manage it through the centralized interface.

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• 46.

### What applies to AOS/NCC?

• A.

• B.

NCC is part of the AOS bundle

• C.

AOS is installed on the SATA-DOM

• D.

A. NCC can be upgraded separately
B. NCC is part of the AOS bundle
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that NCC can be upgraded separately from AOS. This means that users have the option to upgrade NCC without necessarily upgrading AOS. Additionally, NCC is also part of the AOS bundle, indicating that it is included when installing AOS.

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• 47.

### What command places a host in Maintenance Mode in AHV?

• A.

Acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id

• B.

Ncli host maintenance host_id

• C.

Acli maintenance_mode.host host_id

• D.

Ncli maintenance_mode host=host_id

A. Acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id
Explanation
The correct answer is "acli host.enter_maintenance_mode host_id". This command is used to place a host in Maintenance Mode in AHV. The "acli" command is the Acropolis Command Line Interface, and "host.enter_maintenance_mode" is the specific command that is used to initiate the Maintenance Mode on a host. The "host_id" parameter is used to specify the ID of the host that needs to be placed in Maintenance Mode.

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• 48.

### What allows a node to be added to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option?

• A.

The node is discoverable through IPv4

• B.

The node is not already part of a cluster

• C.

The node is discoverable through IPv6

• D.

Node and cluster have the same AOS version

B. The node is not already part of a cluster
C. The node is discoverable through IPv6
Explanation
The correct answer is that the node is not already part of a cluster and the node is discoverable through IPv6. In order to add a node to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option, the node must not already be part of a cluster. Additionally, the node must be discoverable through IPv6, indicating that it can be reached and communicated with over an IPv6 network. These two conditions must be met in order for a node to be successfully added to a cluster using the Prism Expand Cluster option.

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• 49.

### For upgrading the hypervisor, what files are found on the Nutanix Support Portal?

• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

A. Binary file to upgrade AHV
C. JSON file to upgrade Hyper-V
D. JSON file to upgrade AHV
Explanation
The Nutanix Support Portal provides the necessary files for upgrading the hypervisor. For upgrading AHV, a binary file is available. For upgrading Hyper-V, JSON files are provided. It is important to note that there are two JSON files available, one for upgrading AHV and another for upgrading ESXi.

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• 50.

### Where are most AOS Services and NCC logs found?

• A.

/etc/foundation/nutanix/ncc

• B.

/nutanix/data/logs

• C.

/home/nutanix/data/logs

• D.

/nutanix/home/log/data

C. /home/nutanix/data/logs
Explanation
Most AOS Services and NCC logs are found in the "/home/nutanix/data/logs" directory.

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• Current Version
• Mar 19, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• Jun 01, 2020
Quiz Created by
Shay Hyams

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