Microbiology Exam Practice Questions!

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1. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except

Explanation

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation are redness, warmth, swelling, and pain. These symptoms are typically caused by increased blood flow and immune response to an injury or infection. Chills, on the other hand, are not typically associated with inflammation. Chills are more commonly associated with fever or a systemic infection. Therefore, chills do not fit into the category of classic signs and symptoms of inflammation.

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About This Quiz
Microbiology Exam Practice Questions! - Quiz

It’s time for your final review, folks! Your studies have led you to this moment, and it’s time to finally put your recently acquired knowledge on the study of microscopic organisms like bacteria and viruses to good use. Think you know enough about the topic of microbiology to pass this... see morefinal hurdle? All you have to do is answer the questions to find out! Good luck!
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2. Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes

Explanation

All of the choices are correct. Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) can cause genital lesions, which are sores or blisters on or near the genitals. It can also cause intensely sensitive vesicles, which are small fluid-filled sacs, on or near the genitals. The symptoms of HSV-2 infection can include urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra, cervicitis, which is inflammation of the cervix, and itching. Additionally, if a neonate comes into contact with HSV-2 lesions in the birth canal during delivery, they can become infected. Therefore, all of the given choices provide accurate information about the effects of HSV-2.

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3. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

Explanation

This answer is correct because all of the listed characteristics are important for antimicrobial drugs. Low toxicity for human tissues is important to ensure that the drug does not harm the patient while treating the infection. High toxicity against microbial cells is important to effectively eliminate the microorganisms causing the infection. Not causing serious side effects in humans is important for the overall well-being of the patient. Finally, being stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids is important for the drug to be effectively distributed and exert its antimicrobial effects. Therefore, all of these characteristics are important for antimicrobial drugs.

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4. The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is

Explanation

Epidemiology is the study of the frequency and distribution of diseases in a defined population. It focuses on understanding the patterns and causes of diseases, as well as developing strategies for prevention and control. This field involves collecting and analyzing data to identify risk factors, determine the impact of diseases on different populations, and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions. Epidemiologists play a crucial role in public health by helping to inform policies and practices aimed at improving the health of communities.

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5. Plasma

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Plasma is indeed the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. It is mostly water and contains albumin and globulins. Additionally, plasma also contains fibrinogen. Thus, all the given statements accurately describe the composition and characteristics of plasma.

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6. Chickenpox

Explanation

All of the choices are correct because chickenpox can be transmitted through inhalation of respiratory secretions, contact with skin lesions, airborne spread of lesion material, and it has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days. Additionally, chickenpox is characterized by fever and a vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.

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7. These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:

Explanation

Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that are found along the lymphatic vessels. They act as filters for the lymphatic system, trapping and destroying harmful substances such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes are heavily clustered in certain areas of the body, including the armpit, groin, and neck. This clustering allows them to effectively monitor and respond to infections or diseases in these regions. Therefore, lymph nodes are the correct answer to the question.

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8. Cholera symptoms are

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the listed symptoms - copious watery diarrhea, loss of blood volume, acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst, hypotension, tachycardia, shock - can be seen in patients with cholera. Cholera is a bacterial infection that causes severe diarrhea and dehydration, leading to a loss of blood volume. The body's response to this dehydration includes acidosis, sunken eyes, and increased thirst. In severe cases, cholera can also cause low blood pressure (hypotension), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and even shock. Therefore, all of the symptoms listed are correct for cholera.

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9. Documented transmission of HIV involves

Explanation

The correct answer is unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. This is because HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, especially when there is no use of barrier methods like condoms. It can also be transmitted through contact with infected blood or blood products, such as through sharing needles or receiving contaminated blood transfusions. Mosquitoes, respiratory droplets, and contaminated food are not documented modes of transmission for HIV.

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10. Nonspecific chemical defenses include

Explanation

All of the choices are correct because they all represent nonspecific chemical defenses in the body. Lysozyme is an enzyme that can break down the cell walls of certain bacteria, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat create an acidic environment on the skin that inhibits the growth of bacteria, the skin's acidic pH and fatty acids also help to prevent the growth of harmful bacteria, and stomach hydrochloric acid helps to kill ingested pathogens. Therefore, all of these choices contribute to the body's nonspecific chemical defenses.

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11. Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include

Explanation

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause various diseases, including otitis media, meningitis, lobar pneumonia, and bronchial pneumonia. These diseases can affect different parts of the body, such as the middle ear, meninges, and lungs. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct as they represent diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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12. Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes

Explanation

All of the choices provided in the question are correct for the treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies. Debridement is the process of removing any foreign material or dead tissue from the wound to prevent infection. Washing the bite with soap or detergent helps to clean the wound and reduce the risk of infection. Infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) helps to neutralize the rabies virus. Postexposure vaccination with HDCV (human diploid cell vaccine) is also necessary to stimulate the body's immune response against the rabies virus. Therefore, all of these choices are correct for the treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies.

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13. Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

Explanation

Broad-spectrum drugs are antimicrobics that are effective against a wide variety of microbial types. This means that they can target and kill a broad range of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other microorganisms. Unlike narrow-spectrum drugs, which are only effective against specific types of microorganisms, broad-spectrum drugs have a wider range of activity. This makes them useful in treating infections when the specific type of microorganism causing the infection is unknown or when multiple types of microorganisms are involved.

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14. The enzyme that coagulates plasma is

Explanation

Coagulase is an enzyme that causes the coagulation or clotting of plasma. It is produced by certain bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus, and plays a crucial role in the formation of protective fibrin barriers around bacterial infections. This coagulation process helps the bacteria to evade the immune system and establish a localized infection. Therefore, coagulase is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the enzyme responsible for plasma coagulation.

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15. Tuberculin skin testing

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are true. Tuberculin skin testing does inject PPD intradermally, it does use a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, it will be positive if a person has had previous exposure, and it will be positive in active TB.

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16. Escherichia coli infections

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all the statements mentioned in the question are true. Escherichia coli infections can indeed be transmitted through fecal contaminated water and food, can include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains, can involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea, and can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.

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17. Salmonelloses are

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This is because salmonelloses can be caused by various strains of the Salmonella bacteria, not just Salmonella typhi. They are indeed associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, as well as reptile and rodent feces. Symptoms of salmonelloses include gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea, and in some cases, it can lead to enteric fevers that include septicemia. Therefore, all the given choices accurately describe salmonelloses.

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18. Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all

Explanation

The correct answer is antifungal drugs. Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all commonly used medications that are effective in treating fungal infections. They work by targeting the fungal cell membrane or inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of the fungal cell wall. These drugs are specifically designed to combat fungal infections and are not mycotoxins, fungal enzymes, or culture media supplements for fungi.

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19. Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?

Explanation

All of the choices may be recommended as ways to control or treat hepatitis B. Recombinant interferon, Heptavax vaccine, hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), and Recombivax vaccine are all commonly used treatments for hepatitis B. The choice of treatment depends on various factors such as the severity of the infection, the patient's overall health, and the specific recommendations of the healthcare provider.

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20. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

Explanation

Antibiotics are substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms and have the ability to inhibit or destroy other microorganisms. They are specifically designed to target and kill bacteria, fungi, or parasites. Antibiotics play a crucial role in treating bacterial infections and have been a significant advancement in medical science. They are different from other drugs such as narrow-spectrum drugs, semisynthetic drugs, and synthetic drugs, which may have different mechanisms of action or target a broader range of microorganisms.

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21. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

Explanation

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics includes several mechanisms. Bacterial chromosomal mutations can lead to changes in the bacteria's genetic material, allowing them to develop resistance to antimicrobics. Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure can also occur, rendering the antimicrobics ineffective. Prevention of drug entry into the cell is another mechanism, where the bacteria can develop barriers to block the entry of antimicrobics. Lastly, alteration of drug receptors on cell targets can occur, making the antimicrobics unable to bind and exert their effects. Therefore, all of the choices mentioned in the question are correct explanations for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics.

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22. Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

Explanation

A carrier is someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others. They may not show any symptoms of the disease themselves but can still transmit it to others. Carriers play a significant role in the spread of infectious diseases as they can unknowingly infect a large number of people.

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23. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is

Explanation

Lysozyme is an enzyme found in tears and saliva that breaks down the peptidoglycan layer in certain bacterial cell walls. This process is known as hydrolysis. Lactic acid, hydrochloric acid, histamine, and bile are not involved in this specific function of breaking down bacterial cell walls. Therefore, the correct answer is lysozyme.

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24. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the

Explanation

The ciliary escalator is a mechanism in the respiratory tract that helps to move mucus and trapped microbes away from the lungs. Cilia, tiny hair-like structures, line the respiratory tract and beat in coordinated motions to create a wave-like movement. This movement helps to propel the mucus and any trapped particles, including microbes, out of the respiratory tract and prevent them from reaching the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is the respiratory tract.

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25. Helicobacter pylori causes

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium that can cause various gastrointestinal conditions, including gastritis, duodenal ulcers, stomach ulcers, and an increased risk for stomach cancer. This bacterium is known to be a major contributor to the development of these conditions, and its presence can be detected through various diagnostic tests. Therefore, all of the listed choices are valid outcomes of a Helicobacter pylori infection.

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26. Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

Explanation

T cell and B cell responses are associated with specificity and memory in the body's defense mechanism. T cells and B cells are components of the adaptive immune system, which is responsible for recognizing and targeting specific pathogens. These cells have the ability to remember specific pathogens they have encountered before, allowing for a quicker and more effective response upon subsequent exposure. This specificity and memory are crucial in mounting an effective immune response against pathogens.

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27. Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means

Explanation

The fact that Maria's arm is experiencing rubor, which is a Latin term for redness, indicates that the correct answer is indeed redness. Rubor is one of the classic signs of inflammation, and it commonly occurs when there is an injury or irritation to the skin. In this case, the scratch from the cat has caused redness at the site of the injury.

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28. This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer because it is known to have drug resistant strains called MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus). MRSA infections are difficult to treat as they are resistant to many commonly used antibiotics, making it a significant public health concern. Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Streptococcus agalactiae are not typically associated with drug resistant strains like MRSA.

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29. Salmonella typhi

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. This means that Salmonella typhi is a bacterium that multiplies within phagocytes, it is not a coliform, it can be treated with antimicrobics, and it causes invasive infection of the small intestine.

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30. The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is

Explanation

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is water and electrolyte replacement. Cholera is a severe diarrheal disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which leads to excessive fluid loss and dehydration. Replacing lost fluids and electrolytes is crucial to restore the body's balance and prevent further complications or death. Antimicrobics may be used in some cases to reduce the duration and severity of symptoms, but they are not the primary treatment. Antitoxin and surgery are not appropriate treatments for Cholera.

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31. Chlamydia trachomatis causes

Explanation

Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause various infections. In males, it can cause nongonococcal urethritis (NGU), which is inflammation of the urethra. In females, it can cause cervicitis, which is inflammation of the cervix. Chlamydia trachomatis can also cause conjunctivitis, both congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis, which is an infection of the eye. Additionally, it can cause ocular trachoma, which is a chronic inflammatory condition of the eye. Therefore, all of the choices listed in the question are correct.

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32. All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections except

Explanation

Inertriginous infections occur in areas where there is skin-to-skin contact and moisture accumulation. The groin, under breasts, in the armpit, and behind the knees are all areas where there are skin folds and increased friction, creating an ideal environment for these infections to develop. However, the chest does not typically have as many skin folds or moisture accumulation, making it less prone to inertriginous infections. Therefore, the chest is the exception among the given options.

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33. Varicella-zoster virus

Explanation

The given statement "All of the choices are correct" is the correct answer because all of the statements mentioned about Varicella-zoster virus are true. The virus uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry, becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes, has humans as its reservoir, and causes chickenpox and shingles.

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34. Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)

Explanation

The given correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all the statements provided in the question are true. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is indeed a cause of serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger. It does use the nasopharynx as its main replication site. RSV can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin. Additionally, Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin are helpful in reducing complications and hospitalization associated with RSV infection. Therefore, all the choices provided are correct.

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35. The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora

Explanation

During and immediately after birth, the human body begins to be colonized by its normal flora. This is because during the birthing process, the baby comes into contact with the mother's vaginal and fecal flora, which establishes the initial colonization. Additionally, after birth, the baby is exposed to various microorganisms in the environment, such as those present on the skin, in the air, and in breast milk. These microorganisms further contribute to the colonization of the body by the normal flora.

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36. The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed

Explanation

A symptom refers to the subjective evidence of a disease that is sensed by the patient. It is something that the patient experiences and reports, such as pain, fatigue, or nausea. Unlike signs, which are objective and can be observed by others, symptoms are unique to the individual experiencing them. Therefore, the correct answer is symptom.

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37. A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates

Explanation

A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates a current infection. Antibody titers are measurements of the concentration of antibodies in the blood, and a rising titer suggests an active immune response to an ongoing infection. This indicates that the person is currently infected with the disease rather than having a past case or simply having antibodies in their serum. Therefore, the correct answer is a current infection.

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38. Legionella pneumophila

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Legionella pneumophila requires special lab growth media, often lives in close associations with amebas, causes fever, cough, and diarrhea, and also causes a severe pneumonia.

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39. Transmission of tineas include

Explanation

The transmission of tineas can occur through various means, including human to human, animal to human, soil to human, and fomites to human. This means that all of the choices provided are correct in terms of how tineas can be transmitted.

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40. Cryptococcosis can include

Explanation

Cryptococcosis is a fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans or Cryptococcus gattii. It can affect various parts of the body, including the lungs (pulmonary infection), bloodstream (septicemia), meninges (meningitis), and even bones (bone infection). Therefore, all of the choices provided in the question are correct as they represent different manifestations of cryptococcosis.

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41. All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:

Explanation

Patients with AIDS can have an immunodeficiency, CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood, get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections, and can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. However, the statement that the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States is incorrect. This suggests that there are other countries with a higher number of AIDS cases compared to the United States.

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42. An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

Explanation

A vector is an animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another. Unlike a carrier, which may harbor the pathogen without transmitting it, a vector actively transfers the pathogen. A fomite refers to an inanimate object that can carry and transmit the pathogen. A reservoir is a host that carries the pathogen without showing symptoms, while a source is the origin of the pathogen.

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43. If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?

Explanation

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is more virulent because it has a lower infectious dose (ID) of 10 cells compared to Neisseria gonorrhea's ID of 1,000 cells. A lower ID indicates that fewer cells of the organism are required to cause infection, making it more virulent.

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44. Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means

Explanation

Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and is now experiencing dolor. Dolor is a Latin word that means pain. Therefore, Joe is experiencing pain as a result of cutting his finger on the sharp twig.

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45. The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine

Explanation

The statement "All of the choices are correct" is the correct answer because all of the given statements about the dyes fluorescein and rhodamine are true. These dyes can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests, they emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation, they are observed in the fluorescent microscope, and they are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct.

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46. Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the question are true for Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum. It can be found in humans as a reservoir, it is capable of crossing the placenta, it has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium, and it is transmitted through direct sexual contact.

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47. The causative agent of Lyme disease is

Explanation

The correct answer is Borrelia burgdorferi. Lyme disease is caused by this bacterium, which is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks (Ixodes scapularis in the eastern United States and Ixodes pacificus in the western United States). Leptospira interrogans is the causative agent for leptospirosis, while Borrelia hermsii is responsible for relapsing fever. Therefore, Borrelia burgdorferi is the correct answer for the causative agent of Lyme disease.

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48. Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface

Explanation

The given statement mentions different characteristics and behaviors of oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface. It states that these bacteria develop a biofilm, use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere, include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque, and lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. The answer "All of the choices are correct" indicates that all of these statements are true and contribute to the understanding of oral flora bacteria and their role in oral health and disease.

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49. Cytomegalovirus

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all the statements mentioned in the options are true for Cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is indeed among the most common human infections, it can be transmitted through various bodily fluids including saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions, it can be sexually transmitted, and it is commonly carried in the latent state.

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50. The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the

Explanation

The incubation period refers to the time between when a pathogen enters the body and starts multiplying, until the first symptoms of the infection appear. During this stage, the pathogen is replicating and spreading throughout the body, but the individual may not experience any noticeable symptoms. It is an important period as it allows the pathogen to establish itself and reach a sufficient level of infection before symptoms arise. This period can vary depending on the specific pathogen and the individual's immune response.

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51. Reye's syndrome involves

Explanation

Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children, adolescents, and young adults. It is characterized by a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox, and it involves the use of aspirin. The syndrome leads to fatty degeneration of the liver, brain, and kidneys. Therefore, all of the given choices are correct and contribute to the development of Reye's syndrome.

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52. Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?

Explanation

Serology is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum. Serology is the study of blood serum and other bodily fluids in order to identify and measure the presence of antibodies, antigens, or other substances related to specific diseases. In the context of in vitro diagnostic testing, serology tests are used to detect and diagnose various infectious diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis, and syphilis, by detecting specific antibodies or antigens in the serum. Therefore, serology is the correct answer for this question.

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53. Oral thrush is caused by

Explanation

Oral thrush is a fungal infection that is commonly caused by Candida albicans. This fungus is naturally present in the mouth, but an overgrowth can occur due to factors such as a weakened immune system, poor oral hygiene, or the use of certain medications like antibiotics. Candida albicans can cause white or yellow patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, and roof of the mouth, which can be painful and may bleed when scraped. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications to eliminate the infection and improve oral hygiene practices to prevent recurrence.

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54. Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include

Explanation

The correct answer is sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Infectious mononucleosis, also known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is characterized by symptoms such as a sore throat, fever, swollen lymph nodes in the neck (cervical lymphadenopathy), and an enlarged spleen (splenomegaly). These symptoms are commonly seen in individuals with mono and can help in diagnosing the condition. The other options listed do not accurately describe the symptoms of infectious mononucleosis.

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55. Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called

Explanation

The given description of the disease matches the symptoms and characteristics of hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver accompanied by hepatocyte necrosis and swelling due to a mononuclear response. Jaundice, liver cancer, and mononucleosis do not fully align with the provided information. Therefore, the correct answer is hepatitis.

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56. Adenoviruses are

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This is because all of the statements provided about adenoviruses are accurate. Adenoviruses are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses that can be transmitted through respiratory and ocular secretions. They can cause various illnesses, including conjunctivitis, the common cold, and acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. Additionally, adenoviruses are known to cause outbreaks among military recruits.

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57. Which is incorrect about warts?

Explanation

Warts are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV) and are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. They can include deep plantar warts of the soles of the feet. However, warts are not frequently cancerous. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for their removal.

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58. Polyomaviruses

Explanation

The correct answer is that all of the choices are correct. Polyomaviruses can cause common asymptomatic to mild infections, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, and problems in renal transplant patients. Additionally, the JC virus and BK virus are examples of polyomaviruses.

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59. Fifth disease

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements provided in the question are true. Fifth disease is indeed caused by Parvovirus B19, it is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks, it involves a pathogen capable of crossing the placenta, and in immunodeficient children, it can destroy red blood cell stem cells.

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60. This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:

Explanation

Croup is an infection that causes inflammation of the upper airway, particularly the voice box and windpipe. This inflammation leads to labored and noisy breathing, often accompanied by a hoarse cough. The symptoms of croup are distinct and can be easily recognized, making it the correct answer in this case. Mumps, influenza, measles (rubeola), and rubella may cause respiratory symptoms, but they do not specifically cause the characteristic labored breathing and hoarse cough associated with croup.

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61. A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves

Explanation

The correct answer is using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater. A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy refers to using a broad spectrum drug that targets a wide range of pathogens. This approach is used when the specific pathogen causing the infection is unknown or when there is a high likelihood of multiple pathogens being involved. By using a broad spectrum drug, there is a greater chance of killing the pathogen responsible for the infection, regardless of its identity.

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62. Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

Explanation

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are part of the patient's own normal flora. This means that the microbes causing the infection are already present in the patient's body, typically in a balanced state without causing harm. However, certain factors such as a weakened immune system or disruption of the normal flora can lead to these microbes overgrowing and causing an infection. In such cases, the infection is considered endogenous as it originates from within the patient's own body.

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63. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed

Explanation

The given question is asking for the term used to describe the objective, measurable evidence of a disease that is evaluated by an observer. This term is called a sign. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective experiences reported by the patient, signs can be observed and measured by a healthcare professional. Pathology refers to the study of diseases, while inflammation is a specific response of the body to injury or infection. Therefore, the correct answer is sign.

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64. Diapedesis is the

Explanation

Diapedesis refers to the migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. This process is an important part of the immune response, as it allows white blood cells to leave the bloodstream and enter the tissues to target and eliminate pathogens or foreign substances. It is a crucial mechanism for the body's defense against infections and plays a role in inflammation and wound healing.

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65. The reticuloendothelial system

Explanation

The reticuloendothelial system is a support network of connective tissue fibers that originates in the cellular basal lamina. It provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. Additionally, it is heavily populated with macrophages. Therefore, all of the choices provided are correct.

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66. The viridans streptococci are

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This means that all of the statements provided in the question are true. The viridans streptococci cannot be entirely grouped using Lancefield serology, they are the most numerous residents of the oral cavity, they can cause subacute endocarditis as opportunistic pathogens, and they can be introduced to deeper body tissues through dental or surgical procedures.

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67. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

Explanation

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat HIV. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that is essential for the replication of HIV, as it converts the viral RNA into DNA. By targeting reverse transcriptase, antiviral drugs can inhibit the replication of the virus and help control the progression of HIV infection. This approach is specific to HIV and not applicable to other viruses such as influenza A, herpes zoster, respiratory syncytial, or hepatitis C.

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68. All infectious diseases

Explanation

Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms or their products. This includes bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. These microorganisms can enter the body through various means such as inhalation, ingestion, or direct contact with an infected individual or contaminated surfaces. They then multiply and spread within the body, causing illness and symptoms. Examples of infectious diseases caused by microorganisms include influenza, tuberculosis, and malaria. Understanding the cause of infectious diseases is crucial in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.

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69. Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?

Explanation

The gram stain method is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen. This method involves staining bacteria with crystal violet and iodine, followed by decolorization with alcohol and counterstaining with safranin. It allows for the differentiation of bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on their cell wall composition. This test is commonly used in microbiology to identify and classify bacteria.

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70. The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is

Explanation

Botulism is the correct answer because it is a foodborne disease caused by the neurotoxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum. This neurotoxin affects the nervous system and can lead to paralysis, respiratory failure, and even death. Gastrointestinal anthrax is caused by the bacteria Bacillus anthracis and does not involve a neurotoxin. Bacillus cereus intoxication is caused by the bacteria Bacillus cereus, but it does not involve a neurotoxin either. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis is caused by the bacteria Clostridium perfringens, but it also does not involve a neurotoxin. Therefore, the only choice that involves a neurotoxin is botulism.

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71. Dermatophytoses are

Explanation

All of the choices are correct because dermatophytoses are fungal infections that can affect the skin, hair, and nails. They are commonly known as ringworm and tineas. These infections can be difficult to completely eliminate and often require a significant amount of time and treatment to eradicate completely. Therefore, all of the given statements accurately describe dermatophytoses.

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72. Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except

Explanation

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of various respiratory infections, including influenza, rubella, mumps, and SARS. However, dengue fever is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes. The virus does not spread through respiratory secretions, making it the exception among the given options.

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73. Influenza vaccines include all the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "provides lifelong immunity." This is because influenza vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity. The immunity provided by the vaccines typically lasts for a limited period of time, usually about six months to a year. Additionally, the strains of influenza viruses can change over time, requiring updated vaccines to provide protection against the most current strains. Therefore, receiving a flu vaccine annually is recommended to maintain immunity against the prevalent strains of the virus.

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74. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?

Explanation

Antivirals are medications used to treat viral infections by targeting specific steps in the viral replication cycle. The modes of action of antivirals include blocking penetration of the virus into host cells, blocking transcription and translation of viral genetic material, inhibiting DNA synthesis, and blocking viral maturation. However, bonding to ergosterol in the cell membrane is not a mode of action of antivirals. Ergosterol is a component of fungal cell membranes, not viral cell membranes, and therefore this action would not be effective against viruses.

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75. An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a

Explanation

A fomite is an inanimate object that can harbor and transmit a pathogen. It serves as a surface on which the pathogen can survive and be transferred to others. Unlike a carrier, which refers to a living organism that can carry and transmit a pathogen, a fomite does not have the ability to reproduce or sustain the pathogen within itself. Similarly, a vector refers to a living organism that can transmit a pathogen to other organisms. A reservoir refers to a natural habitat or host where the pathogen can persist and reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is fomite.

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76. All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except

Explanation

The light microscope is not a method to diagnose viral infections because it is not capable of directly detecting viruses. Instead, it is used to visualize cellular structures and can be used to identify changes in cells that may be indicative of a viral infection. However, it cannot provide specific information about the presence or identity of a virus. Other methods such as detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes, Western blot, and examination of cells taken from the patient are more commonly used for diagnosing viral infections.

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77. Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts?

Explanation

The technique that is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts is polymerase chain reaction (PCR). PCR is a laboratory technique that allows for the rapid and specific amplification of a specific DNA sequence. It involves a series of temperature cycles that denature the DNA, allow primers to bind to the target sequence, and then extend the DNA using a heat-stable DNA polymerase enzyme. This process can generate millions of copies of the target DNA sequence, making it a powerful tool in various applications such as genetic testing, forensic analysis, and research.

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78. Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in

Explanation

Diphtheria is a bacterial infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. One of the characteristic features of diphtheria is the formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat. This pseudomembrane is a grayish-white membrane that can cover the tonsils, pharynx, and larynx, leading to difficulty in breathing and swallowing. Listeriosis, tuberculosis, erysipeloid, and botulism do not typically present with the formation of a pseudomembrane in the throat.

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79. All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except

Explanation

The bubonic plague is a highly infectious disease caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis. It is primarily transmitted through the bites of infected fleas that reside on small mammals like rats. The bacteria multiply in the fleas' gut, causing blockage and starvation, which leads the fleas to seek new hosts, including humans. Once infected, the patient typically experiences symptoms like fever, headache, nausea, and weakness. The disease causes painful, swollen lymph nodes, particularly in the inguinal region. If left untreated, the infection can spread to the bloodstream, resulting in septicemia. However, the bubonic plague is not transmitted through human feces.

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80. The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are

Explanation

Fungi can enter the body through various routes, and the most common ones are respiratory and cutaneous. Respiratory entry occurs when fungal spores are inhaled into the lungs, where they can cause respiratory infections. Cutaneous entry refers to the penetration of fungi through the skin, usually through cuts or wounds, leading to localized skin infections. The other options, such as urinary and reproductive, digestive and respiratory, and blood and wounds, do not accurately represent the main routes of entry for fungi into the body.

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81. The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are

Explanation

Neutrophils are the most numerous white blood cells (WBCs) and have multilobed nuclei, making them easily identifiable. They are highly phagocytic, meaning they can engulf and destroy pathogens and debris. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and release histamine. Eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections. Monocytes are large phagocytic cells that differentiate into macrophages. Lymphocytes play a crucial role in the immune response. However, none of these cells have the combination of multilobed nuclei and high phagocytic activity like neutrophils do.

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82. Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?

Explanation

Legionellosis is a disease that involves transmission through aerosolized water from various sources such as whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters. This disease is caused by the Legionella bacteria, which can multiply in water systems and be released into the air in the form of small droplets. When these droplets are inhaled, they can cause respiratory infections, including a severe form of pneumonia known as Legionnaires' disease. Therefore, legionellosis is the correct answer for this question.

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83. Relapsing fever involves

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the choices are correct." This is because relapsing fever can be transmitted by soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii as well as by the human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. The initial symptoms of relapsing fever include fever, headache, and fatigue, while the late symptoms can involve vomiting, muscle aches, and damage to the liver, spleen, heart, and kidneys. Therefore, all of the given choices accurately describe aspects of relapsing fever.

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84. Which is mismatched?

Explanation

The term "tinea capitis" refers to ringworm of the scalp, not ringworm of the beard.

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85. Coronaviruses cause

Explanation

Coronaviruses are known to cause a range of respiratory illnesses, including the common cold and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). These viruses can lead to symptoms such as fever, nasal discharge, and coughing, which are commonly associated with the common cold. In some cases, coronaviruses can also cause more severe respiratory infections like SARS, which is characterized by fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is common cold and SARS.

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86. The drug used for several protozoan infections is

Explanation

Metronidazole is a drug commonly used to treat several protozoan infections such as trichomoniasis, giardiasis, and amebiasis. It works by disrupting the DNA of the protozoa, leading to their death. Nystatin is primarily used to treat fungal infections, while griseofulvin is specifically used for fungal infections of the skin and nails. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for serious systemic fungal infections. Sulfa drugs, on the other hand, are antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections. Therefore, among the given options, metronidazole is the correct drug choice for several protozoan infections.

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87. The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are

Explanation

Eosinophils are blood cells that contain peroxidase and lysozyme, which are enzymes that help in allergic reactions and inflammation. They are particularly effective in targeting and eliminating parasitic worms and fungi. Basophils, neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes do not possess these specific enzymes and functions, making eosinophils the correct answer.

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88. Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces a blue-green pigment. This bacterium is known for its ability to produce a variety of pigments, including pyocyanin, which gives it a blue-green color. This pigment is important for the bacterium's survival and virulence, as it helps protect it against oxidative stress and inhibits the growth of other microorganisms. The blue-green color is often observed in cultures of Pseudomonas aeruginosa, making it a characteristic feature of this bacterium.

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89. Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with

Explanation

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is a characteristic symptom of Lyme disease. This rash typically appears within 3-30 days after a person has been bitten by an infected tick. It starts as a small red bump and gradually expands, creating a distinctive bull's-eye pattern with a red outer ring and a clear center. This rash is an early sign of Lyme disease and is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, headache, and muscle aches. If left untreated, Lyme disease can lead to more severe symptoms affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system.

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90. All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except

Explanation

Refined sugar is not able to positively influence the structure of tooth enamel. Fluoride is known to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent tooth decay. Lysozyme and antibodies in saliva help in protecting the teeth from harmful bacteria. Genetics also play a role in determining the strength of tooth enamel. However, refined sugar does not have any beneficial effects on tooth enamel and can actually contribute to tooth decay if consumed in excess.

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91. All of the following pertain to monkeypox except

Explanation

The given statement suggests that the virus of monkeypox has shown a trend of becoming less virulent, resulting in fewer outbreaks in humans. However, this statement is incorrect as there is no evidence or information provided to support this claim. The other options in the question provide valid information about monkeypox, such as its symptoms, occurrence in Africa, transmission through contact with animals, and a recent outbreak involving pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.

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92. Penicillins and cephalosporins

Explanation

Penicillins and cephalosporins block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules. This means that they inhibit the enzymes responsible for linking the glycan chains in the bacterial cell wall. By blocking this process, these antibiotics weaken the cell wall structure, making it easier for the immune system or other antibiotics to destroy the bacteria. This mechanism of action is specific to these types of antibiotics and is one of the reasons why they are effective against certain bacterial infections.

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93. The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is

Explanation

Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test to accurately detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are being tested for. It measures the true positive rate of the test, indicating how well it can identify the presence of the target substance. In this case, sensitivity is the property being described as it reflects the test's ability to detect even small amounts of the target substance.

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94. Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in

Explanation

The Quellung test is used for serotyping the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide. This test involves the use of specific antisera that react with the capsular polysaccharide of different pneumococcal serotypes. When the antisera and the bacterial sample are mixed and observed under a microscope, the presence of a capsule surrounding the bacteria can be visualized, indicating the specific serotype. This method is widely used in clinical laboratories for identifying and characterizing different strains of pneumococcus.

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95. All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except

Explanation

The question is asking for a routine biochemical test that is not used to identify a species. Motility refers to the ability of a microorganism to move on its own, which is not a biochemical test. On the other hand, carbohydrate fermentation, catalase test, oxidase test, and coagulase test are all routine biochemical tests used to aid in identifying a species.

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96. The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the __________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the __________ is its titer.

Explanation

When a sample can be diluted more and still react with antigen, it indicates that the concentration of antibodies in the sample is higher. This is because a higher concentration of antibodies allows for more dilution before the reaction becomes undetectable. Additionally, a higher concentration of antibodies in the sample results in a higher titer, which is a measure of the concentration of antibodies in the sample.

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97. All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis except

Explanation

The statement "belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci" is not true for Enterococcus faecalis. Lancefield Group B streptococci refers to a specific group of streptococci bacteria, while Enterococcus faecalis is a separate species of bacteria. Therefore, Enterococcus faecalis does not belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

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98. All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except

Explanation

Neisseria meningitidis is a bacterium that causes meningitis, which is a serious infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and is more easily spread in crowded places like day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. The bacterium has virulent factors such as a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease that contribute to its pathogenicity. However, it is not a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

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99. Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?

Explanation

The statement "all species are human pathogens" is not correct about Mycobacterium species. While some species of Mycobacterium, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are indeed human pathogens and cause diseases like tuberculosis, not all species of Mycobacterium are pathogenic to humans. Some species are saprophytic, meaning they live on decaying organic matter, while others may cause diseases in animals other than humans. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that all species of Mycobacterium are human pathogens.

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100. E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is "it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals." This statement is incorrect because E. coli 0157:H7 can cause illness in anyone who ingests contaminated food, not just those who work with animals. The other statements are all true characteristics of E. coli 0157:H7, including its transmission through contaminated food, causing bloody diarrhea, its reservoir being cattle intestines, and the potential for it to lead to hemolytic uremic syndrome with kidney failure.

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101. The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called

Explanation

Dimorphism refers to the ability of a fungus to grow in two different forms, either as a yeast or a mold, depending on the environmental temperature. This adaptive strategy allows the fungus to survive and thrive in different conditions. Fungal virulence refers to the ability of a fungus to cause disease, parasitism refers to the relationship between a parasite and its host, dermatophytes are a specific group of fungi that infect the skin, hair, and nails, and opportunistic fungi are those that cause infection in individuals with weakened immune systems. None of these terms accurately describe the ability of a fungus to switch between yeast and mold forms.

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102. Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of

Explanation

Orchitis and epididymitis are conditions characterized by inflammation of the testicles and the epididymis, respectively. These conditions are commonly seen in young adult males as a complication of mumps. Mumps is a viral infection caused by the mumps virus, which primarily affects the salivary glands. However, in some cases, the virus can also affect other organs, including the testicles and epididymis, leading to orchitis and epididymitis. This complication is more common in post-pubertal males and can cause pain, swelling, and potential fertility issues if not treated promptly.

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103. This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:

Explanation

Rubella, also known as German measles, is a febrile disease with a rash that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage. If a pregnant woman contracts rubella, the virus can infect the developing fetus and lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in a range of birth defects such as deafness, blindness, heart defects, and intellectual disabilities. Therefore, rubella is the correct answer as it is the only option that specifically mentions a pathogen that can cause serious fetal damage.

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104. The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

Explanation

Amphotericin B is an antifungal drug that is commonly used to treat serious systemic fungal infections. It is effective against a wide range of fungal pathogens and is particularly useful for treating infections that have spread throughout the body. Amphotericin B works by binding to the fungal cell membrane, causing it to become leaky and ultimately leading to the death of the fungus. It is considered a first-line treatment for severe fungal infections and is often used when other antifungal medications have failed or are not effective.

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105. Drug susceptibility testing

Explanation

Drug susceptibility testing is a laboratory technique used to determine the effectiveness of different antimicrobial drugs against a specific pathogen. It helps in identifying which drugs are most likely to inhibit the growth of the pathogen and therefore guide the selection of appropriate treatment. By testing the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics, healthcare professionals can choose the most effective drug and avoid the use of ineffective or potentially harmful medications. This testing is crucial in preventing the development of drug resistance and improving patient outcomes.

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106. STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common

Explanation

STORCH is an acronym used in medicine to represent the most common infections that can affect the fetus and neonate. Each letter in the acronym stands for a specific infection: S for syphilis, T for toxoplasmosis, O for other infections (such as hepatitis B, HIV, or varicella-zoster virus), R for rubella, C for cytomegalovirus, and H for herpes simplex virus. These infections can be transmitted from the mother to the baby during pregnancy or childbirth and can lead to serious health issues for the newborn.

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107. Nosocomial infections involve all the following except

Explanation

Nosocomial infections are infections that are acquired in a hospital or healthcare setting. These infections can be transmitted through various means, including contact with contaminated surfaces, equipment, or healthcare personnel. The given answer states that nosocomial infections are only transmitted by medical personnel, which is incorrect. Nosocomial infections can be transmitted through multiple routes, and healthcare personnel are just one potential source of transmission. Other factors, such as the patient's resident flora and contaminated environments, can also contribute to the occurrence of nosocomial infections. Medical and surgical asepsis practices are important in preventing and reducing the occurrence of these infections.

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108. The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood.

Explanation

The indirect ELISA test detects antibodies in a patient's blood. This test involves immobilizing the antigen of interest onto a solid surface, such as a microplate. The patient's blood sample is then added to the plate, and if antibodies specific to the antigen are present in the blood, they will bind to the immobilized antigen. The bound antibodies can be detected using a secondary antibody that is linked to an enzyme, which produces a color change or a fluorescent signal. Therefore, the correct answer is antibody.

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109. The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to

Explanation

The correct answer is erythrogenic toxin. Scarlet fever is caused by an infection with Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria, which produce erythrogenic toxins. These toxins are responsible for the characteristic bright red rash and fever associated with scarlet fever. They cause dilation and leakage of blood vessels, leading to the rash, and also stimulate the immune system, resulting in fever.

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110. The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is

Explanation

Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) is a common soil mycobacteria that frequently causes systemic infection and death in AIDS patients. It is a group of closely related species including Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare. These bacteria are opportunistic pathogens, meaning they take advantage of a weakened immune system, such as in AIDS patients, to cause severe infections. MAC infections can affect various organs in the body and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Therefore, MAC is the correct answer for the given question.

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111. Mycetoma is

Explanation

Mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor. This means that it is an infection that occurs beneath the skin and presents as a growth or mass, resembling a tumor. It is not related to athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection of the skin on the feet. Mycetoma is not caused by dermatophytes alone, as it can be caused by various types of bacteria and fungi. It is also not limited to the Midwest region, as it can occur in different parts of the world. Therefore, the correct answer is that mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.

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112. This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:

Explanation

Aspergillus flavis is the correct answer because it is a common organism that contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts. It is known for producing a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin. Aflatoxin is a highly toxic substance that can have serious health effects if ingested, including liver damage and an increased risk of developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is important to prevent contamination of food products by Aspergillus flavis to ensure food safety.

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113. Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

Explanation

Staphylococcus is a genus of bacteria and is not a source of antibiotics. Antibiotics are commonly derived from microorganisms such as Penicillium, Bacillus, Streptomyces, and Cephalosporium. These microorganisms produce substances that have the ability to inhibit the growth of or kill other microorganisms, making them valuable in the treatment of bacterial infections.

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114. Hemopoiesis is the

Explanation

Hemopoiesis refers to the process of producing blood cells. It involves the production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. This process takes place in the bone marrow, where stem cells differentiate into different types of blood cells. The correct answer states that hemopoiesis is the production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets, which accurately describes the process.

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115. The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is

Explanation

The property described in the question is specificity, which refers to a test's ability to detect only a certain antibody or antigen and not react with any others. This means that the test is able to accurately identify and distinguish the target antibody or antigen from others present in a sample. Cross-reactions, agglutination, and precipitation are not related to this specific property, while sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify positive cases.

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116. Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:

Explanation

Agglutination tests detect whole antigens. Agglutination occurs when antibodies bind to antigens, causing clumping or aggregation. This reaction is visible to the naked eye and is commonly used in blood typing and the diagnosis of certain infections. In this type of test, the presence of agglutination indicates the presence of the specific antigen being tested for. This method is specific and sensitive, as it can detect even small amounts of antigens. Cross-reactions, precipitation, specificity, and sensitivity are not directly related to the detection of whole antigens in this type of test.

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117. Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool?

Explanation

The G + C base composition percentage is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool because it only provides information about the overall percentage of guanine (G) and cytosine (C) bases in a DNA sequence. This measure does not provide specific information about the sequence of nucleotides or the specific genes present in the DNA. Therefore, it cannot be used to accurately identify or differentiate between different organisms or genetic variations.

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118. Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except

Explanation

Streptococcus pyogenes is a bacteria that can cause various infections in humans. Necrotizing fasciitis, erysipelas, impetigo, and scarlet fever are all known to be caused by this bacterium. However, scalded skin syndrome is not typically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. This condition is usually caused by a different bacteria called Staphylococcus aureus, which produces a toxin that damages the skin. Therefore, scalded skin syndrome is the exception among the given options.

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119. Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a bacterium that can cause various infections. It is commonly associated with severe nosocomial infections in burn patients, skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges, external ear infections, and serious lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients. However, it is not typically known to cause diarrheal illness.

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120. Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of

Explanation

Rabbits and rodents are known to be the reservoirs of the causative agent of tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis. These animals can carry and transmit the bacteria, making them the primary source of infection for humans. Other diseases listed in the options, such as pertussis, legionellosis, brucellosis, and shigellosis, have different reservoirs and causative agents.

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121. Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all

Explanation

The correct answer is spirochetes. Spirochetes are a group of bacteria characterized by their spiral shape. They have a unique mode of motility called axial filament, which allows them to move in a corkscrew-like manner. Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all examples of spirochetes. These bacteria can cause various diseases in humans and animals, such as syphilis, Lyme disease, and leptospirosis. They are not obligate parasites requiring host cells, curved rods, transmitted by arthropod vectors, or bacteria without cell walls.

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122. Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with

Explanation

Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-gray spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks in patients with measles (rubeola). These spots are considered a classic symptom of measles and typically precede the onset of the rash. Croup is a respiratory condition characterized by a barking cough and inflammation of the airways, while mumps is a viral infection that causes swelling of the salivary glands. Influenza is a respiratory illness caused by the influenza virus, and rubella is a viral infection that causes a rash. However, neither of these conditions are associated with the presence of Koplik's spots.

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123. All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except

Explanation

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124. All of the following pertain to platelets except

Explanation

Platelets are small, irregularly-shaped cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting and inflammation. They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells. Platelets are also called thrombocytes, and they originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes. However, platelets do not contain hemoglobin, which is responsible for transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide in red blood cells. Therefore, the statement "they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide" is incorrect.

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125. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is

Explanation

The correct answer is exfoliative toxin. Exfoliative toxin is produced by certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus and is responsible for causing blisters and desquamation of the skin in scalded skin syndrome. This toxin specifically targets the proteins that hold the skin layers together, leading to the separation and peeling of the skin. It is not caused by enterotoxin, hemolysin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, or erythrogenic toxin.

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126. The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is commonly carried by individuals in their anterior nares, also known as the nostrils. This is because the nostrils provide a warm, moist environment that is ideal for the growth and colonization of bacteria. Additionally, the anterior nares have hair and mucus which can trap and hold onto the bacteria, allowing it to persist in this area. The close proximity of the anterior nares to the respiratory tract also increases the likelihood of the bacteria being transmitted to others through respiratory droplets.

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127. Leprosy is a disease

Explanation

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128. Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows growth and transmission of

Explanation

Decaying vegetation provides an ideal environment for the growth and transmission of various fungi. Among the options given, Aspergillus is a common fungus that is often associated with decaying organic matter. It is known to thrive in compost heaps and piles of leaves. Aspergillus can cause respiratory infections in humans, especially in individuals with weakened immune systems. Therefore, it is the most likely fungus to be found in decaying vegetation.

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129. Aminoglycosides

Explanation

Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit in bacteria. This binding interferes with the process of protein synthesis, disrupting the production of essential proteins needed for bacterial growth and survival. As a result, the bacteria are unable to function properly and eventually die. This mechanism of action makes aminoglycosides effective against a wide range of bacterial infections.

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130. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are

Explanation

Pyrogens are substances that can cause fever by affecting the hypothalamus. They can be either endogenous or exogenous. Endogenous pyrogens are produced by the body itself, such as cytokines released by immune cells in response to infection or inflammation. Exogenous pyrogens are external substances, such as bacterial toxins or certain medications, that can also trigger fever. These pyrogens act on the hypothalamus, which is the body's temperature-regulating center, causing it to raise the body's temperature set point and initiate the fever response. Therefore, pyrogens are the circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever.

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131. This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females:

Explanation

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the correct answer because it is a common cause of urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females. This bacterium is found in the genital area and can enter the urethra during sexual activity, leading to infection in the urinary tract. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections in females than other Staphylococcus species.

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132. A positive Quellung, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for

Explanation

A positive Quellung reaction, also known as capsular swelling, is a confirmatory test for Streptococcus pneumoniae. This test involves the use of specific antibodies that cause the bacterial capsule to swell and become visible under the microscope. This reaction is specific to S. pneumoniae and helps in its identification. Neisseria meningitidis, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis do not show a positive Quellung reaction, making Streptococcus pneumoniae the correct answer.

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133. This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that can infect deeper wound sites and produce various harmful substances such as exotoxins, enzymes, and gas. These factors contribute to tissue and muscle necrosis, which is the death of cells and tissues. Therefore, Clostridium perfringens is capable of causing severe damage to the infected area.

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134. All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:

Explanation

Listeria monocytogenes is a gram-positive bacterium that is commonly found as a contaminant in dairy products, meats, and poultry. It is known to cause foodborne listeriosis, a serious illness. Cold enrichment is a laboratory technique used to improve the recovery of Listeria monocytogenes. However, Listeria monocytogenes is not a sporeformer, meaning it does not have the ability to form spores like some other bacteria do.

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135. The secondary stage of syphilis

Explanation

The correct answer is "is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood." This is because the secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by the spread of the Treponema pallidum bacteria throughout the body via the bloodstream. During this stage, the pathogen enters the bloodstream and rapidly multiplies, leading to a systemic infection. This is also the stage where the disease can be easily transmitted to others through sexual contact or blood transfusion. It typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the primary stage and is often accompanied by symptoms such as rash, fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes.

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136. All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except

Explanation

Campylobacter jejuni is a bacterium that is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. It causes symptoms such as fever and watery to bloody diarrhea. It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea. It is characterized by gram-negative curved rods with darting motility. However, it does not infect the stomach.

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137. Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

Explanation

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138. Gingivitis is

Explanation

Gingivitis is primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. Anaerobic bacteria thrive in an environment with limited oxygen, such as the gum pockets formed by plaque buildup. These bacteria release toxins that irritate the gum tissue, leading to inflammation and the development of gingivitis. Other factors, such as poor oral hygiene, hormonal changes, and certain medications, can also contribute to the development of gingivitis. However, the primary cause is the presence of anaerobic oral flora in the mouth.

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139. The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the

Explanation

Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by inhaling spores of the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. It is commonly found in soil contaminated with bird or bat droppings. The East and Midwest regions of the United States have a higher incidence of histoplasmosis due to the suitable environmental conditions for the fungus to thrive, such as warm and humid climates, as well as the presence of large bird and bat populations. The other options, Southeast, Southwest, Northeast, and Rocky Mountains, do not have the same combination of factors that contribute to the high incidence of histoplasmosis.

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140. Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

Explanation

The correct answer is "can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress." This is because Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is known to cause these symptoms. The other statements in the question are incorrect or incomplete. SARS did not begin with an initial outbreak in the United States, but rather in China. It is not caused by the respiratory syncytial virus, but rather by a coronavirus. Additionally, SARS is highly transmissible, which contradicts the statement that it is not highly transmissible. Therefore, the only correct statement is that SARS can cause high fever, pneumonia, and respiratory distress.

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141. Retroviruses have the following characteristics except

Explanation

Retroviruses are RNA viruses, meaning they have an RNA genome rather than a DNA genome. They are unique because they use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA genome into DNA, which is then integrated into the host genome. Retroviruses also have an envelope and glycoprotein spikes on their surface. Therefore, the characteristic that retroviruses do not have is a DNA genome.

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142. A superinfection results from

Explanation

A superinfection occurs when there is a decrease in the normal flora (beneficial bacteria) in the body, allowing an unaffected species of bacteria or fungi to overgrow and cause an infection. This can happen due to various factors such as the use of antibiotics that kill off the normal flora, allowing opportunistic pathogens to thrive. It can also occur when the immune system is weakened, making it easier for harmful microorganisms to establish an infection. In summary, a superinfection is the result of a decrease in normal flora and the subsequent overgrowth of a different species.

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143. Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test:

Explanation

Agglutination is the correct answer because affixing an antigen to an inert particle like a latex bead is commonly used in agglutination tests. In these tests, the antigen on the latex bead causes the clumping or aggregation of antibodies present in the sample, indicating the presence of a specific antigen or antibody. This method is often used in blood typing, diagnosing infectious diseases, and detecting antibodies in various biological samples.

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144. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis

Explanation

Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis is a virulent pathogen that can cause otitis media, meningitis, endocarditis, and bronchopulmonary infections. This means that it is capable of causing various types of infections in different parts of the body, including the middle ear, the meninges, the heart valves, and the bronchopulmonary system. It is not limited to causing nosocomial infections (infections acquired in a healthcare setting) and there is no mention of it beginning with a rash or having birds as its reservoir.

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145. Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except

Explanation

Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive bacillus that forms spores. It is known to have a capsule and exotoxins as virulence factors. Its reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil. However, it is not anaerobic, meaning it can survive and grow in the presence of oxygen.

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146. Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of

Explanation

Clostridium tetani produces a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction. This neurotoxin, known as tetanospasmin, blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to uncontrolled muscle contractions and the characteristic symptoms of tetanus. Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, and Clostridium difficile do not produce a neurotoxin that specifically binds to these target sites in the spinal cord, making Clostridium tetani the correct answer.

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147. All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except

Explanation

Clostridium difficile infection is not due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. This infection is caused by the bacterium Clostridium difficile, which produces toxins that attack the lining of the colon. It is commonly acquired in healthcare settings and is often associated with antibiotic use, as antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow. This infection is a major cause of diarrhea in hospitals and is considered a superinfection, meaning it occurs on top of an existing infection. The increased use of gastric acid inhibitors may contribute to the rise in C. difficile infections.

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148. Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in its growth medium?

Explanation

Haemophilus is the correct answer because it is a fastidious genus that requires both hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in its growth medium. Hemin is needed for the synthesis of cytochrome, an essential component of the electron transport chain, while NAD is required for various metabolic reactions. Therefore, the growth of Haemophilus is dependent on the presence of these factors in its environment.

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149. Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that

Explanation

Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. This means that these diseases start on the skin and gradually progress, potentially affecting deeper tissues in the body. They are not sexually transmitted, caused by arthropod vectors, caused by Vibrio species, or respiratory tract infections.

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150. All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except

Explanation

HSV-1 is a virus that causes various infections, including gingivostomatitis, cold sores, herpes keratitis, and herpetic whitlow. These infections are typically characterized by lesions and are transmitted through mucous membrane contact. However, HSV-1 is not latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. Instead, it establishes latency in the trigeminal ganglia.

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151. Sulfonamides

Explanation

Sulfonamides are metabolic analogs of PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid) and they block folic acid synthesis. Folic acid is essential for the synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins in bacteria. Sulfonamides inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase, which is involved in the production of folic acid. By blocking this enzyme, sulfonamides prevent the bacteria from synthesizing folic acid, leading to the inhibition of DNA, RNA, and protein production. This ultimately disrupts the growth and multiplication of bacteria, making sulfonamides effective in treating bacterial infections.

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152. This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States:

Explanation

Streptococcus agalactiae is the correct answer because it is known to be the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States. Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Staphylococcus saprophyticus are also common pathogens, but they are not typically associated with neonatal infections. Streptococcus pyogenes is more commonly associated with other types of infections such as strep throat and skin infections.

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153. Streptococcus pneumoniae is

Explanation

The correct answer is "a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule." This is because Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that is commonly found in pairs (diplococcus) and has a thick capsule surrounding its cell wall. The presence of a capsule is an important characteristic of S. pneumoniae as it helps the bacterium evade the host immune system and contributes to its pathogenicity. Additionally, S. pneumoniae is gram positive, meaning it retains the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining method.

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154. The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with

Explanation

The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of middle ear infections in children. It is known to colonize the upper respiratory tract and can easily spread to the middle ear, leading to infection. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of bacterial pneumonia and other respiratory infections as well.

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155. Actinomyces israelii

Explanation

Actinomyces israelii is a type of bacteria that is characterized by its filamentous rod shape. These bacteria have the ability to grow in clusters, forming structures known as sulfur granules, which are commonly found in infected tissues. This characteristic distinguishes Actinomyces israelii from other microorganisms. The statement suggests that this is the correct answer option as it accurately describes the unique growth pattern of Actinomyces israelii in infected tissue.

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156. The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is

Explanation

Pasteurella multocida is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative bacillus that is commonly associated with abscesses caused by dog and cat bites or scratches. It is a normal inhabitant of the oral cavity and respiratory tract of many animals, including cats and dogs. When these animals bite or scratch humans, the bacteria can be introduced into the skin, leading to infection and the formation of abscesses. Therefore, Pasteurella multocida is the most likely causative agent in these cases.

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157. Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the

Explanation

Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection that occurs on the finger. It is characterized by the presence of painful blisters or sores on the finger. This type of infection is commonly seen in healthcare workers who come into contact with patients' bodily fluids, such as during the examination of oral or nasal cavities. It can also occur in individuals who have direct contact with herpes lesions on other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is finger.

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158. Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses?

Explanation

Parvoviruses are known to cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. They are extremely small in diameter. However, one incorrect statement is that it is not transmissible to the fetus. In reality, certain strains of parvoviruses can be transmitted from a pregnant mother to her fetus, leading to various complications and potential harm to the developing baby.

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159. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

Explanation

All of the given options are correct. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have a beta-lactam ring, which is a key structural feature of the penicillin class of antibiotics. This ring is responsible for the antibacterial activity of these drugs. Additionally, these antibiotics have resistance to the action of penicillinase, an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can inactivate penicillin. They also have a semisynthetic nature, meaning they are derived from natural penicillin but have been chemically modified to improve their properties. Finally, these antibiotics have an expanded spectrum of activity, meaning they are effective against a wider range of bacteria compared to natural penicillin.

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160. This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"

Explanation

The term "wool-sorter's disease" is commonly used to refer to pulmonary anthrax, which is caused by inhaling spores of the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. This form of anthrax primarily affects the lungs and respiratory system. Pulmonary anthrax is often associated with occupations involving the handling of contaminated animal products, such as wool, hence the name "wool-sorter's disease." The other forms of anthrax, gastrointestinal and cutaneous, are caused by ingesting contaminated food or water and direct contact with infected animals or their products, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is pulmonary.

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161. All of the following pertain to listeriosis except

Explanation

Listeriosis is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes. It primarily affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as the elderly, immunocompromised individuals, and infants. Symptoms of listeriosis include fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. In severe cases, it can lead to septicemia and meningitis. Intrauterine infection can result in fetal death. Adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can help prevent listeriosis. However, the given answer, "enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms," is incorrect because Listeria monocytogenes does not produce enterotoxins.

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162. The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is

Explanation

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is the exotoxin. Exotoxins are potent toxins released by certain bacteria, including C. diphtheriae, that can cause damage to host cells and tissues. In the case of C. diphtheriae, the exotoxin produced is called diphtheria toxin, which can lead to the characteristic symptoms of diphtheria, such as the formation of a pseudomembrane in the throat and systemic effects like myocarditis and nerve damage. The other options, such as capsule, metachromatic granules, endospores, and endotoxin, are not the major virulence factors responsible for the serious systemic effects seen in diphtheria.

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163. Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?

Explanation

Influenza (flu) is caused by the influenza virus, not by Haemophilus influenzae. Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for causing bacterial meningitis, otitis media (middle ear infection), bronchitis, and epiglottitis. However, the influenza virus is a separate pathogen that causes the flu.

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164. Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except

Explanation

Cryptococcus neoformans is commonly found in soil containing pigeon droppings, not in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia. It is a capsulated yeast that primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes. The fungus usually enters the body through inhalation.

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165. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat __________ infections.

Explanation

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are all drugs that are commonly used to treat helminthic infections. Helminthic infections are caused by parasitic worms, such as tapeworms, roundworms, and hookworms. These drugs work by targeting and killing the worms, helping to eliminate the infection. They are not effective against bacterial, fungal, protozoan, or viral infections, which are caused by different types of microorganisms. Therefore, the correct answer is helminthic.

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166. All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except

Explanation

Escherichia is not considered a resident flora of skin sites because it is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestinal tract of humans and animals. It is not typically found on the skin surface. Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, Micrococcus, and Mycobacterium are all examples of bacteria that are commonly found on the skin and are considered part of the resident flora.

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167. An agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is

Explanation

Haemophilus aegyptius is the correct answer because it is a known agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis, also known as pinkeye. Haemophilus influenzae, Haemophilus ducreyi, Haemophilus parainfluenzae, and Haemophilus aphrophilus are not typically associated with causing pinkeye.

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168. Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their

Explanation

Leptospira interrogans is a bacterium that causes leptospirosis, a disease that affects both humans and animals. Infected animals, such as rats, dogs, and livestock, can shed the bacteria in their urine. This is a significant mode of transmission for the disease, as the bacteria can survive in water or soil for extended periods and infect other animals or humans who come into contact with contaminated environments. Therefore, urine is the correct answer as it is the primary means by which infected animals spread Leptospira interrogans.

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169. All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except

Explanation

Coccidioidomycosis, also known as Valley Fever, is a fungal infection caused by inhalation of arthrospores. It is commonly found in the southwestern United States and is characterized by symptoms such as fever, chest pain, cough, headache, and malaise. However, the pathogen does not specifically require soil with bird and bat guano to grow, making this statement incorrect.

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170. Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except

Explanation

The Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the mentioned characteristics except for the reservoir being human carriers. This means that the virus does not primarily reside in and spread through human carriers. Instead, it is a zoonosis, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The symptoms of the virus include abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension. It is transmitted through aerosol transmission from rodent excreta. The first U.S. outbreak of Sin Nombre hantavirus occurred in 1993 in the Southwest.

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171. Which is incorrect about complement?

Explanation

Complement is a group of at least 26 blood proteins that act in a cascade reaction. It is not limited to only appearing in the blood during a response to a pathogen. Complement can also be activated by other factors such as immune complexes or tissue damage, and it plays a role in various immune responses including inflammation and clearance of cellular debris. Therefore, the statement "only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen" is incorrect.

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172. Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their

Explanation

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test. This means that she used a test that involved analyzing the specific carbohydrates present in the cell walls of streptococci bacteria. By comparing the differences in these carbohydrates, she was able to distinguish between different types of streptococci. This method allowed for the classification and identification of different strains of streptococci based on their unique cell wall compositions.

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173. Aspergillosis includes all the following except

Explanation

Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by the Aspergillus fungus. It can affect various parts of the body, including the lungs, sinuses, eyes, and brain. Treatment for aspergillosis typically involves antifungal medications, such as voriconazole or amphotericin B. Therefore, the statement "there are no effective drugs to treat the infection" is incorrect as there are drugs available for the treatment of aspergillosis.

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174. Menthol and camphor (Vicks™) are effective treatments against

Explanation

Menthol and camphor, found in Vicks™, are effective treatments against ringworm. Ringworm is a common fungal infection of the skin that causes a red, circular rash with clear skin in the center. Menthol and camphor have antifungal properties that can help to alleviate the symptoms of ringworm, such as itching and inflammation. They work by inhibiting the growth of the fungus responsible for the infection. Therefore, using Vicks™, which contains menthol and camphor, can be an effective treatment option for ringworm.

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175. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

Explanation

Clavulanic acid is a chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes. Beta-lactamase enzymes are responsible for breaking down and inactivating beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin. By inhibiting these enzymes, clavulanic acid helps to extend the effectiveness of beta-lactam antibiotics, allowing them to effectively kill bacteria. Synercid, penicillinase, aztreonam, and imipenem are not known for their ability to inhibit beta-lactamase enzymes.

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176. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is

Explanation

Clindamycin is the correct answer because it is a drug commonly used to treat infections caused by anaerobic bacteria in the intestines. However, it can also disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the gut, leading to antibiotic-associated colitis. Chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, bacitracin, and gentamicin are not typically associated with causing antibiotic-associated colitis.

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177. Resident flora of the intestines include

Explanation

The correct answer is Bacteroides. Bacteroides is a type of bacteria that is part of the normal flora in the intestines. It is a gram-negative anaerobe and plays a role in the breakdown of complex carbohydrates in the gut. Bacteroides also helps to maintain the balance of the intestinal microbiota and contributes to overall gut health.

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178. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?

Explanation

In the complement fixation test, the first antigen and antibody are allowed to react. Then, purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube. After that, sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture. In a positive test result, there is no hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells.

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179. The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is

Explanation

Erysipelas is a Group A streptococcal infection that presents with symptoms of fever, edema of the skin near the portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion. Impetigo is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, necrotizing fasciitis is a severe infection that affects the deeper layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and scarlet fever is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash and strawberry tongue. Therefore, erysipelas is the most appropriate answer based on the given symptoms.

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180. Pertussis has the following characteristics except

Explanation

The catarrhal stage of pertussis does not have persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". This stage is characterized by mild cold-like symptoms such as nasal discharge and sneezing. The coughing fits with the characteristic "whoops" sound occur during the paroxysmal stage of pertussis. During this stage, the cough becomes more severe and can last for several weeks. The other characteristics mentioned, such as the pathogen's virulence factors, the prevention through DTaP immunization, and the transmission through respiratory droplets, are all true for pertussis.

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181. Yersinia pestis

Explanation

Yersinia pestis is usually transmitted by a flea vector. This means that fleas, particularly those that infest rats, can carry and transmit the bacteria to humans. This mode of transmission was responsible for the widespread outbreak of the bubonic plague, also known as the Black Death, during the Middle Ages. While Yersinia pestis can still cause infections in humans today, it is not as virulent or widespread as it was in the past. Additionally, the statement does not provide information about the bacterium's response to antimicrobic drugs or its presence in humans as an endemic reservoir.

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182. The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its

Explanation

The correct answer is enterotoxin. Vibrio cholerae is a bacterium that causes cholera, a severe diarrheal disease. The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is mainly attributed to its production of an enterotoxin called cholera toxin. This toxin is responsible for the characteristic watery diarrhea that is a hallmark of cholera. It acts on the cells lining the small intestine, causing them to secrete large amounts of water and electrolytes, leading to dehydration and potentially life-threatening complications. The other options, such as capsule, neurotoxin, and invasive enzymes, may also contribute to the virulence of Vibrio cholerae, but the primary factor is the enterotoxin.

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183. An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is

Explanation

Vibrio parahaemolyticus is the correct answer because it is an organism found in coastal waters that can contaminate raw and undercooked seafood. Consumption of contaminated seafood can lead to a food infection and gastroenteritis. Chlamydia trachomatis, Vibrio cholerae, Campylobacter jejuni, and Helicobacter pylori are not typically associated with seafood contamination or the symptoms described.

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184. Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?

Explanation

Sporothrix schenckii is a dimorphic fungus that can exist in both yeast and mold forms. It lives in the soil and can be transmitted through soil-contaminated thorns, causing a condition known as sporotrichosis. This infection typically presents as nodules along regional lymphatic channels, rather than superficial cutaneous infections.

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185. The hepadnaviruses

Explanation

The correct answer is "show tropism for the liver." Hepadnaviruses are a group of viruses that specifically target the liver. They have a strong affinity for liver cells and are able to replicate within them. This tropism for the liver is one of the defining characteristics of hepadnaviruses. The other options, including the adenoviruses, transmission through respiratory secretions, and being nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses, are not specific to hepadnaviruses and do not accurately describe their characteristics.

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186. All coliforms are

Explanation

The correct answer is "rapid lactose fermenters." Coliforms are a group of bacteria that are commonly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals. They are used as indicators of fecal contamination in water and food. One of the key characteristics of coliforms is their ability to rapidly ferment lactose, which means they can quickly break down lactose sugar into acid and gas. This ability to ferment lactose is often used as a diagnostic test to identify coliform bacteria in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the correct answer is that all coliforms are rapid lactose fermenters.

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187. Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

Explanation

Protease inhibitors interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for the final assembly and maturation of the virus. These drugs inhibit the protease enzyme, which is responsible for cutting long chains of viral proteins into smaller, functional pieces. By blocking this enzyme, protease inhibitors prevent the virus from maturing and becoming infectious. Therefore, protease inhibitors are effective in controlling the replication of HIV and are used in combination with other antiretroviral drugs to treat HIV infection.

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188. A serum titer involves

Explanation

A serum titer involves serially diluting a serum sample. This process is done to determine the concentration of specific antibodies present in the serum. By diluting the serum sample multiple times, it becomes easier to identify the highest dilution at which the antibodies can still produce a visible reaction. This information is important in diagnosing and monitoring certain diseases, as it provides an indication of the immune response against specific antigens. The other options mentioned, such as determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction or the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction, are not accurate explanations for a serum titer.

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189. Botulin, the toxin of botulism is

Explanation

Botulin, the toxin of botulism, is only produced under anaerobic conditions. This means that it can only be produced in an environment without oxygen. This is because the bacteria that produce botulinum toxin, called Clostridium botulinum, are anaerobic bacteria that thrive in low-oxygen environments such as improperly canned or preserved foods. In the absence of oxygen, these bacteria are able to produce the toxin, which can cause symptoms such as rigid paralysis when ingested by humans.

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190. The chancre of syphilis

Explanation

The correct answer is "develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater." This is the most accurate description of the chancre of syphilis. A chancre is a painless sore that appears at the site of infection during the primary stage of syphilis. It typically starts as a small, raised bump and then develops into a firm, ulcerated lesion with well-defined edges and a central crater. This characteristic appearance helps differentiate it from other types of sores or ulcers.

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191. The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is

Explanation

Neuraminidase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract. Neuraminidase helps the virus to release itself from infected cells and spread to other cells. It plays a crucial role in the replication and transmission of the influenza virus.

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192. Parainfluenza virus

Explanation

The correct answer is "causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia." Parainfluenza virus is a respiratory virus that can cause various respiratory illnesses, including croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. It is a common cause of these infections, particularly in children. While the virus belongs to the Paramyxoviridae family, not the Orthomyxovirus family, this information is not relevant to the given question. Therefore, the correct answer is that parainfluenza virus causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia.

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The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the...
Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined...
Plasma
Chickenpox
These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily...
Cholera symptoms are
Documented transmission of HIV involves
Nonspecific chemical defenses include
Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are...
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
Tuberculin skin testing
Escherichia coli infections
Salmonelloses are
Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all
Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?
Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that...
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to...
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the...
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes...
Helicobacter pylori causes
Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense...
Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing...
This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:
Salmonella typhi
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in...
Chlamydia trachomatis causes
All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections...
Varicella-zoster virus
Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates
Legionella pneumophila
Transmission of tineas include
Cryptococcosis can include
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one...
If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is...
Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This...
The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine
Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
Cytomegalovirus
The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to...
Reye's syndrome involves
Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing...
Oral thrush is caused by
Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and...
Adenoviruses are
Which is incorrect about warts?
Polyomaviruses
Fifth disease
This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse...
A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer...
Diapedesis is the
The reticuloendothelial system
The viridans streptococci are
Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
All infectious diseases
Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in...
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
Dermatophytoses are
Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission...
Influenza vaccines include all the following except
Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny...
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very...
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from...
Relapsing fever involves
Which is mismatched?
Coronaviruses cause
The drug used for several protozoan infections is
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation,...
Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is...
All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth...
All of the following pertain to monkeypox except
Penicillins and cephalosporins
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or...
Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is...
All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in...
The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the...
All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis except
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except
The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its...
Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a...
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the...
The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal...
Drug susceptibility testing
STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood.
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection...
Mycetoma is
This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and...
Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
Hemopoiesis is the
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen,...
Whole antigens are detected in this type of test:
Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a...
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except
Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of
Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails...
All of the following pertain to platelets except
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and...
The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry...
Leprosy is a disease
Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows...
Aminoglycosides
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate...
This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract...
A positive Quellung, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for
This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins,...
All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
The secondary stage of syphilis
All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni...
Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
Gingivitis is
The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in...
Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
A superinfection results from
Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is...
Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord...
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in...
Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except
Sulfonamides
This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis,...
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection...
Actinomyces israelii
The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat...
Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the
Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses?
Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have
This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"
All of the following pertain to listeriosis except
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes...
Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except
Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat...
All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin...
An agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except
Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except
Which is incorrect about complement?
Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of...
Aspergillosis includes all the following except
Menthol and camphor (Vicks™) are effective treatments against
A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also...
Resident flora of the intestines include
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation...
The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema...
Pertussis has the following characteristics except
Yersinia pestis
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and...
Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?
The hepadnaviruses
All coliforms are
Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for...
A serum titer involves
Botulin, the toxin of botulism is
The chancre of syphilis
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the...
Parainfluenza virus
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