Microbiology Final Review
Cancel
-
+
Practice test for Microbiology Final.
- 1.Which is not terminology used for resident flora?
- A.
- 2.Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces?
- A.
- 3.Enterotoxins are
- A.
- 4.Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
- A.
- 5.Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
- A.
- 6.Plasma cells
- A.
- 7.Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
- A.
- 8.All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA except
- A.
- 9.Scarlet fever is caused by strains of
- A.
- 10.Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
- A.
- 11.
- A.
- 12.All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
- A.
- 13.Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent
- A.
- 14.The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except:
- A.
- 15.This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
- A.
- 16.Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except
- A.
- 17.Which is incorrect about rabies?
- A.
- 18.Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
- A.
Antibiotics
- B.
Narrow-spectrum drugs
- C.
Semisynthetic drugs
- D.
Synthetic drugs
- E.
Broad-spectrum drugs
- 19.Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
- A.
Antibiotics
- B.
Narrow-spectrum drugs
- C.
Semisynthetic drugs
- D.
Synthetic drugs
- E.
Broad-spectrum drugs
- 20.Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
- A.
Low toxicity for human tissues
- B.
High toxicity against microbial cells
- C.
Do not cause serious side effects in humans
- D.
Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 21.Aminoglycosides
- A.
Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
- B.
Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
- C.
Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
- D.
Damage cell membranes
- E.
Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
- 22.A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
- A.
Synercid
- B.
Penicillinase
- C.
Aztreonam
- D.
Clavulanic acid
- E.
Imipenem
- 23.Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
- A.
Penicillium
- B.
Bacillus
- C.
Staphylococcus
- D.
Streptomyces
- E.
Cephalosporium
- 24.Penicillins and cephalosporins
- A.
Interfere with DNA synthesis
- B.
Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
- C.
Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
- D.
Damage cell membranes
- E.
Block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
- 25.Sulfonamides
- A.
Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan
- B.
Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
- C.
Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
- D.
Damage cell membranes
- E.
Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
- 26.Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
- A.
A beta-lactam ring
- B.
Resistance to the action of penicillinase
- C.
A semisynthetic nature
- D.
An expanded spectrum of activity
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 27.The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is
- A.
Chloramphenicol
- B.
Clindamycin
- C.
Ciprofloxacin
- D.
Bacitracin
- E.
Gentamicin
- 28.The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
- A.
Nystatin
- B.
Griseofulvin
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Sulfa drugs
- E.
Metronidazole
- 29.The drug used for several protozoan infections is
- A.
Nystatin
- B.
Griseofulvin
- C.
Amphotericin B
- D.
Sulfa drugs
- E.
Metronidazole
- 30.Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat __________ infections.
- A.
Bacterial
- B.
Fungal
- C.
Protozoan
- D.
Helminthic
- E.
Virus
- 31.Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
- A.
Block penetration
- B.
Block transcription and translation
- C.
Inhibit DNA synthesis
- D.
Block maturation
- E.
Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
- 32.Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
- A.
Influenza A virus
- B.
HIV
- C.
Herpes zoster virus
- D.
Respiratory syncytial virus
- E.
Hepatitis C virus
- 33.The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
- A.
Bacterial chromosomal mutations
- B.
Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure
- C.
Prevention of drug entry into the cell
- D.
Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 34.A superinfection results from
- A.
Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient
- B.
The wrong drug administered to the patient
- C.
An immune system reaction to the drug
- D.
Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 35.Drug susceptibility testing
- A.
Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics
- B.
Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics
- C.
Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics
- D.
Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient
- E.
None of the choices are correct
- 36.A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
- A.
Giving a narrow spectrum drug
- B.
Culturing the pathogen and identifying it
- C.
Performing the disk diffusion assay
- D.
Using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater
- E.
Using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination
- 37.All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
- A.
The inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment
- B.
A mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant
- C.
Not completing the full course of treatment
- D.
A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic
- E.
Diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age
- 38.All infectious diseases
- A.
Are contagious
- B.
Only occur in humans
- C.
Are caused by microorganisms or their products
- D.
Are caused by vectors
- E.
Involve viruses as the pathogen
- 39.Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
- A.
In food
- B.
The patient's own normal flora
- C.
On fomites
- D.
In the air
- E.
Transmitted from one person to another
- 40.The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
- A.
Before birth, in utero
- B.
During, and immediately after birth
- C.
When a child first goes to school
- D.
When an infant gets its first infectious disease
- E.
During puberty
- 41.All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except
- A.
Escherichia
- B.
Staphylococcus
- C.
Corynebacterium
- D.
Micrococcus
- E.
Mycobacterium
- 42.Resident flora of the intestines include
- A.
Streptococcus
- B.
Bacteroides
- C.
Staphylococcus
- D.
Haemophilus
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 43.STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
- A.
Genera of resident flora
- B.
Sexually transmitted diseases
- C.
Portals of entry
- D.
Vectors
- E.
Infections of the fetus and neonate
- 44.The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
- A.
Prodromal stage
- B.
Convalescent stage
- C.
Incubation period
- D.
Period of invasion
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 45.The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
- A.
Syndrome
- B.
Symptom
- C.
Sign
- D.
Pathology
- E.
Inflammation
- 46.The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
- A.
Syndrome
- B.
Symptom
- C.
Sign
- D.
Pathology
- E.
Inflammation
- 47.The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
- A.
Pathology
- B.
Clinical microbiology
- C.
Medicine
- D.
Immunology
- E.
Epidemiology
- 48.Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Vector
- D.
Reservoir
- E.
Source
- 49.An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Vector
- D.
Reservoir
- E.
Source
- 50.An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Vector
- D.
Reservoir
- E.
Source
- 51.Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
- A.
They are only transmitted by medical personnel
- B.
They often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions
- C.
The patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent
- D.
Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents
- E.
Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
- 52.If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?
- A.
Neisseria gonorrhea
- B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- C.
They are equally virulent
- D.
It is impossible to determine
- 53.Nonspecific chemical defenses include
- A.
Lysozyme.
- B.
Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
- C.
Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
- D.
Stomach hydrochloric acid.
- E.
All of the choices are correct
- 54.The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
- A.
Lactic acid.
- B.
Hydrochloric acid.
- C.
Lysozyme.
- D.
Histamine.
- E.
Bile.
- 55.The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
- A.
Skin.
- B.
Respiratory tract.
- C.
Digestive tract.
- D.
Urinary tract.
- E.
Eyes.
- 56.Plasma
- A.
Is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.
- B.
Is mostly water.
- C.
Contains albumin and globulins.
- D.
Contains fibrinogen.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 57.The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
- A.
Basophils.
- B.
Eosinophils.
- C.
Neutrophils.
- D.
Monocytes.
- E.
Lymphocytes.
- 58.The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
- A.
Basophils.
- B.
Eosinophils.
- C.
Neutrophils.
- D.
Monocytes.
- E.
Lymphocytes.
- 59.All of the following pertain to platelets except
- A.
They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
- B.
They are also called thrombocytes.
- C.
They originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.
- D.
They function in blood clotting and inflammation.
- E.
They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
- 60.Hemopoiesis is the
- A.
Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
- B.
Production of only red blood cells.
- C.
Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
- D.
Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
- E.
Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
- 61.Diapedesis is the
- A.
Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
- B.
Production of only red blood cells.
- C.
Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
- D.
Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
- E.
Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
- 62.The reticuloendothelial system
- A.
Is a support network of connective tissue fibers.
- B.
Originates in the cellular basal lamina.
- C.
Provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.
- D.
Is heavily populated with macrophages.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 63.These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:
- A.
Lymph nodes
- B.
Thymus
- C.
Spleen
- D.
GALT
- E.
Tonsils
- 64.The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
- A.
Redness.
- B.
Warmth.
- C.
Swelling.
- D.
Pain.
- E.
Chills.
- 65.The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
- A.
Complement.
- B.
Interferons.
- C.
Leukotrienes.
- D.
Pyrogens.
- E.
Lysozymes.
- 66.Which is incorrect about complement?
- A.
Composed of at least 26 blood proteins
- B.
Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
- C.
Act in a cascade reaction
- D.
Involves a classical pathway
- E.
Involves an alternate pathway
- 67.Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
- A.
Inflammatory response
- B.
Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
- C.
Interferon
- D.
T cell and B cell responses
- E.
Anatomical barriers in the body
- 68.Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means
- A.
Redness.
- B.
Pain.
- C.
Loss of function.
- D.
Warmth.
- E.
Swelling.
- 69.Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means
- A.
Redness.
- B.
Pain.
- C.
Loss of function.
- D.
Warmth.
- E.
Swelling.
- 70.Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
- A.
Mycology
- B.
Hematology
- C.
Serology
- D.
Histology
- E.
Virology
- 71.The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is
- A.
Cross-reactions.
- B.
Agglutination.
- C.
Precipitation.
- D.
Specificity.
- E.
Sensitivity.
- 72.The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is
- A.
Cross-reactions.
- B.
Agglutination.
- C.
Precipitation.
- D.
Specificity.
- E.
Sensitivity
- 73.Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:
- A.
Cross-reactions
- B.
Agglutination
- C.
Precipitation
- D.
Specificity
- E.
Sensitivity
- 74.Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test:
- A.
Cross-reactions
- B.
Agglutination
- C.
Precipitation
- D.
Specificity
- E.
Sensitivity
- 75.A serum titer involves
- A.
Serially diluting a serum sample.
- B.
Determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
- C.
Determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.
- D.
The Western blot method.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 76.Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
- A.
First antigen and antibody are allowed to react
- B.
Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube
- C.
Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture
- D.
Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 77.Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in
- A.
Ouchterlony double diffusion.
- B.
Western blot.
- C.
Immunelectrophoresis.
- D.
Radioimmunoassay (RIA).
- E.
The Quellung test.
- 78.All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
- A.
Detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.
- B.
Western blot.
- C.
Cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.
- D.
Signs and symptoms.
- E.
The light microscope.
- 79.Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
- A.
Catalase test
- B.
Gram stain
- C.
Phage typing
- D.
Antimicrobic sensitivity
- E.
Production of gas
- 80.All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except
- A.
Motility.
- B.
Carbohydrate fermentation.
- C.
Catalase test.
- D.
Oxidase test.
- E.
Coagulase test.
- 81.The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the __________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the __________ is its titer.
- A.
Lower, lower
- B.
Higher, lower
- C.
Lower, higher
- D.
Higher, higher
- 82.A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates
- A.
A past case of the disease.
- B.
A current infection.
- C.
Nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum.
- D.
All of the choices are possible.
- 83.Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts?
- A.
Genetic probing
- B.
Ouchterlony
- C.
Polymerase chain reaction
- D.
Nucleic acid sequencing
- E.
G + C composition
- 84.The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood.
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
- C.
Microorganisms
- D.
IgE only
- E.
Complement
- 85.Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool?
- A.
DNA analysis using genetic probes
- B.
RRNA analysis
- C.
G + C base composition percentage
- D.
Nucleic acid sequencing
- E.
Polymerase chain reaction
- 86.The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine
- A.
Can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests.
- B.
Emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation.
- C.
Are observed in the fluorescent microscope.
- D.
Are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 87.The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
- A.
Catalase.
- B.
Coagulase.
- C.
Hyaluronidase.
- D.
Staphylokinase.
- E.
Dnase.
- 88.The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
- A.
Enterotoxin.
- B.
Hemolysin.
- C.
Toxic shock syndrome toxin.
- D.
Exfoliative toxin.
- E.
Erythrogenic toxin.
- 89.The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
- A.
Enterotoxins.
- B.
Hemolysins.
- C.
Toxic shock syndrome toxin.
- D.
Exfoliative toxin.
- E.
Erythrogenic toxin.
- 90.This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States:
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- D.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- E.
Streptococcus agalactiae
- 91.This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females:
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- D.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- E.
Streptococcus agalactiae
- 92.This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- C.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
- D.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- E.
Streptococcus agalactiae
- 93.The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is
- A.
All over the skin.
- B.
Under the fingernails.
- C.
Anterior nares (nostrils).
- D.
Mouth.
- E.
Intestines.
- 94.Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their
- A.
Cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.
- B.
Patterns of hemolysis on blood agar.
- C.
Ability to produce catalase.
- D.
Gram stain appearance.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 95.Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
- A.
Necrotizing fasciitis.
- B.
Erysipelas.
- C.
Impetigo.
- D.
Scarlet fever.
- E.
Scalded skin syndrome.
- 96.The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is
- A.
Erysipelas.
- B.
Impetigo.
- C.
Necrotizing fasciitis.
- D.
Scarlet fever.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 97.All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis except
- A.
Normal flora of the human large intestine.
- B.
Increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics.
- C.
Cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias.
- D.
Can cause endocarditis.
- E.
Belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.
- 98.The viridans streptococci are
- A.
Not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology.
- B.
The most numerous residents of the oral cavity.
- C.
Opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis.
- D.
Introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 99.Streptococcus pneumoniae is
- A.
Called the meningococcus.
- B.
In the viridans group.
- C.
A gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.
- D.
A pathogen with endotoxin.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 100.Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
- A.
Otitis media.
- B.
Meningitis.
- C.
Lobar pneumonia.
- D.
Bronchial pneumonia.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 101.All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
- A.
Virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
- B.
It causes a serious meningitis.
- C.
The reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
- D.
It is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
- E.
It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
- 102.Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis
- A.
Is a virulent pathogen.
- B.
Causes otitis media, meningitis, endocarditis, and bronchopulmonary infections.
- C.
Has birds as its reservoir.
- D.
Infection begins with a rash.
- E.
Only causes nosocomial infections.
- 103.A positive Quellung, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for
- A.
Neisseria meningitidis.
- B.
Staphylococcus aureus.
- C.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
- D.
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
- E.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- 104.The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with
- A.
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- B.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
- C.
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
- D.
Streptococcus agalactiae.
- E.
Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
- 105.Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
- A.
Capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
- B.
Anaerobic.
- C.
Reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
- D.
Gram positive bacillus.
- E.
Sporeformer.
- 106.This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"
- A.
Pulmonary.
- B.
Gastrointestinal.
- C.
Cutaneous.
- D.
All of the choices are correct.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 107.The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
- A.
Gastrointestinal anthrax.
- B.
Bacillus cereus intoxication.
- C.
Botulism.
- D.
Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 108.Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of
- A.
Clostridium botulinum.
- B.
Clostridium perfringens.
- C.
Clostridium difficile.
- D.
Clostridium tetani.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 109.This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
- A.
Clostridium botulinum
- B.
Clostridium perfringens
- C.
Clostridium difficile
- D.
Clostridium tetani
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 110.Botulin, the toxin of botulism is
- A.
Not as virulent as tetanospasmin.
- B.
Detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood.
- C.
The cause of rigid paralysis.
- D.
Only produced under anaerobic conditions.
- E.
Produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.
- 111.All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
- A.
It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
- B.
It is a colitis that is a superinfection.
- C.
It often has an endogenous source.
- D.
It may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.
- E.
It is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
- 112.All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
- A.
Gram positive
- B.
Sporeformer
- C.
Contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry
- D.
Causes foodborne listeriosis
- E.
Cold enrichment improves recovery in the lab
- 113.
- A.
It causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea and sore throat.
- B.
It causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised and infants.
- C.
Intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death.
- D.
Adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention.
- E.
Enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.
- 114.Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
- A.
Diphtheria.
- B.
Listeriosis.
- C.
Tuberculosis.
- D.
Erysipeloid.
- E.
Botulism.
- 115.The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is
- A.
Capsule.
- B.
Metachromatic granules.
- C.
Exotoxin.
- D.
Endospores.
- E.
Endotoxin.
- 116.Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
- A.
All species are human pathogens
- B.
Cell walls have waxy lipids
- C.
Acid fast
- D.
Usually have a slow growth rate
- E.
Long, slender rods
- 117.Tuberculin skin testing
- A.
Injects PPD intradermally.
- B.
Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- C.
Will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
- D.
Will be positive in active TB.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 118.Leprosy is a disease
- A.
Of lung tissue.
- B.
That has been eradicated around the world.
- C.
Caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.
- D.
Can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test.
- E.
Caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.
- 119.The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is
- A.
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
- B.
Mycobacterium kansasii.
- C.
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.
- D.
Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.
- E.
Mycobacterium marinum.
- 120.Actinomyces israelii
- A.
Can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.
- B.
Can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis.
- C.
Are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.
- D.
Lives in the soil.
- E.
Causes most cases in the immunocompromised.
- 121.Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except
- A.
Severe nosocomial infection in burn patients.
- B.
Skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.
- C.
Diarrheal illness.
- D.
External ear infection.
- E.
Serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.
- 122.Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
- A.
Lemon yellow
- B.
Red-orange
- C.
Golden
- D.
Blue-green
- E.
Pale orange
- 123.Brucellosis is
- A.
A zoonosis.
- B.
Seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness.
- C.
Associated with pathogen in the blood.
- D.
An occupational illness of people that work with animals.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 124.Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of
- A.
Tularemia.
- B.
Pertussis.
- C.
Legionellosis.
- D.
Brucellosis.
- E.
Shigellosis.
- 125.Pertussis has the following characteristics except
- A.
Pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.
- B.
Catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".
- C.
Early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.
- D.
DTaP immunization will prevent it.
- E.
Transmission is by respiratory droplets.
- 126.Legionella pneumophila
- A.
Requires special lab growth media.
- B.
Often lives in close associations with amebas.
- C.
Causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
- D.
Causes a severe pneumonia.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 127.Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
- A.
Legionellosis
- B.
Pertussis
- C.
Brucellosis
- D.
Plague
- E.
Traveler's diarrhea
- 128.All coliforms are
- A.
Enteric pathogens.
- B.
Rapid lactose fermenters.
- C.
Oxidase positive.
- D.
Fasitidious.
- E.
Strains of E. coli.
- 129.Escherichia coli infections
- A.
Are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
- B.
Include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
- C.
Involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
- D.
Can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 130.E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except
- A.
It only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
- B.
It is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.
- C.
It causes a bloody diarrhea.
- D.
Its reservoir is cattle intestines.
- E.
Some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.
- 131.Salmonelloses are
- A.
Not caused by Salmonella typhi.
- B.
Associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.
- C.
Gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
- D.
Enteric fevers that often include septicemia.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 132.Salmonella typhi
- A.
Multiplies within phagocytes.
- B.
Is not a coliform.
- C.
Can be treated with antimicrobics.
- D.
Causes invasive infection of the small intestine.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 133.Yersinia pestis
- A.
Was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent.
- B.
Has humans as an endemic reservoir.
- C.
Does not respond to antimicrobic drugs.
- D.
Is usually transmitted by a flea vector.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 134.All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
- A.
It is transmitted by human feces.
- B.
It is caused by Yersinia pestis.
- C.
The patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
- D.
The patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.
- E.
It can progress to a septicemia.
- 135.The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is
- A.
Salmonella typhimurium.
- B.
Yersinia enterocolitica.
- C.
Pasteurella multocida.
- D.
Brucella suis.
- E.
Francisella tularensis.
- 136.Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in its growth medium?
- A.
Legionella
- B.
Haemophilus
- C.
Brucella
- D.
Shigella
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 137.Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
- A.
Bacterial meningitis
- B.
Influenza (flu)
- C.
Otitis media
- D.
Bronchitis
- E.
Epiglottitis
- 138.An agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is
- A.
Haemophilus influenzae.
- B.
Haemophilus ducreyi.
- C.
Haemophilus aegyptius.
- D.
Haemophilus parainfluenzae.
- E.
Haemophilus aphrophilus.
- 139.Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum
- A.
Has humans as the reservoir.
- B.
Can cross the placenta.
- C.
Has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
- D.
Is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 140.The chancre of syphilis
- A.
Occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
- B.
Is very painful.
- C.
Occurs during the tertiary stage.
- D.
Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 141.The secondary stage of syphilis
- A.
Is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.
- B.
Occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
- C.
Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
- D.
Has no symptoms.
- E.
Is when gummas develop in tissues.
- 142.Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
- A.
Obligate parasites requiring host cells.
- B.
Curved rods.
- C.
Transmitted by arthropod vectors.
- D.
Spirochetes.
- E.
Bacteria without cell walls.
- 143.Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
- A.
Are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.
- B.
Are sexually transmitted.
- C.
Are caused by arthropod vectors.
- D.
Are caused by Vibrio species.
- E.
Are respiratory tract infections.
- 144.Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
- A.
Feces.
- B.
Blood.
- C.
Urine.
- D.
Respiratory secretions.
- E.
Saliva.
- 145.Relapsing fever involves
- A.
Soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.
- B.
Initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.
- C.
Late symptoms of vomiting, muscle aches, damage to liver, spleen, heart and kidneys.
- D.
Human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 146.The causative agent of Lyme disease is
- A.
Ixodes scapularis.
- B.
Borrelia hermsii.
- C.
Borrelia burgdorferi.
- D.
Ixodes pacificus.
- E.
Leptospira interrogans.
- 147.Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
- A.
Syphilis.
- B.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
- C.
Relapsing fever.
- D.
Lyme disease.
- E.
Leptospirosis.
- 148.The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
- A.
Capsule.
- B.
Neurotoxin.
- C.
Invasive enzymes.
- D.
Enterotoxin.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 149.Cholera symptoms are
- A.
Copious watery diarrhea.
- B.
Loss of blood volume.
- C.
Acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst.
- D.
Hypotension, tachycardia, shock.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 150.The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is
- A.
Water and electrolyte replacement.
- B.
Antimicrobics.
- C.
Antitoxin.
- D.
Surgery.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 151.An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is
- A.
Chlamydia trachomatis.
- B.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
- C.
Vibrio cholerae.
- D.
Campylobacter jejuni.
- E.
Helicobacter pylori.
- 152.Helicobacter pylori causes
- A.
Gastritis.
- B.
Duodenal ulcers.
- C.
Stomach ulcers.
- D.
Increased risk for stomach cancer.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 153.All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except
- A.
It is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.
- B.
It causes fever and a water to bloody diarrhea.
- C.
It infects the stomach.
- D.
It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.
- E.
It has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.
- 154.Chlamydia trachomatis causes
- A.
Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.
- B.
Cervicitis in females.
- C.
Congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.
- D.
Ocular trachoma.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 155.Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
- A.
Has birds as a reservoir
- B.
Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia
- C.
Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache
- D.
After 2 to 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache
- E.
Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall
- 156.Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
- A.
Develop a biofilm.
- B.
Use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
- C.
Include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
- D.
Lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 157.Gingivitis is
- A.
Primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.
- B.
Erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion.
- C.
Caused by Streptococcus mutans.
- D.
Also called NUG.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 158.All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except
- A.
Fluoride.
- B.
Lysozyme in saliva.
- C.
Antibodies in saliva.
- D.
Refined sugar.
- E.
Genetics.
- 159.The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
- A.
Fungal virulence.
- B.
Parasitism.
- C.
Dimorphism.
- D.
Dermatophytes.
- E.
Opportunistic fungi.
- 160.The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
- A.
Urinary and reproductive.
- B.
Digestive and respiratory.
- C.
Blood and wounds.
- D.
Respiratory and cutaneous.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 161.Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all
- A.
Mycotoxins.
- B.
Fungal enzymes.
- C.
Antifungal drugs.
- D.
Culture media supplements for fungi.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 162.The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the
- A.
Southeast.
- B.
Southwest.
- C.
East and Midwest.
- D.
Northeast.
- E.
Rocky Mountains.
- 163.All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except
- A.
The pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.
- B.
It has highest incidence in the southwestern United States.
- C.
It is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores.
- D.
It often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise.
- E.
It is also called Valley Fever.
- 164.Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?
- A.
Is dimorphic
- B.
Lives in the soil
- C.
Often transmited by soil-contaminated thorns
- D.
Causes superficial cutaneous infection
- E.
Causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels
- 165.Mycetoma is
- A.
A subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.
- B.
Also called athlete's foot.
- C.
Caused by dermatophytes.
- D.
Only seen in the Midwest.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 166.Dermatophytoses are
- A.
Fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.
- B.
Also called ringworm.
- C.
Also called tineas.
- D.
Often time-consuming to eradicate completely.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 167.Which is mismatched?
- A.
Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
- B.
Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
- C.
Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin
- D.
Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body
- E.
Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
- 168.Transmission of tineas include
- A.
Human to human
- B.
Animal to human
- C.
Soil to human
- D.
Fomites to human
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 169.Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except
- A.
Commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia
- B.
A capsulated yeast
- C.
In high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings
- D.
Usually enters body by inhalation
- E.
Primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes
- 170.Cryptococcosis can include
- A.
Pulmonary infection.
- B.
Septicemia.
- C.
Meningitis.
- D.
Bone infection.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 171.Oral thrush is caused by
- A.
Cryptococcus neoformans.
- B.
Candida albicans.
- C.
Malassezia furfur.
- D.
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 172.Aspergillosis includes all the following except
- A.
There are no effective drugs to treat the infection.
- B.
Noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals.
- C.
A pneumonia that disseminates to the brain.
- D.
Most cases are due to A. fumigatus.
- E.
Life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.
- 173.Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows growth and transmission of
- A.
Cryptococcus.
- B.
Aspergillus.
- C.
Candida.
- D.
Dermatophytes.
- E.
Pneumocytis.
- 174.This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
- A.
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
- B.
Fusarium species
- C.
Rhizopus species
- D.
Geotrichum candidum
- E.
Aspergillus flavis
- 175.Menthol and camphor (Vicks™) are effective treatments against
- A.
Chromoblastomycosis.
- B.
Ringworm.
- C.
Histoplasmosis.
- D.
Tinea versicolor.
- E.
Blastomycosis.
- 176.All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections except
- A.
Between folds of the groin.
- B.
Under breasts.
- C.
In the armpit.
- D.
Behind the knees.
- E.
Chest.
- 177.All of the following pertain to monkeypox except
- A.
Symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
- B.
Outbreaks have occurred in Africa.
- C.
Transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats.
- D.
A recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.
- E.
The virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.
- 178.All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except
- A.
It causes gingivostomatitis.
- B.
It causes cold sores and herpes keratitis.
- C.
It is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia.
- D.
It is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions.
- E.
It causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.
- 179.Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
- A.
Genital lesions.
- B.
Intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
- C.
Symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
- D.
Infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 180.Chickenpox
- A.
Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.
- B.
Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.
- C.
Has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
- D.
Has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 181.Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the
- A.
Nasal mucosa.
- B.
Finger.
- C.
Oral mucosa and tongue.
- D.
Eye.
- E.
Newborn.
- 182.Varicella-zoster virus
- A.
Uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
- B.
Becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
- C.
Has humans as its reservoir.
- D.
Causes chickenpox and shingles.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 183.Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
- A.
Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa.
- B.
Fever, and pocks on skin.
- C.
Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
- D.
Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
- 184.Cytomegalovirus
- A.
Is among the most common of human infections.
- B.
Is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions.
- C.
Can be sexually transmitted.
- D.
Is commonly carried in the latent state.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 185.The hepadnaviruses
- A.
Include the adenoviruses.
- B.
Show tropism for the liver.
- C.
Are transmitted by respiratory secretions.
- D.
Are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 186.Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called
- A.
Hepatitis.
- B.
Jaundice.
- C.
Liver cancer.
- D.
Mononucleosis.
- E.
None of the choices are correct
- 187.Adenoviruses are
- A.
Nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses.
- B.
Transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions.
- C.
Causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children.
- D.
Causes of outbreaks among military recruits.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 188.Which is incorrect about warts?
- A.
Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
- B.
Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
- C.
Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet
- D.
Are frequently cancerous
- E.
Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
- 189.Polyomaviruses
- A.
Cause common asymptomatic to mild infections.
- B.
Cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.
- C.
Cause problems in renal transplant patients.
- D.
Include the JC virus and BK virus.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 190.Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses?
- A.
Cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals
- B.
Are extremely small in diameter
- C.
It is not transmissible to the fetus
- D.
It causes a disease known as fifth disease
- E.
Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum
- 191.Fifth disease
- A.
Is caused by Parvovirus B19.
- B.
Is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.
- C.
Involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.
- D.
In immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 192.Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?
- A.
Recombinant interferon
- B.
Heptavax vaccine
- C.
Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)
- D.
Recombivax vaccine
- E.
All of the choices may be recommended.
- 193.The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
- A.
Catalase.
- B.
Reverse transcriptase.
- C.
Hyaluronidase.
- D.
Neuraminidase.
- E.
Kinase.
- 194.Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except
- A.
Influenza.
- B.
Rubella.
- C.
Dengue fever.
- D.
Mumps.
- E.
SARS.
- 195.Reye's syndrome involves
- A.
Aspirin use.
- B.
A febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox.
- C.
Fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney.
- D.
Children, adolescents, and young adults.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 196.Influenza vaccines include all the following except
- A.
Inactivated intramuscular vaccine.
- B.
Usually incorporates three different strains.
- C.
Attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.
- D.
Provides lifelong immunity.
- E.
Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.
- 197.Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except
- A.
Reservoir is human carriers
- B.
Is a zoonosis
- C.
Symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension
- D.
Transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
- E.
First U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest
- 198.Parainfluenza virus
- A.
Usually infects the elderly.
- B.
Is in the Orthomyxovirus family.
- C.
Causes influenza.
- D.
Causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 199.Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of
- A.
Croup.
- B.
Mumps.
- C.
Influenza.
- D.
Measles (rubeola).
- E.
Rubella.
- 200.Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
- A.
Croup.
- B.
Mumps.
- C.
Influenza.
- D.
Measles (rubeola).
- E.
Rubella.
- 201.This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:
- A.
Croup
- B.
Mumps
- C.
Influenza
- D.
Measles (rubeola)
- E.
Rubella
- 202.This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
- A.
Croup
- B.
Mumps
- C.
Influenza
- D.
Measles (rubeola)
- E.
Rubella
- 203.Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)
- A.
Causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
- B.
Uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
- C.
Can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.
- D.
Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 204.Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
- A.
Debridement.
- B.
Wash bite with soap or detergent.
- C.
Wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).
- D.
Postexposure vaccination with HDCV.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 205.Coronaviruses cause
- A.
Fever, rash, nasal discharge.
- B.
Meningitis.
- C.
Measles.
- D.
Croup.
- E.
Common cold and SARS.
- 206.Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
- A.
Can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.
- B.
Began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China.
- C.
Is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.
- D.
Is not highly transmissible.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 207.Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
- A.
Glycoprotein spikes.
- B.
DNA genome.
- C.
Envelope.
- D.
Reverse transcriptase.
- E.
Viral genes integrate into the host genome.
- 208.All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
- A.
Have an immunodeficiency
- B.
Have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood
- C.
Get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections
- D.
Can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
- E.
Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
- 209.Documented transmission of HIV involves
- A.
Mosquitoes.
- B.
Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
- C.
Respiratory droplets.
- D.
Contaminated food.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
- 210.Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
- A.
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B.
Protease inhibitors
- C.
Fusion inhibitors
- D.
Integrase inhibitors
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
Back to top
