Microbiology Final Review

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Microbiology Final Review

It’s time for your final review, folks! Your studies have led you to this moment, and it’s time to finally put your recently acquired knowledge on the study of microscopic organisms like bacteria and viruses to good use. Think you know enough about the topic of microbiology to pass this final hurdle? All you have to do is answer the questions to find out! Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad-spectrum drugs

  • 2. 
    Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C. 

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D. 

      Synthetic drugs

    • E. 

      Broad-spectrum drugs

  • 3. 
    Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
    • A. 

      Low toxicity for human tissues

    • B. 

      High toxicity against microbial cells

    • C. 

      Do not cause serious side effects in humans

    • D. 

      Stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 5. 
    A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
    • A. 

      Synercid

    • B. 

      Penicillinase

    • C. 

      Aztreonam

    • D. 

      Clavulanic acid

    • E. 

      Imipenem

  • 6. 
    Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
    • A. 

      Penicillium

    • B. 

      Bacillus

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Streptomyces

    • E. 

      Cephalosporium

  • 7. 
    Penicillins and cephalosporins
    • A. 

      Interfere with DNA synthesis

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 8. 
    Sulfonamides
    • A. 

      Interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan

    • B. 

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C. 

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

    • D. 

      Damage cell membranes

    • E. 

      Block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      A beta-lactam ring

    • B. 

      Resistance to the action of penicillinase

    • C. 

      A semisynthetic nature

    • D. 

      An expanded spectrum of activity

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 10. 
    The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is
    • A. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • B. 

      Clindamycin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

    • E. 

      Gentamicin

  • 11. 
    The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
    • A. 

      Nystatin

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Amphotericin B

    • D. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • E. 

      Metronidazole

  • 12. 
    The drug used for several protozoan infections is
    • A. 

      Nystatin

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Amphotericin B

    • D. 

      Sulfa drugs

    • E. 

      Metronidazole

  • 13. 
    Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat __________ infections.
    • A. 

      Bacterial

    • B. 

      Fungal

    • C. 

      Protozoan

    • D. 

      Helminthic

    • E. 

      Virus

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
    • A. 

      Block penetration

    • B. 

      Block transcription and translation

    • C. 

      Inhibit DNA synthesis

    • D. 

      Block maturation

    • E. 

      Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

  • 15. 
    Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
    • A. 

      Influenza A virus

    • B. 

      HIV

    • C. 

      Herpes zoster virus

    • D. 

      Respiratory syncytial virus

    • E. 

      Hepatitis C virus

  • 16. 
    The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
    • A. 

      Bacterial chromosomal mutations

    • B. 

      Synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure

    • C. 

      Prevention of drug entry into the cell

    • D. 

      Alteration of drug receptors on cell targets

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 17. 
    A superinfection results from
    • A. 

      Build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient

    • B. 

      The wrong drug administered to the patient

    • C. 

      An immune system reaction to the drug

    • D. 

      Decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 18. 
    Drug susceptibility testing
    • A. 

      Determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics

    • B. 

      Determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics

    • C. 

      Determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics

    • D. 

      Determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 19. 
    A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
    • A. 

      Giving a narrow spectrum drug

    • B. 

      Culturing the pathogen and identifying it

    • C. 

      Performing the disk diffusion assay

    • D. 

      Using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater

    • E. 

      Using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination

  • 20. 
    All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
    • A. 

      The inability of the drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment

    • B. 

      A mixed infection where some of the pathogens are drug resistant

    • C. 

      Not completing the full course of treatment

    • D. 

      A disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic

    • E. 

      Diminished gastrointestinal absorption due to an underlying condition or age

  • 21. 
    All infectious diseases
    • A. 

      Are contagious

    • B. 

      Only occur in humans

    • C. 

      Are caused by microorganisms or their products

    • D. 

      Are caused by vectors

    • E. 

      Involve viruses as the pathogen

  • 22. 
    Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
    • A. 

      In food

    • B. 

      The patient's own normal flora

    • C. 

      On fomites

    • D. 

      In the air

    • E. 

      Transmitted from one person to another

  • 23. 
    The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
    • A. 

      Before birth, in utero

    • B. 

      During, and immediately after birth

    • C. 

      When a child first goes to school

    • D. 

      When an infant gets its first infectious disease

    • E. 

      During puberty

  • 24. 
    All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except
    • A. 

      Escherichia

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus

    • C. 

      Corynebacterium

    • D. 

      Micrococcus

    • E. 

      Mycobacterium

  • 25. 
    Resident flora of the intestines include
    • A. 

      Streptococcus

    • B. 

      Bacteroides

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus

    • D. 

      Haemophilus

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 26. 
    STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common
    • A. 

      Genera of resident flora

    • B. 

      Sexually transmitted diseases

    • C. 

      Portals of entry

    • D. 

      Vectors

    • E. 

      Infections of the fetus and neonate

  • 27. 
    The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
    • A. 

      Prodromal stage

    • B. 

      Convalescent stage

    • C. 

      Incubation period

    • D. 

      Period of invasion

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 28. 
    The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
    • A. 

      Syndrome

    • B. 

      Symptom

    • C. 

      Sign

    • D. 

      Pathology

    • E. 

      Inflammation

  • 29. 
    The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
    • A. 

      Syndrome

    • B. 

      Symptom

    • C. 

      Sign

    • D. 

      Pathology

    • E. 

      Inflammation

  • 30. 
    The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is
    • A. 

      Pathology

    • B. 

      Clinical microbiology

    • C. 

      Medicine

    • D. 

      Immunology

    • E. 

      Epidemiology

  • 31. 
    Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 32. 
    An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 33. 
    An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
    • A. 

      Fomite

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Vector

    • D. 

      Reservoir

    • E. 

      Source

  • 34. 
    Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
    • A. 

      They are only transmitted by medical personnel

    • B. 

      They often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions

    • C. 

      The patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent

    • D. 

      Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents

    • E. 

      Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence

  • 35. 
    If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent?
    • A. 

      Neisseria gonorrhea

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • C. 

      They are equally virulent

    • D. 

      It is impossible to determine

  • 36. 
    Nonspecific chemical defenses include
    • A. 

      Lysozyme.

    • B. 

      Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.

    • C. 

      Skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.

    • D. 

      Stomach hydrochloric acid.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct

  • 37. 
    The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
    • A. 

      Lactic acid.

    • B. 

      Hydrochloric acid.

    • C. 

      Lysozyme.

    • D. 

      Histamine.

    • E. 

      Bile.

  • 38. 
    The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
    • A. 

      Skin.

    • B. 

      Respiratory tract.

    • C. 

      Digestive tract.

    • D. 

      Urinary tract.

    • E. 

      Eyes.

  • 39. 
    Plasma
    • A. 

      Is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.

    • B. 

      Is mostly water.

    • C. 

      Contains albumin and globulins.

    • D. 

      Contains fibrinogen.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 40. 
    The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
    • A. 

      Basophils.

    • B. 

      Eosinophils.

    • C. 

      Neutrophils.

    • D. 

      Monocytes.

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes.

  • 41. 
    The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
    • A. 

      Basophils.

    • B. 

      Eosinophils.

    • C. 

      Neutrophils.

    • D. 

      Monocytes.

    • E. 

      Lymphocytes.

  • 42. 
    All of the following pertain to platelets except
    • A. 

      They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

    • B. 

      They are also called thrombocytes.

    • C. 

      They originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.

    • D. 

      They function in blood clotting and inflammation.

    • E. 

      They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.

  • 43. 
    Hemopoiesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells.

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

  • 44. 
    Diapedesis is the
    • A. 

      Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

    • B. 

      Production of only red blood cells.

    • C. 

      Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.

    • D. 

      Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.

    • E. 

      Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

  • 45. 
    The reticuloendothelial system
    • A. 

      Is a support network of connective tissue fibers.

    • B. 

      Originates in the cellular basal lamina.

    • C. 

      Provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.

    • D. 

      Is heavily populated with macrophages.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 46. 
    These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck:
    • A. 

      Lymph nodes

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Spleen

    • D. 

      GALT

    • E. 

      Tonsils

  • 47. 
    The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Warmth.

    • C. 

      Swelling.

    • D. 

      Pain.

    • E. 

      Chills.

  • 48. 
    The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
    • A. 

      Complement.

    • B. 

      Interferons.

    • C. 

      Leukotrienes.

    • D. 

      Pyrogens.

    • E. 

      Lysozymes.

  • 49. 
    Which is incorrect about complement?
    • A. 

      Composed of at least 26 blood proteins

    • B. 

      Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen

    • C. 

      Act in a cascade reaction

    • D. 

      Involves a classical pathway

    • E. 

      Involves an alternate pathway

  • 50. 
    Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
    • A. 

      Inflammatory response

    • B. 

      Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils

    • C. 

      Interferon

    • D. 

      T cell and B cell responses

    • E. 

      Anatomical barriers in the body

  • 51. 
    Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Pain.

    • C. 

      Loss of function.

    • D. 

      Warmth.

    • E. 

      Swelling.

  • 52. 
    Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means
    • A. 

      Redness.

    • B. 

      Pain.

    • C. 

      Loss of function.

    • D. 

      Warmth.

    • E. 

      Swelling.

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?
    • A. 

      Mycology

    • B. 

      Hematology

    • C. 

      Serology

    • D. 

      Histology

    • E. 

      Virology

  • 54. 
    The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions.

    • B. 

      Agglutination.

    • C. 

      Precipitation.

    • D. 

      Specificity.

    • E. 

      Sensitivity.

  • 55. 
    The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions.

    • B. 

      Agglutination.

    • C. 

      Precipitation.

    • D. 

      Specificity.

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Precipitation

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 57. 
    Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test:
    • A. 

      Cross-reactions

    • B. 

      Agglutination

    • C. 

      Precipitation

    • D. 

      Specificity

    • E. 

      Sensitivity

  • 58. 
    A serum titer involves
    • A. 

      Serially diluting a serum sample.

    • B. 

      Determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.

    • C. 

      Determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.

    • D. 

      The Western blot method.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
    • A. 

      First antigen and antibody are allowed to react

    • B. 

      Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube

    • C. 

      Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture

    • D. 

      Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 60. 
    Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in
    • A. 

      Ouchterlony double diffusion.

    • B. 

      Western blot.

    • C. 

      Immunelectrophoresis.

    • D. 

      Radioimmunoassay (RIA).

    • E. 

      The Quellung test.

  • 61. 
    All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
    • A. 

      Detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.

    • B. 

      Western blot.

    • C. 

      Cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.

    • D. 

      Signs and symptoms.

    • E. 

      The light microscope.

  • 62. 
    Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
    • A. 

      Catalase test

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Phage typing

    • D. 

      Antimicrobic sensitivity

    • E. 

      Production of gas

  • 63. 
    All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except
    • A. 

      Motility.

    • B. 

      Carbohydrate fermentation.

    • C. 

      Catalase test.

    • D. 

      Oxidase test.

    • E. 

      Coagulase test.

  • 64. 
    The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the __________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the __________ is its titer.
    • A. 

      Lower, lower

    • B. 

      Higher, lower

    • C. 

      Lower, higher

    • D. 

      Higher, higher

  • 65. 
    A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates
    • A. 

      A past case of the disease.

    • B. 

      A current infection.

    • C. 

      Nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are possible.

  • 66. 
    Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts?
    • A. 

      Genetic probing

    • B. 

      Ouchterlony

    • C. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid sequencing

    • E. 

      G + C composition

  • 67. 
    The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood.
    • A. 

      Antigen

    • B. 

      Antibody

    • C. 

      Microorganisms

    • D. 

      IgE only

    • E. 

      Complement

  • 68. 
    Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool?
    • A. 

      DNA analysis using genetic probes

    • B. 

      RRNA analysis

    • C. 

      G + C base composition percentage

    • D. 

      Nucleic acid sequencing

    • E. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

  • 69. 
    The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine
    • A. 

      Can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests.

    • B. 

      Emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation.

    • C. 

      Are observed in the fluorescent microscope.

    • D. 

      Are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 70. 
    The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
    • A. 

      Catalase.

    • B. 

      Coagulase.

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase.

    • D. 

      Staphylokinase.

    • E. 

      Dnase.

  • 71. 
    The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
    • A. 

      Enterotoxin.

    • B. 

      Hemolysin.

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome toxin.

    • D. 

      Exfoliative toxin.

    • E. 

      Erythrogenic toxin.

  • 72. 
    The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
    • A. 

      Enterotoxins.

    • B. 

      Hemolysins.

    • C. 

      Toxic shock syndrome toxin.

    • D. 

      Exfoliative toxin.

    • E. 

      Erythrogenic toxin.

  • 73. 
    This pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 74. 
    This organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 75. 
    This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA:
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus

    • D. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • E. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 76. 
    The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is
    • A. 

      All over the skin.

    • B. 

      Under the fingernails.

    • C. 

      Anterior nares (nostrils).

    • D. 

      Mouth.

    • E. 

      Intestines.

  • 77. 
    Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their
    • A. 

      Cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test.

    • B. 

      Patterns of hemolysis on blood agar.

    • C. 

      Ability to produce catalase.

    • D. 

      Gram stain appearance.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 78. 
    Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
    • A. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis.

    • B. 

      Erysipelas.

    • C. 

      Impetigo.

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever.

    • E. 

      Scalded skin syndrome.

  • 79. 
    The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is
    • A. 

      Erysipelas.

    • B. 

      Impetigo.

    • C. 

      Necrotizing fasciitis.

    • D. 

      Scarlet fever.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 80. 
    All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis except
    • A. 

      Normal flora of the human large intestine.

    • B. 

      Increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics.

    • C. 

      Cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias.

    • D. 

      Can cause endocarditis.

    • E. 

      Belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

  • 81. 
    The viridans streptococci are
    • A. 

      Not entirely groupable by Lancefield serology.

    • B. 

      The most numerous residents of the oral cavity.

    • C. 

      Opportunists that can cause subacute endocarditis.

    • D. 

      Introduced to deeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 82. 
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is
    • A. 

      Called the meningococcus.

    • B. 

      In the viridans group.

    • C. 

      A gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.

    • D. 

      A pathogen with endotoxin.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 83. 
    Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include
    • A. 

      Otitis media.

    • B. 

      Meningitis.

    • C. 

      Lobar pneumonia.

    • D. 

      Bronchial pneumonia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 84. 
    All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
    • A. 

      Virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.

    • B. 

      It causes a serious meningitis.

    • C. 

      The reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.

    • D. 

      It is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.

    • E. 

      It is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.

  • 85. 
    Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis
    • A. 

      Is a virulent pathogen.

    • B. 

      Causes otitis media, meningitis, endocarditis, and bronchopulmonary infections.

    • C. 

      Has birds as its reservoir.

    • D. 

      Infection begins with a rash.

    • E. 

      Only causes nosocomial infections.

  • 86. 
    A positive Quellung, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for
    • A. 

      Neisseria meningitidis.

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus.

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes.

    • D. 

      Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

    • E. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae.

  • 87. 
    The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes.

    • C. 

      Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae.

    • E. 

      Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

  • 88. 
    Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
    • A. 

      Capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.

    • B. 

      Anaerobic.

    • C. 

      Reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.

    • D. 

      Gram positive bacillus.

    • E. 

      Sporeformer.

  • 89. 
    This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"
    • A. 

      Pulmonary.

    • B. 

      Gastrointestinal.

    • C. 

      Cutaneous.

    • D. 

      All of the choices are correct.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 90. 
    The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
    • A. 

      Gastrointestinal anthrax.

    • B. 

      Bacillus cereus intoxication.

    • C. 

      Botulism.

    • D. 

      Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 91. 
    Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of
    • A. 

      Clostridium botulinum.

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens.

    • C. 

      Clostridium difficile.

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 92. 
    This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
    • A. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • B. 

      Clostridium perfringens

    • C. 

      Clostridium difficile

    • D. 

      Clostridium tetani

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 93. 
    Botulin, the toxin of botulism is
    • A. 

      Not as virulent as tetanospasmin.

    • B. 

      Detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood.

    • C. 

      The cause of rigid paralysis.

    • D. 

      Only produced under anaerobic conditions.

    • E. 

      Produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food.

  • 94. 
    All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
    • A. 

      It is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.

    • B. 

      It is a colitis that is a superinfection.

    • C. 

      It often has an endogenous source.

    • D. 

      It may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.

    • E. 

      It is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

  • 95. 
    All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except:
    • A. 

      Gram positive

    • B. 

      Sporeformer

    • C. 

      Contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry

    • D. 

      Causes foodborne listeriosis

    • E. 

      Cold enrichment improves recovery in the lab

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      It causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea and sore throat.

    • B. 

      It causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised and infants.

    • C. 

      Intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death.

    • D. 

      Adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention.

    • E. 

      Enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.

  • 97. 
    Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
    • A. 

      Diphtheria.

    • B. 

      Listeriosis.

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis.

    • D. 

      Erysipeloid.

    • E. 

      Botulism.

  • 98. 
    The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is
    • A. 

      Capsule.

    • B. 

      Metachromatic granules.

    • C. 

      Exotoxin.

    • D. 

      Endospores.

    • E. 

      Endotoxin.

  • 99. 
    Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
    • A. 

      All species are human pathogens

    • B. 

      Cell walls have waxy lipids

    • C. 

      Acid fast

    • D. 

      Usually have a slow growth rate

    • E. 

      Long, slender rods

  • 100. 
    Tuberculin skin testing
    • A. 

      Injects PPD intradermally.

    • B. 

      Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    • C. 

      Will be positive if person has had previous exposure.

    • D. 

      Will be positive in active TB.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 101. 
    Leprosy is a disease
    • A. 

      Of lung tissue.

    • B. 

      That has been eradicated around the world.

    • C. 

      Caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.

    • D. 

      Can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test.

    • E. 

      Caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus.

  • 102. 
    The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).

    • B. 

      Mycobacterium kansasii.

    • C. 

      Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.

    • D. 

      Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.

    • E. 

      Mycobacterium marinum.

  • 103. 
    Actinomyces israelii
    • A. 

      Can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.

    • B. 

      Can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis.

    • C. 

      Are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue.

    • D. 

      Lives in the soil.

    • E. 

      Causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

  • 104. 
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except
    • A. 

      Severe nosocomial infection in burn patients.

    • B. 

      Skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges.

    • C. 

      Diarrheal illness.

    • D. 

      External ear infection.

    • E. 

      Serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients.

  • 105. 
    Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    • A. 

      Lemon yellow

    • B. 

      Red-orange

    • C. 

      Golden

    • D. 

      Blue-green

    • E. 

      Pale orange

  • 106. 
    Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of
    • A. 

      Tularemia.

    • B. 

      Pertussis.

    • C. 

      Legionellosis.

    • D. 

      Brucellosis.

    • E. 

      Shigellosis.

  • 107. 
    Pertussis has the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia.

    • B. 

      Catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops".

    • C. 

      Early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.

    • D. 

      DTaP immunization will prevent it.

    • E. 

      Transmission is by respiratory droplets.

  • 108. 
    Legionella pneumophila
    • A. 

      Requires special lab growth media.

    • B. 

      Often lives in close associations with amebas.

    • C. 

      Causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Causes a severe pneumonia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 109. 
    Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
    • A. 

      Legionellosis

    • B. 

      Pertussis

    • C. 

      Brucellosis

    • D. 

      Plague

    • E. 

      Traveler's diarrhea

  • 110. 
    All coliforms are
    • A. 

      Enteric pathogens.

    • B. 

      Rapid lactose fermenters.

    • C. 

      Oxidase positive.

    • D. 

      Fasitidious.

    • E. 

      Strains of E. coli.

  • 111. 
    Escherichia coli infections
    • A. 

      Are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.

    • B. 

      Include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.

    • C. 

      Involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      It only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

    • B. 

      It is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.

    • C. 

      It causes a bloody diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Its reservoir is cattle intestines.

    • E. 

      Some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

  • 113. 
    Salmonelloses are
    • A. 

      Not caused by Salmonella typhi.

    • B. 

      Associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces.

    • C. 

      Gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.

    • D. 

      Enteric fevers that often include septicemia.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 114. 
    Salmonella typhi
    • A. 

      Multiplies within phagocytes.

    • B. 

      Is not a coliform.

    • C. 

      Can be treated with antimicrobics.

    • D. 

      Causes invasive infection of the small intestine.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 115. 
    Yersinia pestis
    • A. 

      Was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent.

    • B. 

      Has humans as an endemic reservoir.

    • C. 

      Does not respond to antimicrobic drugs.

    • D. 

      Is usually transmitted by a flea vector.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 116. 
    All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
    • A. 

      It is transmitted by human feces.

    • B. 

      It is caused by Yersinia pestis.

    • C. 

      The patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.

    • D. 

      The patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.

    • E. 

      It can progress to a septicemia.

  • 117. 
    The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is
    • A. 

      Salmonella typhimurium.

    • B. 

      Yersinia enterocolitica.

    • C. 

      Pasteurella multocida.

    • D. 

      Brucella suis.

    • E. 

      Francisella tularensis.

  • 118. 
    Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (Y factor) in its growth medium?
    • A. 

      Legionella

    • B. 

      Haemophilus

    • C. 

      Brucella

    • D. 

      Shigella

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 119. 
    Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
    • A. 

      Bacterial meningitis

    • B. 

      Influenza (flu)

    • C. 

      Otitis media

    • D. 

      Bronchitis

    • E. 

      Epiglottitis

  • 120. 
    An agent of acute communicable conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is
    • A. 

      Haemophilus influenzae.

    • B. 

      Haemophilus ducreyi.

    • C. 

      Haemophilus aegyptius.

    • D. 

      Haemophilus parainfluenzae.

    • E. 

      Haemophilus aphrophilus.

  • 121. 
    Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum
    • A. 

      Has humans as the reservoir.

    • B. 

      Can cross the placenta.

    • C. 

      Has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.

    • D. 

      Is transmitted by direct sexual contact.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 122. 
    The chancre of syphilis
    • A. 

      Occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.

    • B. 

      Is very painful.

    • C. 

      Occurs during the tertiary stage.

    • D. 

      Develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 123. 
    The secondary stage of syphilis
    • A. 

      Is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.

    • B. 

      Occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.

    • C. 

      Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.

    • D. 

      Has no symptoms.

    • E. 

      Is when gummas develop in tissues.

  • 124. 
    Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
    • A. 

      Obligate parasites requiring host cells.

    • B. 

      Curved rods.

    • C. 

      Transmitted by arthropod vectors.

    • D. 

      Spirochetes.

    • E. 

      Bacteria without cell walls.

  • 125. 
    Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that
    • A. 

      Are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues.

    • B. 

      Are sexually transmitted.

    • C. 

      Are caused by arthropod vectors.

    • D. 

      Are caused by Vibrio species.

    • E. 

      Are respiratory tract infections.

  • 126. 
    Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their
    • A. 

      Feces.

    • B. 

      Blood.

    • C. 

      Urine.

    • D. 

      Respiratory secretions.

    • E. 

      Saliva.

  • 127. 
    Relapsing fever involves
    • A. 

      Soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii.

    • B. 

      Initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue.

    • C. 

      Late symptoms of vomiting, muscle aches, damage to liver, spleen, heart and kidneys.

    • D. 

      Human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 128. 
    The causative agent of Lyme disease is
    • A. 

      Ixodes scapularis.

    • B. 

      Borrelia hermsii.

    • C. 

      Borrelia burgdorferi.

    • D. 

      Ixodes pacificus.

    • E. 

      Leptospira interrogans.

  • 129. 
    Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
    • A. 

      Syphilis.

    • B. 

      Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

    • C. 

      Relapsing fever.

    • D. 

      Lyme disease.

    • E. 

      Leptospirosis.

  • 130. 
    The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
    • A. 

      Capsule.

    • B. 

      Neurotoxin.

    • C. 

      Invasive enzymes.

    • D. 

      Enterotoxin.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 131. 
    Cholera symptoms are
    • A. 

      Copious watery diarrhea.

    • B. 

      Loss of blood volume.

    • C. 

      Acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst.

    • D. 

      Hypotension, tachycardia, shock.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 132. 
    The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is
    • A. 

      Water and electrolyte replacement.

    • B. 

      Antimicrobics.

    • C. 

      Antitoxin.

    • D. 

      Surgery.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 133. 
    An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is
    • A. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis.

    • B. 

      Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

    • C. 

      Vibrio cholerae.

    • D. 

      Campylobacter jejuni.

    • E. 

      Helicobacter pylori.

  • 134. 
    Helicobacter pylori causes
    • A. 

      Gastritis.

    • B. 

      Duodenal ulcers.

    • C. 

      Stomach ulcers.

    • D. 

      Increased risk for stomach cancer.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 135. 
    All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except
    • A. 

      It is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water.

    • B. 

      It causes fever and a water to bloody diarrhea.

    • C. 

      It infects the stomach.

    • D. 

      It produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea.

    • E. 

      It has gram negative curved rods with darting motility.

  • 136. 
    Chlamydia trachomatis causes
    • A. 

      Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males.

    • B. 

      Cervicitis in females.

    • C. 

      Congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis.

    • D. 

      Ocular trachoma.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 137. 
    Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
    • A. 

      Has birds as a reservoir

    • B. 

      Common cause of primary atypical pneumonia

    • C. 

      Initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache

    • D. 

      After 2 to 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache

    • E. 

      Is a bacterial cell without a cell wall

  • 138. 
    Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
    • A. 

      Develop a biofilm.

    • B. 

      Use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.

    • C. 

      Include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.

    • D. 

      Lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 139. 
    Gingivitis is
    • A. 

      Primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora.

    • B. 

      Erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion.

    • C. 

      Caused by Streptococcus mutans.

    • D. 

      Also called NUG.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 140. 
    All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except
    • A. 

      Fluoride.

    • B. 

      Lysozyme in saliva.

    • C. 

      Antibodies in saliva.

    • D. 

      Refined sugar.

    • E. 

      Genetics.

  • 141. 
    The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
    • A. 

      Fungal virulence.

    • B. 

      Parasitism.

    • C. 

      Dimorphism.

    • D. 

      Dermatophytes.

    • E. 

      Opportunistic fungi.

  • 142. 
    The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are
    • A. 

      Urinary and reproductive.

    • B. 

      Digestive and respiratory.

    • C. 

      Blood and wounds.

    • D. 

      Respiratory and cutaneous.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 143. 
    • A. 

      Mycotoxins.

    • B. 

      Fungal enzymes.

    • C. 

      Antifungal drugs.

    • D. 

      Culture media supplements for fungi.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 144. 
    The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the
    • A. 

      Southeast.

    • B. 

      Southwest.

    • C. 

      East and Midwest.

    • D. 

      Northeast.

    • E. 

      Rocky Mountains.

  • 145. 
    All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis except
    • A. 

      The pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.

    • B. 

      It has highest incidence in the southwestern United States.

    • C. 

      It is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores.

    • D. 

      It often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise.

    • E. 

      It is also called Valley Fever.

  • 146. 
    Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii?
    • A. 

      Is dimorphic

    • B. 

      Lives in the soil

    • C. 

      Often transmited by soil-contaminated thorns

    • D. 

      Causes superficial cutaneous infection

    • E. 

      Causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels

  • 147. 
    Mycetoma is
    • A. 

      A subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.

    • B. 

      Also called athlete's foot.

    • C. 

      Caused by dermatophytes.

    • D. 

      Only seen in the Midwest.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 148. 
    Dermatophytoses are
    • A. 

      Fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.

    • B. 

      Also called ringworm.

    • C. 

      Also called tineas.

    • D. 

      Often time-consuming to eradicate completely.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 149. 
    Which is mismatched?
    • A. 

      Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard

    • B. 

      Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot

    • C. 

      Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin

    • D. 

      Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body

    • E. 

      Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

  • 150. 
    Transmission of tineas include
    • A. 

      Human to human

    • B. 

      Animal to human

    • C. 

      Soil to human

    • D. 

      Fomites to human

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 151. 
    Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia

    • B. 

      A capsulated yeast

    • C. 

      In high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings

    • D. 

      Usually enters body by inhalation

    • E. 

      Primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes

  • 152. 
    Cryptococcosis can include
    • A. 

      Pulmonary infection.

    • B. 

      Septicemia.

    • C. 

      Meningitis.

    • D. 

      Bone infection.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 153. 
    Oral thrush is caused by
    • A. 

      Cryptococcus neoformans.

    • B. 

      Candida albicans.

    • C. 

      Malassezia furfur.

    • D. 

      Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 154. 
    Aspergillosis includes all the following except
    • A. 

      There are no effective drugs to treat the infection.

    • B. 

      Noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals.

    • C. 

      A pneumonia that disseminates to the brain.

    • D. 

      Most cases are due to A. fumigatus.

    • E. 

      Life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.

  • 155. 
    Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost heaps, allows growth and transmission of
    • A. 

      Cryptococcus.

    • B. 

      Aspergillus.

    • C. 

      Candida.

    • D. 

      Dermatophytes.

    • E. 

      Pneumocytis.

  • 156. 
    This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin:
    • A. 

      Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci

    • B. 

      Fusarium species

    • C. 

      Rhizopus species

    • D. 

      Geotrichum candidum

    • E. 

      Aspergillus flavis

  • 157. 
    Menthol and camphor (Vicks™) are effective treatments against
    • A. 

      Chromoblastomycosis.

    • B. 

      Ringworm.

    • C. 

      Histoplasmosis.

    • D. 

      Tinea versicolor.

    • E. 

      Blastomycosis.

  • 158. 
    All of the following areas are subject to inertriginous infections except
    • A. 

      Between folds of the groin.

    • B. 

      Under breasts.

    • C. 

      In the armpit.

    • D. 

      Behind the knees.

    • E. 

      Chest.

  • 159. 
    All of the following pertain to monkeypox except
    • A. 

      Symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

    • B. 

      Outbreaks have occurred in Africa.

    • C. 

      Transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats.

    • D. 

      A recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.

    • E. 

      The virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

  • 160. 
    All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) except
    • A. 

      It causes gingivostomatitis.

    • B. 

      It causes cold sores and herpes keratitis.

    • C. 

      It is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia.

    • D. 

      It is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions.

    • E. 

      It causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.

  • 161. 
    Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes
    • A. 

      Genital lesions.

    • B. 

      Intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.

    • C. 

      Symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.

    • D. 

      Infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 162. 
    Chickenpox
    • A. 

      Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions.

    • B. 

      Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material.

    • C. 

      Has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.

    • D. 

      Has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 163. 
    Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the
    • A. 

      Nasal mucosa.

    • B. 

      Finger.

    • C. 

      Oral mucosa and tongue.

    • D. 

      Eye.

    • E. 

      Newborn.

  • 164. 
    Varicella-zoster virus
    • A. 

      Uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.

    • B. 

      Becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.

    • C. 

      Has humans as its reservoir.

    • D. 

      Causes chickenpox and shingles.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 165. 
    Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
    • A. 

      Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa.

    • B. 

      Fever, and pocks on skin.

    • C. 

      Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.

    • D. 

      Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct.

  • 166. 
    Cytomegalovirus
    • A. 

      Is among the most common of human infections.

    • B. 

      Is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions.

    • C. 

      Can be sexually transmitted.

    • D. 

      Is commonly carried in the latent state.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 167. 
    The hepadnaviruses
    • A. 

      Include the adenoviruses.

    • B. 

      Show tropism for the liver.

    • C. 

      Are transmitted by respiratory secretions.

    • D. 

      Are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 168. 
    Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called
    • A. 

      Hepatitis.

    • B. 

      Jaundice.

    • C. 

      Liver cancer.

    • D. 

      Mononucleosis.

    • E. 

      None of the choices are correct

  • 169. 
    Adenoviruses are
    • A. 

      Nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses.

    • B. 

      Transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions.

    • C. 

      Causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children.

    • D. 

      Causes of outbreaks among military recruits.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 170. 
    Which is incorrect about warts?
    • A. 

      Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

    • B. 

      Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites

    • C. 

      Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet

    • D. 

      Are frequently cancerous

    • E. 

      Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal

  • 171. 
    Polyomaviruses
    • A. 

      Cause common asymptomatic to mild infections.

    • B. 

      Cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy.

    • C. 

      Cause problems in renal transplant patients.

    • D. 

      Include the JC virus and BK virus.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 172. 
    Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses?
    • A. 

      Cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals

    • B. 

      Are extremely small in diameter

    • C. 

      It is not transmissible to the fetus

    • D. 

      It causes a disease known as fifth disease

    • E. 

      Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum

  • 173. 
    Fifth disease
    • A. 

      Is caused by Parvovirus B19.

    • B. 

      Is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.

    • C. 

      Involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.

    • D. 

      In immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 174. 
    Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B?
    • A. 

      Recombinant interferon

    • B. 

      Heptavax vaccine

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)

    • D. 

      Recombivax vaccine

    • E. 

      All of the choices may be recommended.

  • 175. 
    The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
    • A. 

      Catalase.

    • B. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • C. 

      Hyaluronidase.

    • D. 

      Neuraminidase.

    • E. 

      Kinase.

  • 176. 
    Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except
    • A. 

      Influenza.

    • B. 

      Rubella.

    • C. 

      Dengue fever.

    • D. 

      Mumps.

    • E. 

      SARS.

  • 177. 
    Reye's syndrome involves
    • A. 

      Aspirin use.

    • B. 

      A febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox.

    • C. 

      Fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney.

    • D. 

      Children, adolescents, and young adults.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 178. 
    Influenza vaccines include all the following except
    • A. 

      Inactivated intramuscular vaccine.

    • B. 

      Usually incorporates three different strains.

    • C. 

      Attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.

    • D. 

      Provides lifelong immunity.

    • E. 

      Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.

  • 179. 
    Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Reservoir is human carriers

    • B. 

      Is a zoonosis

    • C. 

      Symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension

    • D. 

      Transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta

    • E. 

      First U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest

  • 180. 
    Parainfluenza virus
    • A. 

      Usually infects the elderly.

    • B. 

      Is in the Orthomyxovirus family.

    • C. 

      Causes influenza.

    • D. 

      Causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 181. 
    Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of
    • A. 

      Croup.

    • B. 

      Mumps.

    • C. 

      Influenza.

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola).

    • E. 

      Rubella.

  • 182. 
    Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
    • A. 

      Croup.

    • B. 

      Mumps.

    • C. 

      Influenza.

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola).

    • E. 

      Rubella.

  • 183. 
    This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough:
    • A. 

      Croup

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Influenza

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola)

    • E. 

      Rubella

  • 184. 
    This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
    • A. 

      Croup

    • B. 

      Mumps

    • C. 

      Influenza

    • D. 

      Measles (rubeola)

    • E. 

      Rubella

  • 185. 
    Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus)
    • A. 

      Causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.

    • B. 

      Uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.

    • C. 

      Can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.

    • D. 

      Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 186. 
    Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
    • A. 

      Debridement.

    • B. 

      Wash bite with soap or detergent.

    • C. 

      Wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).

    • D. 

      Postexposure vaccination with HDCV.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 187. 
    Coronaviruses cause
    • A. 

      Fever, rash, nasal discharge.

    • B. 

      Meningitis.

    • C. 

      Measles.

    • D. 

      Croup.

    • E. 

      Common cold and SARS.

  • 188. 
    Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
    • A. 

      Can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.

    • B. 

      Began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China.

    • C. 

      Is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.

    • D. 

      Is not highly transmissible.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 189. 
    Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
    • A. 

      Glycoprotein spikes.

    • B. 

      DNA genome.

    • C. 

      Envelope.

    • D. 

      Reverse transcriptase.

    • E. 

      Viral genes integrate into the host genome.

  • 190. 
    All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except:
    • A. 

      Have an immunodeficiency

    • B. 

      Have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm³ of blood

    • C. 

      Get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections

    • D. 

      Can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders

    • E. 

      Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

  • 191. 
    Documented transmission of HIV involves
    • A. 

      Mosquitoes.

    • B. 

      Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.

    • C. 

      Respiratory droplets.

    • D. 

      Contaminated food.

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.

  • 192. 
    Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
    • A. 

      Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • B. 

      Protease inhibitors

    • C. 

      Fusion inhibitors

    • D. 

      Integrase inhibitors

    • E. 

      All of the choices are correct.