Maternal Complications During Pregnancy - Ob / GYN Part 2

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GYN Quizzes & Trivia

Part 2 of Maternal Complications


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    This is a condition in pregnancy characterized by a deficiency of amniotic fluid. It is the opposite of polyhydramnios.  

    Explanation
    Oligohydramnios is a condition in pregnancy where there is a deficiency of amniotic fluid. This means that there is a lower than normal amount of fluid surrounding the baby in the womb. It is the opposite of polyhydramnios, which is a condition characterized by an excess amount of amniotic fluid. Oligohydramnios can be caused by various factors such as fetal kidney problems, placental dysfunction, or ruptured membranes. It can have implications for the baby's development and may require medical intervention to manage.

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  • 2. 

    What does IUGR stand for?

    Explanation
    IUGR stands for intrauterine growth restriction. This term refers to a condition where a baby does not grow at the expected rate inside the womb. It can occur due to various factors such as maternal health issues, placental problems, or genetic factors. Intrauterine growth restriction can lead to complications during pregnancy and may result in a baby being born with a low birth weight.

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  • 3. 

    This refers to poor growth of a baby while in the womb.  It specifically refers to the fetus whose weight is below the 10th percentile for its gestational age.

    Explanation
    IUGR stands for intrauterine growth restriction. It is a condition characterized by poor growth of a baby while in the womb. Specifically, it refers to a fetus whose weight is below the 10th percentile for its gestational age. This means that the baby is smaller than average for the number of weeks of pregnancy. IUGR can be caused by various factors such as maternal health conditions, placental problems, or genetic factors. It is important to monitor and manage IUGR to ensure the well-being of the baby.

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  • 4. 

    Toxemia is also known as:

    Explanation
    Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs such as the liver and kidneys. Toxemia is an older term used to describe this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is pre-eclampsia.

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  • 5. 

    What is the most common maternal infection in pregnancy:

    Explanation
    Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common maternal infection in pregnancy. CMV is a common virus that can be transmitted through bodily fluids, such as saliva, urine, and breast milk. Pregnant women who contract CMV may pass the infection to their unborn baby, which can lead to various complications including hearing loss, developmental delays, and vision problems. Therefore, it is important for pregnant women to take precautions to prevent CMV infection, such as practicing good hygiene and avoiding close contact with individuals who may be infected.

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  • 6. 

    Incompetent cervix usually occurs during which trimester?

    Explanation
    Incompetent cervix typically occurs during the second trimester of pregnancy. This condition is characterized by the cervix becoming weak and unable to support the growing fetus, leading to premature labor or miscarriage. During the second trimester, the weight of the fetus increases, putting more pressure on the cervix. This can cause it to open too soon, resulting in complications. Therefore, it is crucial for pregnant women to be aware of the signs and symptoms of incompetent cervix during the second trimester to seek appropriate medical intervention.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for PROM?

    • A.

      Gestational diabetes

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      CVS

    • D.

      Multiple elective abortions

    Correct Answer
    A. Gestational diabetes
    Explanation
    Gestational diabetes is not a risk factor for PROM (premature rupture of membranes). PROM refers to the rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor. Risk factors for PROM include hypertension, CVS (chorionic villus sampling), and multiple elective abortions. However, gestational diabetes is not associated with an increased risk of PROM.

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  • 8. 

    Cervical cerclage is used to treat _____________  __________.

    Correct Answer
    incompetent cervix
    Explanation
    Cervical cerclage is a medical procedure used to treat an incompetent cervix. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened or insufficient cervix that is unable to support a pregnancy. This condition can lead to premature birth or miscarriage. Cervical cerclage involves stitching the cervix closed to provide support and prevent it from opening prematurely. By reinforcing the cervix, this procedure helps to maintain the pregnancy and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • 9. 

    A patient presents with a blood pressure of 150/95, pitting edema weight gain and proteinuria.  Upon completing the exam which condition should be noted to the doctor?

    Correct Answer
    pre-eclampsia
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of high blood pressure, pitting edema, weight gain, and proteinuria are indicative of pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy-related condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs such as the liver and kidneys. It can be dangerous for both the mother and the baby if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to note this condition to the doctor for proper diagnosis and management.

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  • 10. 

    What type of cerclage is permanent and results in C-section deliveries?

    Correct Answer
    shirodkar
    Explanation
    The Shirodkar cerclage is a permanent type of cerclage that involves stitching the cervix closed with a non-absorbable thread. This procedure is typically performed during pregnancy to prevent premature birth or miscarriage. Since the cervix is stitched closed, a C-section delivery is necessary for the baby to be born.

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  • 11. 

    A patient in her 2nd trimester presents with shortened cervical length and a history of previous pregnancy termination.  Which complication should be considered?

    Correct Answer
    incompetent cervix
    Explanation
    Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix is weak and begins to dilate prematurely during pregnancy. This can lead to preterm birth or miscarriage. In this case, the patient's shortened cervical length and history of previous pregnancy termination suggest a potential risk for incompetent cervix. It is important to consider this complication and monitor the patient closely to prevent any adverse outcomes.

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  • 12. 

    Select all of the following that pertain to the major dangers of hyperemesis gravidarum:

    • A.

      Dehydration

    • B.

      Rapid heartbeat and vitamin deficit

    • C.

      Can lead to placental insufficiency

    • D.

      Can lead to fetal demise

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Dehydration
    B. Rapid heartbeat and vitamin deficit
    C. Can lead to placental insufficiency
    D. Can lead to fetal demise
    Explanation
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness during pregnancy that can lead to several major dangers. Dehydration is a significant risk due to excessive vomiting and inability to retain fluids. Rapid heartbeat and vitamin deficit can occur as a result of electrolyte imbalances caused by prolonged vomiting. Placental insufficiency is another danger, as hyperemesis gravidarum can affect blood flow to the placenta, potentially leading to complications for the fetus. In severe cases, hyperemesis gravidarum can even lead to fetal demise, making it crucial to manage and treat this condition effectively.

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  • 13. 

    Any severe, maternal infection may cause __________ abortion, fetal demise and/or _________ labor and delivery.

    Correct Answer(s)
    spontaneous, premature
    Explanation
    Severe maternal infections can lead to spontaneous abortion, which is the loss of pregnancy before the 20th week. These infections can also result in premature labor and delivery, where the baby is born before completing the full term of 37-40 weeks.

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  • 14. 

    The most common infections in pregnancy are: (TORCH)

    Correct Answer(s)
    toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes
    toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes all four infections commonly known as TORCH infections in pregnancy: toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes. These infections can be harmful to the fetus and can cause a range of complications including birth defects, developmental issues, and even miscarriage. It is important for pregnant women to take precautions and seek medical advice to prevent and manage these infections during pregnancy.

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  • 15. 

    This is caused by protozoa commonly found in cat feces and uncooked meat.

    Correct Answer(s)
    toxoplasmosis
    Explanation
    Toxoplasmosis is caused by protozoa that are commonly found in cat feces and uncooked meat. These protozoa, known as Toxoplasma gondii, can infect humans if they come into contact with contaminated soil, water, or food. Cats are the primary hosts of these protozoa, and they can shed the infectious form of the parasite in their feces. Additionally, consuming undercooked or raw meat, particularly pork, lamb, and venison, can also lead to infection. Therefore, exposure to cat feces or consuming contaminated meat are the main routes of transmission for toxoplasmosis.

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  • 16. 

    This is also known as the german measles and is extremely teratogenic for the fetus.  Exposure during the 1st 5 weeks is most dangerous.

    Correct Answer(s)
    rubella
    Explanation
    Rubella, also known as German measles, is a highly contagious viral infection. It is extremely teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects in the fetus if a pregnant woman is exposed to the virus. The first five weeks of pregnancy are considered the most dangerous period for exposure to rubella. Therefore, it is crucial for pregnant women to avoid contact with individuals who have rubella to prevent potential harm to the developing baby.

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  • 17. 

    This is a member of the herpes virus family. It is the MOST COMMON infection in PREGNANCY and may cause fetal demise if exposed in the 1st trimester.

    Correct Answer(s)
    cytomegalovirus
    Explanation
    Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a member of the herpes virus family and is the most common infection in pregnancy. If a pregnant woman is exposed to CMV during the first trimester, it can potentially cause fetal demise. This highlights the significance of CMV as a potential risk factor during pregnancy, emphasizing the importance of prevention and early detection measures.

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  • 18. 

    This virus is usually transmitted to the fetus during vaginal delivery.

    Correct Answer(s)
    herpes
    Explanation
    Herpes is a viral infection that can be transmitted through direct contact with the herpes simplex virus (HSV). It is commonly transmitted through sexual contact, but in the case of a pregnant woman, the virus can also be transmitted to the fetus during vaginal delivery. This is known as perinatal transmission. It is important for pregnant women with a history of genital herpes to inform their healthcare provider to take necessary precautions and reduce the risk of transmission to the baby.

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  • 19. 

    Parvo virus (fifths disease) and Group B strep are classified as MISC. infections.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Parvo virus (fifths disease) and Group B strep are classified as MISC. infections. This statement is true. Parvo virus, also known as fifth disease, is a viral infection that commonly affects children. Group B strep, on the other hand, is a type of bacteria that can cause infections in newborns, pregnant women, and adults with certain medical conditions. Both of these infections fall under the category of MISC. (miscellaneous) infections, which refers to infections that do not fit into specific categories or groups.

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  • 20. 

    Risk of deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy is due to _______________ of blood during pregnancy and changes in vein walls.

    Correct Answer
    hypercoagulability
    Explanation
    During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of certain clotting factors in the blood, which leads to a state of hypercoagulability. This means that the blood is more prone to clotting than usual. Additionally, the changes in vein walls during pregnancy, such as increased pressure and decreased blood flow, further contribute to the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

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  • 21. 

    The inability of the cervix to prevent the premature expulsion of the fetus is termed:

    Correct Answer
    incompetent cervix
    Explanation
    The term "incompetent cervix" refers to the condition where the cervix is unable to remain closed and tight during pregnancy, leading to the premature expulsion of the fetus. This can occur due to a weakened or damaged cervix, often as a result of previous surgeries or trauma. The inability of the cervix to function properly in maintaining the pregnancy can result in preterm birth or miscarriage.

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  • 22. 

    Incompetent cervix may be acquired or _________, and is most commonly associated with cervical traumas and causes _________ abortions.

    Correct Answer
    congenital, habitual
    Explanation
    Incompetent cervix may be acquired or congenital, and is most commonly associated with cervical traumas and causes habitual abortions.

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  • 23. 

    Check all that apply to incompetent cervix:

    • A.

      Occurs in 2nd trimester

    • B.

      Dilatation is painless and bloodless

    • C.

      Shortened cervical length

    • D.

      Minimal symptoms

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Occurs in 2nd trimester
    B. Dilatation is painless and bloodless
    C. Shortened cervical length
    D. Minimal symptoms
    Explanation
    Incompetent cervix refers to a condition where the cervix is weak and unable to support the weight of the growing fetus, leading to premature dilation and delivery. This condition typically occurs in the second trimester of pregnancy. The dilatation of the cervix in incompetent cervix is painless and bloodless, which distinguishes it from other causes of preterm labor. Additionally, a shortened cervical length is often observed on ultrasound examination. Minimal symptoms may be present, further indicating the possibility of an incompetent cervix.

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  • 24. 

    Risk factors of incompetent cervix:

    • A.

      History of incompetent cervix

    • B.

      Anatomic abnormalities

    • C.

      Cervical conization or surgeries

    • D.

      DES exposure

    • E.

      Damaged cervix

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. History of incompetent cervix
    B. Anatomic abnormalities
    C. Cervical conization or surgeries
    D. DES exposure
    E. Damaged cervix
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes various risk factors for incompetent cervix. These include a history of incompetent cervix, anatomic abnormalities, cervical conization or surgeries, DES exposure, and a damaged cervix. These factors can weaken or alter the structure of the cervix, making it unable to support a growing fetus, leading to the risk of premature birth or miscarriage.

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  • 25. 

    The best time to treat incompetent cervix is between ___ and ____ weeks of pregnancy before the dilatation occurs.

    Correct Answer(s)
    12, 18
    Explanation
    The best time to treat incompetent cervix is between 12 and 18 weeks of pregnancy before the dilatation occurs. This is because during this time frame, the cervix is still relatively stable and has not yet started to dilate. Treating the condition within this window allows for interventions such as cerclage (a surgical procedure to reinforce the cervix) to be performed effectively, reducing the risk of complications like premature birth or miscarriage.

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  • 26. 

    Restriction of activities and cervical cerclage are the treatments for __________ _______.

    Correct Answer(s)
    incompetent cervix
    Explanation
    The question asks for the treatments for a specific condition, which is an incompetent cervix. The correct answer states that the treatments for an incompetent cervix are restriction of activities and cervical cerclage. Cervical cerclage is a surgical procedure in which the cervix is stitched closed to provide support during pregnancy. Restriction of activities refers to limiting physical exertion and avoiding activities that may put strain on the cervix. These treatments aim to prevent premature birth or miscarriage in women with an incompetent cervix.

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  • 27. 

    What is the term used to describe when the cervix is sewn closed:

    Correct Answer(s)
    cervical cerclage
    Explanation
    Cervical cerclage is the term used to describe when the cervix is sewn closed. This procedure is typically done during pregnancy to help prevent premature birth or miscarriage. By stitching the cervix closed, it provides support and helps to keep it closed until it's time for delivery. Cervical cerclage is often recommended for women who have a history of premature birth or cervical incompetence.

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  • 28. 

    What are the 3 types of cerclages

    Correct Answer(s)
    McDonald, Shirodkar, Emergent
    Explanation
    The correct answer is McDonald, Shirodkar, Emergent. These are the three types of cerclages used in obstetrics. McDonald cerclage involves placing a suture around the cervix to reinforce it and prevent premature dilation. Shirodkar cerclage is similar to McDonald, but it involves placing a tape or band around the cervix instead of a suture. Emergent cerclage is performed in cases of imminent premature birth, where the cervix has already started to dilate. It is a last-resort procedure to try and prevent further dilation and delay delivery.

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  • 29. 

    What is the most common type of cerclage that is removed at about 37 weeks:

    Correct Answer(s)
    McDonald
    Explanation
    The most common type of cerclage that is removed at about 37 weeks is the McDonald cerclage.

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  • 30. 

    This cerclage is an advanced cervical dilation with bulging "hourglass" membranes

    Correct Answer(s)
    emergent
    Explanation
    The term "emergent" is used to describe a situation or condition that requires immediate attention or action. In the context of the given statement, it suggests that the described cerclage procedure is urgent and needs to be performed promptly. The use of the word "emergent" implies that there may be a critical or life-threatening situation that necessitates immediate intervention.

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  • 31. 

    What is the term used to describe the onset of labor before 37 weeks.

    Correct Answer(s)
    pre-term labor
    Explanation
    Pre-term labor is the correct term used to describe the onset of labor before 37 weeks of pregnancy. This means that the labor and delivery of the baby occur earlier than expected, which can pose risks and complications for both the mother and the baby. It is important to closely monitor and manage pre-term labor to ensure the best possible outcome for the mother and the baby.

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  • 32. 

    ________  ________ is responsible for approximately 85% of neonatal illnesses and deaths.

    Correct Answer(s)
    pre-term labor
    Explanation
    Pre-term labor is responsible for approximately 85% of neonatal illnesses and deaths. This means that the majority of illnesses and deaths in newborn babies are caused by babies being born before the full 37 weeks of gestation. Pre-term labor refers to the onset of regular contractions and cervical changes before the 37th week of pregnancy. Babies born prematurely are at a higher risk of various health complications and may require specialized medical care to survive.

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  • 33. 

    Etiologies of pre-term labor:

    • A.

      Maternal stress

    • B.

      Uterine anomalies

    • C.

      Smoking cigarettes

    • D.

      Multiple gestations

    • E.

      Polyhydramnios

    • F.

      Infections

    • G.

      Past history of pre-term

    • H.

      PROM

    • I.

      DES exposure

    • J.

      UTI

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Maternal stress
    B. Uterine anomalies
    C. Smoking cigarettes
    D. Multiple gestations
    E. Polyhydramnios
    F. Infections
    G. Past history of pre-term
    H. PROM
    I. DES exposure
    J. UTI
    Explanation
    The given answer lists various etiologies of pre-term labor, including maternal stress, uterine anomalies, smoking cigarettes, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, infections, past history of pre-term birth, PROM (premature rupture of membranes), DES (diethylstilbestrol) exposure, and UTI (urinary tract infection). These factors have been identified as potential causes or risk factors for pre-term labor, which occurs when a woman goes into labor before 37 weeks of gestation. Each of these factors can contribute to the onset of pre-term labor through different mechanisms, such as hormonal imbalances, inflammation, or increased uterine contractions.

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  • 34. 

    What does PROM stand for?

    Correct Answer(s)
    premature rupture of membranes
    Explanation
    PROM stands for premature rupture of membranes, which refers to the breaking of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor. This can occur spontaneously or may be induced by medical interventions. PROM can lead to complications such as infection and preterm birth.

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  • 35. 

    The spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac prior to the onset of labor is known as _______.

    Correct Answer(s)
    PROM
    Explanation
    PROM stands for Premature Rupture of Membranes, which refers to the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor. This can occur when the amniotic sac weakens or tears, causing the amniotic fluid to leak out. PROM can increase the risk of infection and may require medical intervention to prevent complications.

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  • 36. 

    PROM prior to 35 weeks gestation is associated with considerable neonatal ________ and ________.

    Correct Answer(s)
    morbidity, mortality
    Explanation
    PROM (premature rupture of membranes) occurring before 35 weeks gestation is linked to significant neonatal morbidity and mortality. This means that there is a high likelihood of health issues and even death among newborns in such cases.

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  • 37. 

    What is the clinical sign for PROM?

    Correct Answer(s)
    passage of large amounts of watery fluid from vagina
    large amounts of watery fluid from vagina
    large amounts of fluid form vagina
    Explanation
    The clinical sign for PROM is the passage of large amounts of watery fluid from the vagina. This indicates that the amniotic sac has ruptured, leading to the release of amniotic fluid. The presence of a significant amount of watery fluid is a key indicator of PROM and can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage the condition.

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  • 38. 

    Management of PROM may include induction of labor, _____________ ; antibiotics.

    Correct Answer(s)
    corticosteroids
    Explanation
    The management of PROM (premature rupture of membranes) may include the induction of labor and the use of antibiotics. Corticosteroids may also be used as part of the management plan. Corticosteroids are commonly administered to pregnant women who experience PROM to help promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. They have anti-inflammatory properties that can help prevent complications and improve the overall health outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

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  • 39. 

    Risk factors of PROM:

    • A.

      Vaginal group B strep

    • B.

      Multiple elective abortions

    • C.

      Smoking cigs

    • D.

      Invasive procedures

    • E.

      Hypertension

    • F.

      History of PROM

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Vaginal group B strep
    B. Multiple elective abortions
    C. Smoking cigs
    D. Invasive procedures
    E. Hypertension
    F. History of PROM
    Explanation
    The answer includes risk factors for PROM (premature rupture of membranes). Vaginal group B strep, multiple elective abortions, smoking cigarettes, invasive procedures, hypertension, and a history of PROM are all known to increase the risk of PROM. These factors can weaken the membranes surrounding the amniotic sac, leading to premature rupture.

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