Microbiology Exam Practice Questions!

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  • 1/192 Questions

    The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except

    • Redness.
    • Warmth.
    • Swelling.
    • Pain.
    • Chills.
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About This Quiz

It’s time for your final review, folks! Your studies have led you to this moment, and it’s time to finally put your recently acquired knowledge on the study of microscopic organisms like bacteria and viruses to good use. Think you know enough about the topic of microbiology to pass this final hurdle? All you have to do is answer the questions to find out! Good luck!

Microbiology Exam Practice Questions! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

    • Low toxicity for human tissues

    • High toxicity against microbial cells

    • Do not cause serious side effects in humans

    • Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids

    • All of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because all of the listed characteristics are important for antimicrobial drugs. Low toxicity for human tissues is important to ensure that the drug does not harm the patient while treating the infection. High toxicity against microbial cells is important to effectively eliminate the microorganisms causing the infection. Not causing serious side effects in humans is important for the overall well-being of the patient. Finally, being stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids is important for the drug to be effectively distributed and exert its antimicrobial effects. Therefore, all of these characteristics are important for antimicrobial drugs.

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  • 3. 

    Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes

    • Genital lesions.

    • Intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.

    • Symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.

    • Infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    All of the choices are correct. Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) can cause genital lesions, which are sores or blisters on or near the genitals. It can also cause intensely sensitive vesicles, which are small fluid-filled sacs, on or near the genitals. The symptoms of HSV-2 infection can include urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra, cervicitis, which is inflammation of the cervix, and itching. Additionally, if a neonate comes into contact with HSV-2 lesions in the birth canal during delivery, they can become infected. Therefore, all of the given choices provide accurate information about the effects of HSV-2.

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  • 4. 

    The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is

    • Pathology

    • Clinical microbiology

    • Medicine

    • Immunology

    • Epidemiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidemiology
    Explanation
    Epidemiology is the study of the frequency and distribution of diseases in a defined population. It focuses on understanding the patterns and causes of diseases, as well as developing strategies for prevention and control. This field involves collecting and analyzing data to identify risk factors, determine the impact of diseases on different populations, and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions. Epidemiologists play a crucial role in public health by helping to inform policies and practices aimed at improving the health of communities.

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  • 5. 

    Plasma

    • Is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.

    • Is mostly water.

    • Contains albumin and globulins.

    • Contains fibrinogen.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Plasma is indeed the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. It is mostly water and contains albumin and globulins. Additionally, plasma also contains fibrinogen. Thus, all the given statements accurately describe the composition and characteristics of plasma.

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  • 6. 

    These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:

    • Lymph nodes

    • Thymus

    • Spleen

    • GALT

    • Tonsils

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymph nodes
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are found along the lymphatic vessels. They act as filters for the lymphatic system, trapping and destroying harmful substances such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes are heavily clustered in certain areas of the body, including the armpit, groin, and neck. This clustering allows them to effectively monitor and respond to infections or diseases in these regions. Therefore, lymph nodes are the correct answer to the question.

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  • 7. 

    Cholera symptoms are

    • Copious watery diarrhea.

    • Loss of blood volume.

    • Acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst.

    • Hypotension, tachycardia, shock.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the listed symptoms - copious watery diarrhea, loss of blood volume, acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst, hypotension, tachycardia, shock - can be seen in patients with cholera. Cholera is a bacterial infection that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration, leading to a loss of blood volume. The body's response to this dehydration includes acidosis, sunken eyes, and increased thirst. In severe cases, cholera can also cause low blood pressure (hypotension), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and even shock. Therefore, all of the symptoms listed are correct for cholera.

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  • 8. 

    Chickenpox

    • Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.

    • Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.

    • Has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.

    • Has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    All of the choices are correct because chickenpox can be transmitted through inhalation of respiratory secretions, contact with skin lesions, airborne spread of lesion material, and it has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days. Additionally, chickenpox is characterized by fever and a vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.

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  • 9. 

    Documented transmission of HIV involves

    • Mosquitoes.

    • Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.

    • Respiratory droplets.

    • Contaminated food.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. This is because HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, especially when there is no use of barrier methods like condoms. It can also be transmitted through contact with infected blood or blood products, such as through sharing needles or receiving contaminated blood transfusions. Mosquitoes, respiratory droplets, and contaminated food are not documented modes of transmission for HIV.

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  • 10. 

    Nonspecific chemical defenses include

    • Lysozyme.

    • Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.

    • Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.

    • Stomach hydrochloric acid.

    • All of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct
    Explanation
    All of the choices are correct because they all represent nonspecific chemical defenses in the body. Lysozyme is an enzyme that can break down the cell walls of certain bacteria, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat create an acidic environment on the skin that inhibits the growth of bacteria, the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids also help to prevent the growth of harmful bacteria, and stomach hydrochloric acid helps to kill ingested pathogens. Therefore, all of these choices contribute to the body's nonspecific chemical defenses.

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  • 11. 

    Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include

    • Otitis media.

    • Meningitis.

    • Lobar pneumonia.

    • Bronchial pneumonia.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause various diseases, including otitis media, meningitis, lobar pneumonia, and bronchial pneumonia. These diseases can affect different parts of the body, such as the middle ear, meninges, and lungs. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct as they represent diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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  • 12. 

    Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

    • Antibiotics

    • Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • Semisynthetic drugs

    • Synthetic drugs

    • Broad-spectrum drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Broad-spectrum drugs
    Explanation
    Broad-spectrum drugs are antimicrobics that are effective against a wide variety of microbial types. This means that they can target and kill a broad range of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microorganisms. Unlike narrow-spectrum drugs, which are only effective against specific types of microorganisms, broad-spectrum drugs have a wider range of activity. This makes them useful in treating infections when the specific type of microorganism causing the infection is unknown or when multiple types of microorganisms are involved.

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  • 13. 

    The enzyme that coagulates plasma is

    • Catalase.

    • Coagulase.

    • Hyaluronidase.

    • Staphylokinase.

    • Dnase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulase.
    Explanation
    Coagulase is an enzyme that causes the coagulation or clotting of plasma. It is produced by certain bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus, and plays a crucial role in the formation of protective fibrin barriers around bacterial infections. This coagulation process helps the bacteria to evade the immune system and establish a localized infection. Therefore, coagulase is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the enzyme responsible for plasma coagulation.

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  • 14. 

    Tuberculin skin testing

    • Injects PPD intradermally.

    • Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    • Will be positive if person has had previous exposure.

    • Will be positive in active TB.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are true. Tuberculin skin testing does inject PPD intradermally, it does use a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, it will be positive if a person has had previous exposure, and it will be positive in active TB.

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  • 15. 

    Escherichia coli infections

    • Are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.

    • Include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.

    • Involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.

    • Can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all the statements mentioned in the question are true. Escherichia coli infections can indeed be transmitted through fecal contaminated water and food, can include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains, can involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea, and can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.

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  • 16. 

    Salmonelloses are

    • Not caused by Salmonella typhi.

    • Associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.

    • Gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.

    • Enteric fevers that often include septicemia.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This is because salmonelloses can be caused by various strains of the Salmonella bacteria, not just Salmonella typhi. They are indeed associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, as well as reptile and rodent feces. Symptoms of salmonelloses include gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea, and in some cases, it can lead to enteric fevers that include septicemia. Therefore, all the given choices accurately describe salmonelloses.

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  • 17. 

    Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all

    • Mycotoxins.

    • Fungal enzymes.

    • Antifungal drugs.

    • Culture media supplements for fungi.

    • None of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antifungal drugs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is antifungal drugs. Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all commonly used medications that are effective in treating fungal infections. They work by targeting the fungal cell membrane or inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall. These drugs are specifically designed to combat fungal infections and are not mycotoxins, fungal enzymes, or culture media supplements for fungi.

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  • 18. 

    Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes

    • Debridement.

    • Wash bite with soap or detergent.

    • Wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).

    • Postexposure vaccination with HDCV.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    All of the choices provided in the question are correct for the treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies. Debridement is the process of removing any foreign material or dead tissue from the wound to prevent infection. Washing the bite with soap or detergent helps to clean the wound and reduce the risk of infection. Infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) helps to neutralize the rabies virus. Postexposure vaccination with HDCV (human diploid cell vaccine) is also necessary to stimulate the body's immune response against the rabies virus. Therefore, all of these choices are correct for the treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies.

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  • 19. 

    Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

    • Antibiotics

    • Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • Semisynthetic drugs

    • Synthetic drugs

    • Broad-spectrum drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibiotics
    Explanation
    Antibiotics are substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms and have the ability to inhibit or destroy other microorganisms. They are specifically designed to target and kill bacteria, fungi, or parasites. Antibiotics play a crucial role in treating bacterial infections and have been a significant advancement in medical science. They are different from other drugs such as narrow-spectrum drugs, semisynthetic drugs, and synthetic drugs, which may have different mechanisms of action or target a broader range of microorganisms.

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  • 20. 

    The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

    • Bacterial chromosomal mutations

    • Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure

    • Prevention of drug entry into the cell

    • Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets

    • All of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct
    Explanation
    The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics includes several mechanisms. Bacterial chromosomal mutations can lead to changes in the bacteria's genetic material, allowing them to develop resistance to antimicrobics. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure can also occur, rendering the antimicrobics ineffective. Prevention of drug entry into the cell is another mechanism, where the bacteria can develop barriers to block the entry of antimicrobics. Lastly, alteration of drug receptors on cell targets can occur, making the antimicrobics unable to bind and exert their effects. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct explanations for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics.

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  • 21. 

    Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

    • Fomite

    • Carrier

    • Vector

    • Reservoir

    • Source

    Correct Answer
    A. Carrier
    Explanation
    A carrier is someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others. They may not show any symptoms of the disease themselves but can still transmit it to others. Carriers play a significant role in the spread of infectious diseases as they can unknowingly infect a large number of people.

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  • 22. 

    The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is

    • Lactic acid.

    • Hydrochloric acid.

    • Lysozyme.

    • Histamine.

    • Bile.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysozyme.
    Explanation
    Lysozyme is an enzyme found in tears and saliva that breaks down the peptidoglycan layer in certain bacterial cell walls. This process is known as hydrolysis. Lactic acid, hydrochloric acid, histamine, and bile are not involved in this specific function of breaking down bacterial cell walls. Therefore, the correct answer is lysozyme.

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  • 23. 

    The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the

    • Skin.

    • Respiratory tract.

    • Digestive tract.

    • Urinary tract.

    • Eyes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory tract.
    Explanation
    The ciliary escalator is a mechanism in the respiratory tract that helps to move mucus and trapped microbes away from the lungs. Cilia, tiny hair-like structures, line the respiratory tract and beat in coordinated motions to create a wave-like movement. This movement helps to propel the mucus and any trapped particles, including microbes, out of the respiratory tract and prevent them from reaching the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is the respiratory tract.

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  • 24. 

    Helicobacter pylori causes

    • Gastritis.

    • Duodenal ulcers.

    • Stomach ulcers.

    • Increased risk for stomach cancer.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that can cause various gastrointestinal conditions, including gastritis, duodenal ulcers, stomach ulcers, and an increased risk for stomach cancer. This bacterium is known to be a major contributor to the development of these conditions, and its presence can be detected through various diagnostic tests. Therefore, all of the listed choices are valid outcomes of a Helicobacter pylori infection.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?

    • Recombinant interferon

    • Heptavax vaccine

    • Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)

    • Recombivax vaccine

    • All of the choices may be recommended.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices may be recommended.
    Explanation
    All of the choices may be recommended as ways to control or treat hepatitis B. Recombinant interferon, Heptavax vaccine, hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), and Recombivax vaccine are all commonly used treatments for hepatitis B. The choice of treatment depends on various factors such as the severity of the infection, the patient's overall health, and the specific recommendations of the healthcare provider.

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  • 26. 

    Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

    • Inflammatory response

    • Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils

    • Interferon

    • T cell and B cell responses

    • Anatomical barriers in the body

    Correct Answer
    A. T cell and B cell responses
    Explanation
    T cell and B cell responses are associated with specificity and memory in the body's defense mechanism. T cells and B cells are components of the adaptive immune system, which is responsible for recognizing and targeting specific pathogens. These cells have the ability to remember specific pathogens they have encountered before, allowing for a quicker and more effective response upon subsequent exposure. This specificity and memory are crucial in mounting an effective immune response against pathogens.

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  • 27. 

    Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means

    • Redness.

    • Pain.

    • Loss of function.

    • Warmth.

    • Swelling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Redness.
    Explanation
    The fact that Maria's arm is experiencing rubor, which is a Latin term for redness, indicates that the correct answer is indeed redness. Rubor is one of the classic signs of inflammation, and it commonly occurs when there is an injury or irritation to the skin. In this case, the scratch from the cat has caused redness at the site of the injury.

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  • 28. 

    This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:

    • Staphylococcus aureus

    • Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • Streptococcus pyogenes

    • Streptococcus agalactiae

    Correct Answer
    A. Staphylococcus aureus
    Explanation
    Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer because it is known to have drug resistant strains called MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). MRSA infections are difficult to treat as they are resistant to many commonly used antibiotics, making it a significant public health concern. Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Streptococcus agalactiae are not typically associated with drug resistant strains like MRSA.

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  • 29. 

    Salmonella typhi

    • Multiplies within phagocytes.

    • Is not a coliform.

    • Can be treated with antimicrobics.

    • Causes invasive infection of the small intestine.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. This means that Salmonella typhi is a bacterium that multiplies within phagocytes, it is not a coliform, it can be treated with antimicrobics, and it causes invasive infection of the small intestine.

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  • 30. 

    The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is

    • Water and electrolyte replacement.

    • Antimicrobics.

    • Antitoxin.

    • Surgery.

    • None of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Water and electrolyte replacement.
    Explanation
    The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is water and electrolyte replacement. Cholera is a severe diarrheal disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which leads to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Replacing lost fluids and electrolytes is crucial to restore the body's balance and prevent further complications or death. Antimicrobics may be used in some cases to reduce the duration and severity of symptoms, but they are not the primary treatment. Antitoxin and surgery are not appropriate treatments for Cholera.

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  • 31. 

    Chlamydia trachomatis causes

    • Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.

    • Cervicitis in females.

    • Congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.

    • Ocular trachoma.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause various infections. In males, it can cause nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), which is inflammation of the urethra. In females, it can cause cervicitis, which is inflammation of the cervix. Chlamydia trachomatis can also cause conjunctivitis, both congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis, which is an infection of the eye. Additionally, it can cause ocular trachoma, which is a chronic inflammatory condition of the eye. Therefore, all of the choices listed in the question are correct.

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  • 32. 

    The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora

    • Before birth, in utero

    • During, and immediately after birth

    • When a child first goes to school

    • When an infant gets its first infectious disease

    • During puberty

    Correct Answer
    A. During, and immediately after birth
    Explanation
    During and immediately after birth, the human body begins to be colonized by its normal flora. This is because during the birthing process, the baby comes into contact with the mother's vaginal and fecal flora, which establishes the initial colonization. Additionally, after birth, the baby is exposed to various microorganisms in the environment, such as those present on the skin, in the air, and in breast milk. These microorganisms further contribute to the colonization of the body by the normal flora.

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  • 33. 

    The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed

    • Syndrome

    • Symptom

    • Sign

    • Pathology

    • Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. Symptom
    Explanation
    A symptom refers to the subjective evidence of a disease that is sensed by the patient. It is something that the patient experiences and reports, such as pain, fatigue, or nausea. Unlike signs, which are objective and can be observed by others, symptoms are unique to the individual experiencing them. Therefore, the correct answer is symptom.

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  • 34. 

    A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates

    • A past case of the disease.

    • A current infection.

    • Nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum.

    • All of the choices are possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. A current infection.
    Explanation
    A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates a current infection. Antibody titers are measurements of the concentration of antibodies in the blood, and a rising titer suggests an active immune response to an ongoing infection. This indicates that the person is currently infected with the disease rather than having a past case or simply having antibodies in their serum. Therefore, the correct answer is a current infection.

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  • 35. 

    Legionella pneumophila

    • Requires special lab growth media.

    • Often lives in close associations with amebas.

    • Causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.

    • Causes a severe pneumonia.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Legionella pneumophila requires special lab growth media, often lives in close associations with amebas, causes fever, cough, and diarrhea, and also causes a severe pneumonia.

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  • 36. 

    Transmission of tineas include

    • Human to human

    • Animal to human

    • Soil to human

    • Fomites to human

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The transmission of tineas can occur through various means, including human to human, animal to human, soil to human, and fomites to human. This means that all of the choices provided are correct in terms of how tineas can be transmitted.

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  • 37. 

    Cryptococcosis can include

    • Pulmonary infection.

    • Septicemia.

    • Meningitis.

    • Bone infection.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    Cryptococcosis is a fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans or Cryptococcus gattii. It can affect various parts of the body, including the lungs (pulmonary infection), bloodstream (septicemia), meninges (meningitis), and even bones (bone infection). Therefore, all of the choices provided in the question are correct as they represent different manifestations of cryptococcosis.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections except

    • Between folds of the groin.

    • Under breasts.

    • In the armpit.

    • Behind the knees.

    • Chest.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chest.
    Explanation
    Inertriginous infections occur in areas where there is skin-to-skin contact and moisture accumulation. The groin, under breasts, in the armpit, and behind the knees are all areas where there are skin folds and increased friction, creating an ideal environment for these infections to develop. However, the chest does not typically have as many skin folds or moisture accumulation, making it less prone to inertriginous infections. Therefore, the chest is the exception among the given options.

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  • 39. 

    Varicella-zoster virus

    • Uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.

    • Becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.

    • Has humans as its reservoir.

    • Causes chickenpox and shingles.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The given statement "All of the choices are correct" is the correct answer because all of the statements mentioned about Varicella-zoster virus are true. The virus uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry, becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes, has humans as its reservoir, and causes chickenpox and shingles.

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  • 40. 

    Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)

    • Causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.

    • Uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.

    • Can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.

    • Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all the statements provided in the question are true. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is indeed a cause of serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger. It does use the nasopharynx as its main replication site. RSV can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin. Additionally, Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin are helpful in reducing complications and hospitalization associated with RSV infection. Therefore, all the choices provided are correct.

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  • 41. 

    An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

    • Fomite

    • Carrier

    • Vector

    • Reservoir

    • Source

    Correct Answer
    A. Vector
    Explanation
    A vector is an animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another. Unlike a carrier, which may harbor the pathogen without transmitting it, a vector actively transfers the pathogen. A fomite refers to an inanimate object that can carry and transmit the pathogen. A reservoir is a host that carries the pathogen without showing symptoms, while a source is the origin of the pathogen.

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  • 42. 

    If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

    • Neisseria gonorrhea

    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • They are equally virulent

    • It is impossible to determine

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is more virulent because it has a lower infectious dose (ID) of 10 cells compared to Neisseria gonorrhea's ID of 1,000 cells. A lower ID indicates that fewer cells of the organism are required to cause infection, making it more virulent.

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  • 43. 

    Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means

    • Redness.

    • Pain.

    • Loss of function.

    • Warmth.

    • Swelling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain.
    Explanation
    Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and is now experiencing dolor. Dolor is a Latin word that means pain. Therefore, Joe is experiencing pain as a result of cutting his finger on the sharp twig.

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  • 44. 

    The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine

    • Can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests.

    • Emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation.

    • Are observed in the fluorescent microscope.

    • Are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The statement "All of the choices are correct" is the correct answer because all of the given statements about the dyes fluorescein and rhodamine are true. These dyes can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests, they emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation, they are observed in the fluorescent microscope, and they are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct.

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  • 45. 

    Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum

    • Has humans as the reservoir.

    • Can cross the placenta.

    • Has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.

    • Is transmitted by direct sexual contact.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are true for Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum. It can be found in humans as a reservoir, it is capable of crossing the placenta, it has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium, and it is transmitted through direct sexual contact.

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  • 46. 

    The causative agent of Lyme disease is

    • Ixodes scapularis.

    • Borrelia hermsii.

    • Borrelia burgdorferi.

    • Ixodes pacificus.

    • Leptospira interrogans.

    Correct Answer
    A. Borrelia burgdorferi.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Borrelia burgdorferi. Lyme disease is caused by this bacterium, which is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks (Ixodes scapularis in the eastern United States and Ixodes pacificus in the western United States). Leptospira interrogans is the causative agent for leptospirosis, while Borrelia hermsii is responsible for relapsing fever. Therefore, Borrelia burgdorferi is the correct answer for the causative agent of Lyme disease.

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  • 47. 

    Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface

    • Develop a biofilm.

    • Use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.

    • Include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.

    • Lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.

    • All of the choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the choices are correct.
    Explanation
    The given statement mentions different characteristics and behaviors of oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface. It states that these bacteria develop a biofilm, use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere, include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque, and lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. The answer "All of the choices are correct" indicates that all of these statements are true and contribute to the understanding of oral flora bacteria and their role in oral health and disease.

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  • 48. 

    All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:

    • Have an immunodeficiency

    • Have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood

    • Get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections

    • Can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders

    • Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

    Correct Answer
    A. Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
    Explanation
    Patients with AIDS can have an immunodeficiency, CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood, get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections, and can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. However, the statement that the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States is incorrect. This suggests that there are other countries with a higher number of AIDS cases compared to the United States.

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  • 49. 

    The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the

    • Prodromal stage

    • Convalescent stage

    • Incubation period

    • Period of invasion

    • All of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation period
    Explanation
    The incubation period refers to the time between when a pathogen enters the body and starts multiplying, until the first symptoms of the infection appear. During this stage, the pathogen is replicating and spreading throughout the body, but the individual may not experience any noticeable symptoms. It is an important period as it allows the pathogen to establish itself and reach a sufficient level of infection before symptoms arise. This period can vary depending on the specific pathogen and the individual's immune response.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 16, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Nov 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 07, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tgerdel

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