Mic 541 Exam 4 - Virology - Slides 100-150

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Mic 541 Exam 4 - Virology - Slides 100-150 - Quiz


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are the two different tests used to diagnose H1N1?

    • A.

      Rapid immunofluorescence tests to detect antigens in a pharyngeal specimen.

    • B.

      Rapid immunofluorescence tests to screen for antibody titer.

    • C.

      Serological testing to detect antigens in a pharyngeal specimen.

    • D.

      Serological testing to screen for antibody titer.

    Correct Answer
    D. Serological testing to screen for antibody titer.
    Explanation
    Serological testing is used to detect the presence of antibodies in the blood, which indicates a past or current infection. In the case of H1N1, serological testing is used to screen for antibody titer, which measures the level of antibodies against the virus in the blood. This helps in diagnosing H1N1 infection and determining the immune response of an individual to the virus. Rapid immunofluorescence tests, on the other hand, are used to detect antigens directly in a pharyngeal specimen, but they are not specifically used for diagnosing H1N1.

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  • 2. 

    The goal of treatment for H1N1 is:

    • A.

      To eradicate the disease.

    • B.

      To cure the patient.

    • C.

      To control the symptoms.

    Correct Answer
    C. To control the symptoms.
    Explanation
    The goal of treatment for H1N1 is to control the symptoms. This means that the focus is on managing and alleviating the symptoms experienced by the patient, rather than completely eradicating the disease or curing the patient. Treatment options for H1N1 typically include rest, fluids, over-the-counter medications for symptom relief, and in some cases, antiviral medications. By controlling the symptoms, the patient's discomfort can be minimized, and their recovery can be facilitated.

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  • 3. 

    Possible medications for controlling the symptoms of H1N1 include:

    • A.

      Amantadine

    • B.

      Tetracycline

    • C.

      Rifampin

    • D.

      Rimantadine

    • E.

      Zanamivir

    • F.

      Oseltamivir

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Amantadine
    D. Rimantadine
    E. Zanamivir
    F. Oseltamivir
    Explanation
    Amantadine, rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir are possible medications for controlling the symptoms of H1N1. These medications are antiviral drugs that can help reduce the severity and duration of symptoms caused by the H1N1 virus. Amantadine and rimantadine are antiviral drugs that specifically target influenza A viruses, including H1N1. Zanamivir and oseltamivir are neuraminidase inhibitors that can be used to treat both influenza A and B viruses, including H1N1. These medications work by inhibiting the replication of the virus and can be effective in reducing the symptoms and complications associated with H1N1 infection.

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  • 4. 

    The flu virus has developed a high rate of resistance to which of the following drugs used to control the symptoms:

    • A.

      Amantadine and rimantadine

    • B.

      Rimantadine and zanamivir

    • C.

      Zanamivir and oseltamivir

    • D.

      Oseltamivir and amantadine

    Correct Answer
    A. Amantadine and rimantadine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is amantadine and rimantadine. These two drugs, known as adamantanes, were previously used to treat and control symptoms of the flu virus. However, over time, the flu virus has developed a high rate of resistance to these drugs, rendering them less effective. As a result, they are no longer recommended for the treatment of flu.

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  • 5. 

    Amantadine and rimantadine are effective against which strain(s) of influenza:

    • A.

      Influenza A

    • B.

      Influenza B

    • C.

      Influenza C

    Correct Answer
    A. Influenza A
    Explanation
    M2 ion channel blockers - effective against influenza A but not B and C.

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  • 6. 

    Zanamivir and Tamiflu (oseltamivir) are effective against which strains of influenza:

    • A.

      Influenza A

    • B.

      Influenza B

    • C.

      Influenza C

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Influenza A
    B. Influenza B
    C. Influenza C
    Explanation
    Zanamivir and Tamiflu (oseltamivir) are effective against all strains of influenza, including influenza A, influenza B, and influenza C. These antiviral medications work by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme, which is essential for the release of newly formed viral particles from infected cells. By blocking this enzyme, Zanamivir and Tamiflu prevent the spread of the virus and can help reduce the severity and duration of symptoms.

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  • 7. 

    How are Zanamivir and Oseltamivir administered?

    • A.

      Zanamivir is administered orally, oseltamivir nasally.

    • B.

      Both are administered orally.

    • C.

      Both are administered nasally.

    • D.

      Zanamivir is administered nasally, oseltamivir orally.

    Correct Answer
    D. Zanamivir is administered nasally, oseltamivir orally.
    Explanation
    Zanamivir is administered nasally, meaning it is inhaled through the nose. On the other hand, oseltamivir is administered orally, which means it is taken by mouth.

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  • 8. 

    Opitimal efficacy of zanamivir and oseltamivir is achieved only if administered:

    • A.

    • B.

      >5 hours after infection

    • C.

    • D.

      >30 hours after infection

    Correct Answer
    C.
  • 9. 

    Select the components of flu vaccines:

    • A.

      Influenza A subtype - H1N1

    • B.

      Influenza C subtype - H1N1

    • C.

      Influenza A subtype H3N2

    • D.

      Influenza B virus

    • E.

      Infuenza E virus

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Influenza A subtype - H1N1
    C. Influenza A subtype H3N2
    D. Influenza B virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the components of flu vaccines that are commonly used. Influenza A subtype - H1N1, influenza A subtype H3N2, and influenza B virus are all strains of the influenza virus that are known to cause illness in humans. These strains are included in flu vaccines to provide protection against the most common and potentially dangerous types of influenza. Influenza C subtype - H1N1 and influenza E virus are not commonly included in flu vaccines as they are less common and less likely to cause severe illness.

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  • 10. 

    Flu vaccines are 100% efficacious.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Efficacy ranges from 60-90%. Older adults = 50-60%. Nursing homes = 20-45%.

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  • 11. 

    Flu Mist should (specifically) not be given to:

    • A.

      Animals

    • B.

      Young children

    • C.

      Teenage boys

    • D.

      Pregnant women

    • E.

      Adults 50+

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Young children
    D. Pregnant women
    E. Adults 50+
    Explanation
    Flu Mist should not be given to young children, pregnant women, and adults 50+ because these groups are more susceptible to experiencing severe side effects from the vaccine. Young children have a higher risk of developing wheezing or asthma, pregnant women may experience complications, and adults 50+ may have a weaker immune response to the vaccine. It is important to consider the age and health conditions of individuals before administering Flu Mist to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is/are true regarding Bunyaviruses and Arenaviruses?

    • A.

      Transmitted vertically.

    • B.

      Transmitted zoonotically.

    • C.

      Are not dangerous.

    • D.

      Biosafety level 2 viruses.

    • E.

      Cause periodic epidemics.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Transmitted zoonotically.
    E. Cause periodic epidemics.
    Explanation
    Transmitted zoonotically; cause periodic epidemics; extremely dangerous; biosafety level 4 viruses.

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  • 13. 

    Which set of diseases are caused by Bunyaviruses?

    • A.

      California encephalitis, Rift Valley fever, Korean hemorrhagic fever, Hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome.

    • B.

      Lassa fever; Argentine hemorrhagic fever; Bolivian hemorrhagic fever; and Lymphocytic choriomeningitis.

    Correct Answer
    A. California encepHalitis, Rift Valley fever, Korean hemorrhagic fever, Hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome.
    Explanation
    California encephalitis, Rift Valley fever, Korean hemorrhagic fever, and Hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome are all diseases caused by Bunyaviruses. Bunyaviruses are a group of RNA viruses that are transmitted to humans through arthropod vectors such as mosquitoes and ticks. These viruses can cause a range of symptoms including fever, encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, and respiratory distress. Therefore, the set of diseases listed in the answer are all caused by Bunyaviruses.

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  • 14. 

    Which set of diseases are caused by Arenaviruses?

    • A.

      California encephalitis, Rift Valley fever; Korean hemorrhagic fever, Hantavirus cardiopulmonary syndrome.

    • B.

      Lassa fever; Argentine hemorrhagic fever; Bolivian hemorrhagic fever; and Lympthocytic choriomeningitis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lassa fever; Argentine hemorrhagic fever; Bolivian hemorrhagic fever; and Lympthocytic choriomeningitis.
    Explanation
    The set of diseases caused by Arenaviruses includes Lassa fever, Argentine hemorrhagic fever, Bolivian hemorrhagic fever, and Lympthocytic choriomeningitis.

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  • 15. 

    Match the following paramyxoviruses with their more common names:A. ParamyxovirusesB. MorbillivirusC. Pneumovirus

    • A.

      A = parainfluenza, mumps virus, B = respiratory syncytia virus, C = measles virus

    • B.

      A = measles virus, B = parainfluenza, mumps virus, C = respiratory syncytia virus

    • C.

      A = parainfluenza, B = measles virus, C = respiratory syncytia virus

    Correct Answer
    C. A = parainfluenza, B = measles virus, C = respiratory syncytia virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A = parainfluenza, B = measles virus, C = respiratory syncytia virus. This is because parainfluenza is caused by paramyxoviruses, measles virus is a type of morbillivirus, and respiratory syncytia virus is a type of pneumovirus.

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  • 16. 

    Parainfluenza virus is seen mostly in:

    • A.

      The elderly.

    • B.

      Teenage girls.

    • C.

      College students.

    • D.

      Children.

    Correct Answer
    D. Children.
    Explanation
    Widespread as influenza but more benign, respiratory transmission, seen mostly in children, minor cold, bronchitis, bronchopneumonia, croup, no specific treatment available; supportive therapy.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is true of the mumps virus?

    • A.

      Live attenuated vaccine = influenza vaccine.

    • B.

      Humans and animals are the only reservoirs.

    • C.

      Epidemic parotitis; self-limited.

    • D.

      Associated with painful swelling of lymph nodes.

    • E.

      3000 cases in the US/year.

    Correct Answer
    C. Epidemic parotitis; self-limited.
    Explanation
    Epidemic parotitis; self-limited, associated with painful swelling of parotid salivary glands, humans are the only reservoir, 40% of infections are subclinical; long-term immunity, 300 cases in US/year, incubation 2-3 weeks fever, muscle pain and malaise, classic swelling of one or both cheeks, usually uncomplicated invasion of other organs; in 20-30% of infected adult males, epididymis and testes become infected; sterility is rare, symptomatic treatment, live attenuated vaccine MMR.

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  • 18. 

    The measles virus is very contagious.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Transmitted by respiratory aerosols.

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  • 19. 

    How many cases of Measles Virus are seen in the US each year?

    • A.

      1,500

    • B.

      Less than 20

    • C.

      Less than 100

    • D.

      10,000

    Correct Answer
    C. Less than 100
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "less than 100" because the question asks for the number of cases of Measles Virus seen in the US each year. Since the answer options are in decreasing order, the option "less than 100" is the most appropriate choice as it indicates a smaller number of cases compared to the other options.

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  • 20. 

    The measles virus is the same as German measles.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Different from German measles. The Measles Virus is also known as red measles and rubeola.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most serious complication of Measles Virus?

    • A.

      Sore throat.

    • B.

      Conjunctivitis.

    • C.

      Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE).

    • D.

      Lymphadenitis.

    • E.

      Koplik spots.

    Correct Answer
    C. Subacute sclerosing panencepHalitis (SSPE).
    Explanation
    Complications include: sore throat, dry cough, headache, conjunctivitis, lymphadenitis, fever, Koplik spots (oral lesions). Most serious complication is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), a progressive neurological degneration of the cerebral cortex, white matter, and brain stem.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is true of Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)?

    • A.

      Also called Pneumovirus.

    • B.

      Produces mini multinucleate cells.

    • C.

      Portals of entry are throat and urogenital tract.

    • D.

      Treatment: Synagis and Ribavirin.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Also called Pneumovirus.
    D. Treatment: Synagis and Ribavirin.
    Explanation
    Infects upper respiratory tract and produces giant multinucleate cells - most prevalent cause of respiratory infection in children 6 months or younger; most susceptible to serious disease - epithelia of nose and eye portal of entry; replicates in nasopharynx - fever, rhinitis, pharyngitis, otitis, croup - treatment: Synagis (a monocloncal antibody that blocks attachment) and Ribavirin (questionable efficacy)

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  • 23. 

    Which family/genus applies to Rabies?

    • A.

      Family = Rhabdovirus, Genus = Lyssavirus.

    • B.

      Family = Lyssavirus, Genus = Rhabdovirus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Family = Rhabdovirus, Genus = Lyssavirus.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Family = Rhabdovirus, Genus = Lyssavirus. This means that Rabies belongs to the Rhabdovirus family and the Lyssavirus genus. The family classification is higher than the genus classification, so it is more specific. In this case, Rhabdovirus is the family to which Lyssavirus belongs, making it the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    What do the Rabies virions look like?

    • A.

      Enveloped, bullet-shaped virions.

    • B.

      Non-enveloped, bullet-shaped virions.

    • C.

      Enveloped, cocci-shaped virions.

    • D.

      Non-enveloped, cocci-shaped virions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enveloped, bullet-shaped virions.
    Explanation
    Rabies virions are enveloped, bullet-shaped particles. This means that they have a lipid envelope surrounding their nucleocapsid, which gives them a rounded shape with pointed ends resembling a bullet. The envelope is derived from the host cell membrane and contains viral glycoproteins that are important for attachment and entry into host cells. The bullet shape is characteristic of the rabies virus and is often used to identify it under electron microscopy.

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  • 25. 

    Match the following areas of the US with its most common rabid animal.

    • A.

      Skunk = east coast, raccoon = mid west, fox = Texas, Arizona, and Alaska

    • B.

      Skunk = Texas, Arizona, and Alaska, raccoon = east coast, fox = mid west

    • C.

      Skunk = mid west, raccoon = east coast, fox = Texas, Arizona, and Alaska

    Correct Answer
    C. Skunk = mid west, raccoon = east coast, fox = Texas, Arizona, and Alaska
    Explanation
    The correct answer matches skunks with the midwest, raccoons with the east coast, and foxes with Texas, Arizona, and Alaska.

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  • 26. 

    What are the three clinical phases of rabies?

    • A.

      Death phase.

    • B.

      Prodromal phase.

    • C.

      Deaf phase.

    • D.

      Dumb phase.

    • E.

      Furious phase.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Prodromal pHase.
    D. Dumb pHase.
    E. Furious pHase.
    Explanation
    The three clinical phases of rabies are the prodromal phase, dumb phase, and furious phase. The prodromal phase is characterized by non-specific symptoms such as fever, headache, and malaise. The dumb phase is marked by paralysis and difficulty swallowing, while the furious phase is characterized by agitation, aggression, and hydrophobia. These phases represent the progression of the disease and the different symptoms that manifest as the virus spreads through the body.

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  • 27. 

    Which clinical phase of rabies is described as: fever, nausea, vomiting, headache, fatigue; some experience pain, burning, tingling sensations at site of wound.

    • A.

      Furious phase.

    • B.

      Prodromal phase.

    • C.

      Dumb phase.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prodromal pHase.
    Explanation
    The prodromal phase of rabies is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, headache, and fatigue. Some individuals may also experience pain, burning, and tingling sensations at the site of the wound. This phase occurs before the onset of the more severe symptoms associated with the furious or dumb phases of rabies.

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  • 28. 

    Which clinical phase is described as: paralyzed, disoriented, stuporous; progress to coma phase, resulting in death.

    • A.

      Dumb phase.

    • B.

      Furious phase.

    • C.

      Prodromal phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dumb pHase.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Dumb phase." The description provided in the question matches the symptoms of the dumb phase of clinical rabies. During this phase, the individual may experience paralysis, disorientation, and stupor, which can progress to a coma and eventually lead to death. The dumb phase is characterized by a lack of the characteristic aggressive and hyperactive behavior seen in the furious phase of rabies.

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  • 29. 

    Which clinical phase of rabies is described as: agitation, disorientation, seiqures, twitching, hydrophobia.

    • A.

      Prodromal phase.

    • B.

      Dumb phase.

    • C.

      Furious phase.

    Correct Answer
    C. Furious pHase.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Furious phase. This phase of rabies is characterized by symptoms such as agitation, disorientation, seizures, twitching, and hydrophobia. During this phase, the infected individual may exhibit aggressive behavior, become hypersensitive to stimuli, and have difficulty swallowing due to muscle spasms in the throat. These symptoms are a result of the virus affecting the central nervous system.

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  • 30. 

    Treatment for rabies includes:

    • A.

      Autopsy.

    • B.

      Infuse the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) and globulin.

    • C.

      Vaccination with an activated vaccine.

    Correct Answer
    B. Infuse the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) and globulin.
    Explanation
    Infuse the would with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG) and globulin; vaccination with human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV), an INactivated vaccine given in 6 doses with 2 boosters.

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  • 31. 

    Coronaviruses are:

    • A.

      DNA viruses.

    • B.

      RNA viruses.

    Correct Answer
    B. RNA viruses.
    Explanation
    Relatively large RNA viruses with distinctively spaced spikes on their envelopes.

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  • 32. 

    Coronaviruses are capable of causing:

    • A.

      Mumps.

    • B.

      Chicken pox.

    • C.

      Colds.

    • D.

      Enteric disorders.

    • E.

      Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Colds.
    D. Enteric disorders.
    E. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
    Explanation
    Coronaviruses are a family of viruses that can cause a range of illnesses in humans. They are known to cause colds, which are mild respiratory infections characterized by symptoms such as runny nose, sore throat, and cough. Additionally, some coronaviruses can cause enteric disorders, which are gastrointestinal infections that lead to symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting. The most severe form of coronavirus infection is known as Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), which can cause severe respiratory distress and even death. Therefore, the correct answer includes colds, enteric disorders, and SARS as illnesses caused by coronaviruses.

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  • 33. 

    Rubella was eliminated in the US in 1966.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    However, outbreaks still occur among groups that refuse vaccination.

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  • 34. 

    Another name for Rubella is:

    • A.

      Measles.

    • B.

      Mumps.

    • C.

      Influenza.

    • D.

      Chicken pox.

    • E.

      German measles.

    Correct Answer
    E. German measles.
    Explanation
    Rubella is commonly known as German measles. It is a contagious viral infection that causes a rash and fever. The term "German measles" is used to differentiate it from regular measles, which is caused by a different virus. Rubella is characterized by a mild illness, but it can be dangerous for pregnant women as it can cause birth defects.

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  • 35. 

    What are the two clinical forms of Rubella?

    • A.

      Congenital.

    • B.

      Geriatric.

    • C.

      Neonatal.

    • D.

      Postnatal.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Congenital.
    D. Postnatal.
    Explanation
    Postnatal rubella = malaise, fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, rash, generally mild, lasting about 3 days. Congenital (intrauterine) rubella = infection during 1st trimester most likely to induce miscarriage or multiple defects such as cardiac abnormalities, ocular lesions, deafness, mental and physical retardation.

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  • 36. 

    How is Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) acquired?

    • A.

      Respiratory droplets.

    • B.

      Blood contact.

    • C.

      Fecal/oral route.

    • D.

      Sexually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Blood contact.
    Explanation
    Blood transfusions, needle sharing by drug abusers.

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  • 37. 

    There is no cure for Hepatitis C Virus (HCV).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Treatment with interferon and ribavirin to lessen liver damage; no cure. No vaccine.

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  • 38. 

    What are some examples of arthropod vectors that are capable of spreading viruses?

    • A.

      Lobsters.

    • B.

      Mosquitoes.

    • C.

      Ticks.

    • D.

      Flies.

    • E.

      Raccoons.

    • F.

      Gnats.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Mosquitoes.
    C. Ticks.
    D. Flies.
    F. Gnats.
    Explanation
    These viruses are called Arboviruses - includes togaviruses, flaviviruses, some bunyaviruses and reoviruses.

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  • 39. 

    What purpose(s) can humans serve in the arbovirus life cycle?

    • A.

      They can serve as vectors.

    • B.

      They can serve as dead-ends, accidental hosts.

    • C.

      They can serve as maintenance reservoirs.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. They can serve as dead-ends, accidental hosts.
    C. They can serve as maintenance reservoirs.
    Explanation
    Humans can serve as dead-ends or accidental hosts in the arbovirus life cycle, meaning that they can become infected with the virus but do not contribute to its transmission. This can occur when a mosquito or other arthropod vector bites an infected human and then bites another susceptible host, thus passing on the virus. Humans can also serve as maintenance reservoirs, meaning that they can harbor the virus and transmit it to other susceptible hosts over an extended period of time, contributing to the persistence and spread of the virus in the population.

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  • 40. 

    With regard to arboviruses, controlling the vector controls the disease.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Controlling the vector, which refers to the organism that transmits the virus, is an effective way to control the spread of arboviruses. Arboviruses are primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes, ticks, or other vectors. By implementing measures to control these vectors, such as using insecticides, eliminating breeding sites, and implementing personal protective measures, the transmission of arboviruses can be significantly reduced. Therefore, the statement "With regard to arboviruses, controlling the vector controls the disease" is true.

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  • 41. 

    Types of arboviruses include:

    • A.

      Colorado tick fever (CTF)

    • B.

      Western equine encephalitis (WEE)

    • C.

      Eastern equine encephalitis (EEE)

    • D.

      California encephalitis

    • E.

      St. Louis encephalitis (SLE)

    • F.

      West Nile encephalitis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Colorado tick fever (CTF)
    B. Western equine encepHalitis (WEE)
    C. Eastern equine encepHalitis (EEE)
    D. California encepHalitis
    E. St. Louis encepHalitis (SLE)
    F. West Nile encepHalitis
    Explanation
    CTF = most common tick-borne viral fever in US; Rocky Mountain states. WEE = western US and Canada - extremely dangerous to infants and small children. EEE = easter US and Canada. California encephalitis = 2 different strains, California strain has little human impact, LaCrosse strain is a prevalent cause of viral encephalitis. SLE = most common of all in America - epidemics in midwestern and souther states.

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  • 42. 

    Which pattern of transmission is properly matched with its hosts?A. humans and mosquitoesB. forest monkeys and mosquitoes

    • A.

      A = Urban cycle, B = Sylvan cycle.

    • B.

      A = Slyvan cycle, B = Urban cycle.

    • C.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. A = Urban cycle, B = Sylvan cycle.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A = Urban cycle, B = Sylvan cycle. This means that humans and mosquitoes are properly matched with the urban cycle, while forest monkeys and mosquitoes are properly matched with the sylvan cycle. This suggests that humans and mosquitoes are more likely to be involved in transmission in urban areas, while forest monkeys and mosquitoes are more likely to be involved in transmission in forested areas.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following are symptoms of Hemorrhagic Fevers?

    • A.

      Acute fever

    • B.

      Headache

    • C.

      Muscle pain

    • D.

      Oral hemorrhage

    • E.

      Jaundice

    • F.

      Liver and kidney damage

    • G.

      Death

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Acute fever
    B. Headache
    C. Muscle pain
    D. Oral hemorrhage
    E. Jaundice
    F. Liver and kidney damage
    G. Death
    Explanation
    Hemorrhagic fevers are characterized by various symptoms including acute fever, headache, muscle pain, oral hemorrhage, jaundice, liver and kidney damage, and even death. These symptoms are commonly observed in individuals affected by hemorrhagic fevers.

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  • 44. 

    Are retroviruses enveloped?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    Retroviruses are enveloped viruses, meaning they have a lipid membrane surrounding their protein coat. This membrane is derived from the host cell's plasma membrane as the virus buds out of the cell during the replication process. The envelope plays a crucial role in the virus's ability to infect host cells and evade the immune system.

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  • 45. 

    What are the hallmarks of retroviruses?

    • A.

      Little to no virulence.

    • B.

      Reverse transcription.

    • C.

      Integration into host genome.

    • D.

      Composed of DNA and RNA.

    • E.

      Mimic the host's cells.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Reverse transcription.
    C. Integration into host genome.
    Explanation
    Reverse transcription - high error rate = rapid evolution, RT>RNA pol > DNA pol. Integration into host genome - markers of evolution, insertional activation of oncogenes, gene delivery vectors.

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  • 46. 

    In regard to HIV, in vaginal sex there is a higher transmission rate:

    • A.

      From women to men.

    • B.

      From men to women.

    • C.

      HIV is not transmitted sexually.

    Correct Answer
    B. From men to women.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is from men to women. This is because during vaginal sex, the virus can enter the woman's bloodstream through small tears or abrasions in the vaginal lining, making it easier for HIV to be transmitted from an infected man to an uninfected woman. However, it is important to note that HIV can also be transmitted from women to men during vaginal sex, although the transmission rate is generally lower.

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  • 47. 

    IV drug abusers can be HIV carriers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Significant factor in spread to heterosexual population.

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  • 48. 

    HIV can infect all host cells.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    HIV can only infect host cells that have the required CD4 marker plus a coreceptor.

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  • 49. 

    HIV is a human retrovirus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    genus Lentivirus - other human retroviruses = T-cell lymphotropic viruses I and II, leukemia and lymphoma.

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  • 50. 

    What purpose does the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme serve?

    • A.

      Permanently integrates the viral genes into host DNA.

    • B.

      Lyses the host cells for virla spread.

    • C.

      Destroys the host's reverse transcriptase.

    • D.

      Makes a double stranded DNA from the single-stranded RNA genome.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Permanently integrates the viral genes into host DNA.
    D. Makes a double stranded DNA from the single-stranded RNA genome.
    Explanation
    The HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme serves two purposes. First, it makes a double stranded DNA from the single-stranded RNA genome of the virus. This is a crucial step in the replication of the virus. Second, it permanently integrates the viral genes into the host DNA. This allows the virus to become a part of the host's genetic material and ensures its persistence within the host's cells.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 13, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Cdtiller
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