Macro Practice Test 1

  • AP Econ
  • IB Economics
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1. 1) Scarcity

Explanation

Scarcity occurs because of unlimited wants and limited resources available to fulfill these wants. This means that there is a mismatch between the desires and needs of individuals and the resources available to satisfy them. It is not limited to developing nations or caused by the number of people. Even the wealthy can experience scarcity because their wants and desires are also unlimited, and there are always limitations on the resources available to fulfill them.

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About This Quiz
Economics Quizzes & Trivia

Macro Practice Test 1 assesses understanding of basic economic concepts such as scarcity, market operations, and rational behavior. It explores how individuals and markets respond to various economic incentives and constraints.

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2. 61) Which of the following would be an example of a pair of complements? A) gasoline and automobiles B) apples and bananas C) cooking oil and golf balls D) shoes and sandals.

Explanation

Gasoline and automobiles are an example of complements because they are two things that are often used together. Gasoline is needed to power automobiles, so they are dependent on each other. Apples and bananas, cooking oil and golf balls, and shoes and sandals do not have the same level of interdependence and are not considered complements.

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3. 104) What is globalization? A) An effort to produce economic growth by high tariffs. B) A process of encouraging nations to become more open to foreign trade and investment. C) Move to unify the world under a single government. D) None of these accurately define globalization.

Explanation

Globalization is the process of encouraging nations to become more open to foreign trade and investment. It involves promoting economic integration and interdependence among countries, allowing for the free flow of goods, services, capital, and ideas across borders. This can lead to increased economic growth, cultural exchange, and technological advancement. The other options, such as high tariffs or unifying the world under a single government, do not accurately define globalization.

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4. 128) The underground or informal economy can be described as A) production of infrastructure that spurs growth in the rest of the economy. B) economic activity that is hidden from the government to avoid taxes or because the activity is illegal. C) production of intermediate goods and services. D) economic production that includes mining.

Explanation

The correct answer is B) economic activity that is hidden from the government to avoid taxes or because the activity is illegal. This answer accurately describes the underground or informal economy, which consists of economic activities that are not reported to the government in order to evade taxes or because the activities are illegal. This can include activities such as undeclared work, smuggling, and black market transactions.

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5. 4) Where are buyers and sellers brought together? A) Only in cities, towns, and villages. B) A market, which can be a location or an electronic connection. C) A market, which has to be a physical location. D) Only in shopping malls.

Explanation

Buyers and sellers are brought together in a market, which can be either a physical location or an electronic connection. This means that they can meet in traditional markets in cities, towns, and villages, as well as in online marketplaces. The correct answer is B.

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6. 62) Which of the following would be an example of substitute goods? A) computers and printers B) gasoline and automobiles C) automobiles and motorcycles D) cooking oil and golf balls

Explanation

Automobiles and motorcycles would be an example of substitute goods because they serve a similar purpose and can be used interchangeably. If the price of automobiles increases, consumers may choose to purchase motorcycles instead as a substitute. Similarly, if the price of motorcycles increases, consumers may choose to purchase automobiles instead.

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7. 27) What points are unattainable on a production possibilities frontier? A) Points along the production possibilities frontier. B) Points outside the production possibilities frontier. C) Points within the production possibilities frontier. D) None of these sets of points on a production possibilities frontier.

Explanation

The correct answer is B) Points outside the production possibilities frontier. This means that any combination of goods or services that is not achievable given the current resources and technology is considered unattainable. The production possibilities frontier represents the maximum potential output of an economy, so any point beyond that frontier would require more resources or improved technology.

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8. 88) If a nation has an comparative advantage in producing a good or service, this means that A) using the same amount of resources, this nation can produce the good at a lower opportunity cost than any other nation. B) the nation is the only possible producer of the good in the world. C) the nation has a monopoly in the production of the good. D) using the same amount of resources, this nation can produce more of the good than any other nation.

Explanation

If a nation has a comparative advantage in producing a good or service, it means that using the same amount of resources, this nation can produce the good at a lower opportunity cost than any other nation. This means that the nation can produce the good more efficiently and effectively compared to other nations, allowing it to specialize in the production of that particular good or service. This can lead to increased productivity, economic growth, and trade advantages for the nation.

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9. 29) Which of the following terms means the highest valued alternative given up when a person chooses to engage in an activity? A) opportunity cost B) accounting cost C) dollar cost D) none of these

Explanation

The term that means the highest valued alternative given up when a person chooses to engage in an activity is "opportunity cost". This refers to the value of the next best alternative that is forgone when making a choice. It represents the potential benefits or profits that could have been obtained if a different decision had been made.

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10. 57) The income effect occurs when A) buyers buying more of a good because their real income has increased. B) buyers buy more of a relatively cheaper good when the price of a substitute rises. C) sellers hire more workers because buyers incomes have increased. D) sellers producing more output because their profit has increased.

Explanation

The income effect refers to the phenomenon where buyers increase their consumption of a good when their real income (purchasing power) increases. This means that as individuals have more money to spend, they are able to afford and purchase more of a particular good. This is different from the substitution effect, where buyers switch to a cheaper alternative when the price of a substitute rises. The other options, hiring more workers due to increased buyer incomes and producing more output due to increased profit, are not related to the income effect.

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11. 130) The unemployment rate is A) the percentage of the labor force that is employed. B) the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed. C) the percentage of the number employed that is unemployed. D) the percentage of the working age population that is employed. E) the percentage of the working age population that is unemployed.

Explanation

The correct answer is B) the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed. The unemployment rate is a measure of the proportion of the labor force that is actively seeking employment but unable to find a job. It does not include those who are not in the labor force, such as students, retirees, or stay-at-home parents. Therefore, option B accurately describes the unemployment rate as the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed.

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12. 2) Economics is the study of

Explanation

Economics is the study of the choices that individuals, businesses, and governments make in order to achieve their goals, given the limited resources available to them. It involves analyzing how people allocate their resources, such as time, money, and labor, in order to maximize their satisfaction or utility. This includes studying topics such as supply and demand, market behavior, production, consumption, and distribution of goods and services. Therefore, option C accurately describes the scope and focus of economics.

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13. 24) Why do people trade with each other instead of living on what they themselves produce? A) So you can take advantage of others and maybe get something for nothing. B) By engaging in trade people can raise their standard of living. C) To be able to amass large amounts of money like Scrooge. D) Because that is what everybody else does.

Explanation

Engaging in trade allows people to specialize in producing what they are most efficient at, while also being able to obtain goods and services that they cannot produce themselves. This leads to increased productivity and efficiency, ultimately raising the standard of living for individuals and society as a whole.

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14. 59) Which of the following means everything else held constant? A) carpe diem B) post hoc, proctor hoc C) ceterius paribus D) none of these

Explanation

The correct answer is C) ceterius paribus. This Latin phrase means "all other things being equal" or "everything else held constant." It is often used in economics and other social sciences to isolate the effect of a specific variable by assuming that all other factors remain unchanged.

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15. 22) How can the influence of a third variable be shown on a two dimensional graph? A) By drawing a third axis coming out of the two axes. B) By allowing the position of the relationship line or curve to shift on the graph. C) It can't because the graph only has two dimensions. D) None of these.

Explanation

The influence of a third variable can be shown on a two dimensional graph by allowing the position of the relationship line or curve to shift on the graph. This means that as the third variable changes, the relationship between the two variables on the graph will also change, indicating the influence of the third variable. This allows for a visual representation of how the third variable affects the relationship between the two variables being plotted.

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16. 111) An example of final good would be A) a soy latte sold by Starbucks to a student. B) the coffee beans sold to Starbucks. C) the whipped cream sold to Starbucks. D) the soy milk sold to Starbucks.

Explanation

An example of a final good would be a soy latte sold by Starbucks to a student. This is because the soy latte is the end product that is directly consumed by the customer. The coffee beans, whipped cream, and soy milk are all intermediate goods that are used in the production process of the soy latte, but they are not the final product that is sold to the customer.

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17. 112) Home Depot sells new and used doors to contractors who build new homes..  Home Depot also sells new and used doors to homeowners.  Which of the following would be counted in GDP? A) The sale of a new door to homeowner. B) The sale of a used door to TapKon construction for installation into a new home. C) The sale of a new door to TapKon construction for installation into a new home. D) The sale of a used door to a homeowner.

Explanation

The sale of a new door to a homeowner would be counted in GDP because it represents a transaction of a final good or service within the domestic economy.

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18. 132) The labor force participation rate is defined as A) the percentage of the working-age population in the labor force. B) the percentage of the working-age population that is employed. C) the percentage of the labor force that is employed. D) the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed. E) the percentage of the working-age population that is unemployed.

Explanation

The labor force participation rate is defined as the percentage of the working-age population in the labor force. This means it includes both employed and unemployed individuals who are actively seeking employment. Option A accurately describes this definition, making it the correct answer. Option B refers specifically to the employment rate, which only includes those who are employed. Option C refers to the employment-to-population ratio, which measures the percentage of the labor force that is employed. Option D refers to the unemployment rate, which measures the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed. Option E refers to the unemployment-to-population ratio, which measures the percentage of the working-age population that is unemployed.

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19. 19) Why are so many graphs used in economics? A) Complications can be more easily overcome by abstract simplifications made possible using graphs. B) All of these reasons are why so many graphs are used in economics. C) Graphs illustrate and simplify economic ideas. D) Graphs highlight key economic relationships.

Explanation

Graphs are used in economics for several reasons. They help to illustrate and simplify economic ideas, allowing for a clearer understanding of complex concepts. Graphs also highlight key economic relationships, making it easier to identify patterns and trends. Additionally, complications in economics can be more easily overcome by using abstract simplifications made possible through graphs. Therefore, all of these reasons contribute to why so many graphs are used in economics.

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20. 68) If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is A) an inferior good. B) a normal good. C) a good for which the law of demand does not apply. D) a luxury good.

Explanation

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, it suggests that the good is an inferior good. Inferior goods are those for which demand decreases when consumer income increases. In this case, the increase in demand during high unemployment suggests that people are likely purchasing this good because they can no longer afford more expensive alternatives.

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21. 76) At the market equilibrium, A) quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded. B) quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied. C) quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. D) none of these is correct.

Explanation

At the market equilibrium, quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied. This means that the quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to buy is exactly equal to the quantity that producers are willing and able to sell. This balance is achieved when the market price reaches a point where both consumers and producers are satisfied with the quantity being exchanged.

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22. 131) A full time student who is not working is categorized as A) not in the labor force. B) a discouraged worker. C) frictionally unemployed. D) unemployed. E) employed.

Explanation

A full-time student who is not working is categorized as "not in the labor force" because they are not actively seeking employment or available for work. They are not considered unemployed because they are not actively looking for a job, and they are not considered employed because they are not currently working.

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23. 6) What does the adjective marginal mean in economics? A) Something done at the edge of a market, like buying a table at a garage sale. B) Buying something that is illegal to buy. C) Incremental, additional, or extra of some action. D) None of these illustrate how the word marginal is used in economics.

Explanation

The adjective "marginal" in economics means incremental, additional, or extra of some action. It refers to the small changes or additions made to a certain activity or decision. This term is commonly used to analyze the effects of small changes in variables such as production, cost, or revenue on the overall economic outcome.

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24. 8) Every society faces economic tradeoffs, which means A) if one political party controls the government, the other party can't. B) some people live better than others do. C) producing less of one good means more of another good can be produced. D) none of these.

Explanation

Every society faces economic tradeoffs, which means that producing less of one good means more of another good can be produced. This implies that resources are limited and choices have to be made on how to allocate them. By choosing to produce more of one good, society has to give up the production of another good. This concept of tradeoffs is fundamental to economics and highlights the need for efficient resource allocation.

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25. 9) What forces humans to make tradeoffs? A) productive inefficiency B) confusion C) scarcity D) more than one political party

Explanation

Humans are forced to make tradeoffs because of scarcity. Scarcity refers to the limited availability of resources, such as time, money, and natural resources, in relation to the unlimited wants and needs of individuals and society. Due to this scarcity, individuals must make choices and tradeoffs in order to allocate their limited resources effectively. This means that when humans choose to prioritize one thing, they must give up or tradeoff other things.

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26. 17) Which of the following is a positive economic statement? A) If the price of gasoline rises, a smaller quantity of it will be bought. B) The government should close income tax loopholes. C) Everyone should live at the same standard of living. D) U.S. firms should not be allowed to practice outsourcing.

Explanation

The correct answer is A) If the price of gasoline rises, a smaller quantity of it will be bought. This statement is a positive economic statement because it describes a cause-and-effect relationship in the economy. It states that when the price of gasoline increases, the quantity demanded will decrease, which is a basic economic principle.

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27. 20) Which of the following is correct? A) All of these are correct. B) A direct relationship has a positive slope value. C) An inverse relationship has a negative slope value. D) A curved line has slope values that change at every point.

Explanation

The correct answer is A) All of these are correct. This means that all of the statements given in options B, C, and D are true. A direct relationship does have a positive slope value, an inverse relationship does have a negative slope value, and a curved line does have slope values that change at every point. Therefore, option A is the correct answer because it encompasses all of the correct statements.

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28. 135) The short term unemployment arising from the process of matching workers with jobs  is called A) unnatural unemployment. B) frictional unemployment. C) seasonal unemployment. D) cyclical unemployment. E) structural unemployment.

Explanation

Frictional unemployment refers to the temporary unemployment that occurs when individuals are in the process of transitioning between jobs. This can happen when someone voluntarily leaves their job to search for a new one or when someone is laid off and is actively seeking new employment. It is called "frictional" because it is a natural part of the job market and occurs due to the time it takes for individuals to find suitable job opportunities.

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29. 12) Which of the following is a problem inherent in centrally planned economies? A) Production managers do not satisfy consumer wants but the government's orders. B) There are no problems, everyone including consumers are satisfied. C) Too much production of low-cost, high-quality goods and services. D) None of these describe the problem inherent in a centrally planned economy.

Explanation

In centrally planned economies, production managers prioritize fulfilling the government's orders rather than satisfying consumer wants. This can lead to a mismatch between what consumers actually need and what is being produced, resulting in goods and services that may not meet consumer demands or preferences.

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30. 36) Without an increase in the supplies of factors of production, how can a nation grow economically? A) By lowering the price of factors of production. B) Through technological advance which enables more output with the same resource supplies. C) It cannot. D) By increasing the price of factors of production.

Explanation

Technological advance allows a nation to produce more output with the same amount of resources. This means that even without an increase in the supplies of factors of production, the nation can still grow economically by becoming more efficient and productive through the use of technology.

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31. 93) What is outsourcing? A) Exporting a good or service to buyers in other countries. B) Foreign workers are hired by a domestic firm to produce something sold domestically. C) Importing a manufactured good made by a foreign firm. D) None of these correctly describes outsourcing.

Explanation

Outsourcing refers to the practice of hiring foreign workers by a domestic firm to produce goods or services that are then sold domestically. This involves delegating specific tasks or processes to external parties, often in countries where labor costs are lower. This allows companies to benefit from cost savings, access specialized skills, and focus on core competencies. Option B accurately describes outsourcing as it involves hiring foreign workers to produce something sold domestically.

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32. 30) The production possibilities frontier model can be applied to which of the following? A) a firm B) the whole economy C) an individual D) all of these

Explanation

The correct answer is D) all of these. The production possibilities frontier model can be applied to a firm, the whole economy, or an individual. This model illustrates the different combinations of goods and services that can be produced given the available resources and technology. It helps to analyze trade-offs and opportunity costs in production decisions. Therefore, it is applicable to all levels of economic analysis, from microeconomic decisions of a firm or individual to macroeconomic decisions of the whole economy.

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33. 38) What is the reason people trade with each other? A) All of these reasons. B) By specializing in one activity our production increases. C) Specialization by individual people implies trade by everyone. D) People who specialize must trade with others for what they want to consume.

Explanation

People trade with each other for various reasons. By specializing in one activity, our production increases, which leads to economic growth. Specialization by individuals implies trade by everyone, as individuals cannot produce everything they need. People who specialize in certain goods or services must trade with others to obtain what they want to consume. Therefore, all of these reasons contribute to why people trade with each other.

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34. 90) If nation A can produce 20 units of good X and 16 of good Y while nation B can produce 18 units of X and 12 of Y, what is B's opportunity cost to produce a unit of X? A) 1.5 units of Y B) 0.666 of a unit of Y. C) 12 units of Y D) Impossible to determine without more information.

Explanation

The opportunity cost of producing a unit of X for nation B can be calculated by dividing the units of Y that nation B can produce by the units of X that nation B can produce. In this case, nation B can produce 12 units of Y and 18 units of X. Therefore, the opportunity cost of producing a unit of X for nation B is 0.666 of a unit of Y.

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35. 113) Which of the following transactions would be included in the official calculation of GDP? A) A student  buys a used text book at the bookstore. B) You illegally download music off the Internet to put on your new iPod. C) You buy a new iPod. D) Firestone sells $2 million worth of tires to General Motors. E) You wash and wax your father's car as a favor to him.

Explanation

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36. 14) What explains the efficiency of markets? A) They always result in equity. B) Markets promote equal standards of living. C) The government stays out. D) Markets promote competition and voluntary exchange.

Explanation

The correct answer is D) Markets promote competition and voluntary exchange. This explanation suggests that the efficiency of markets is due to the fact that they encourage competition among businesses, which leads to innovation and lower prices for consumers. Additionally, markets allow for voluntary exchange, meaning that individuals are free to choose what they buy and sell, leading to a more efficient allocation of resources.

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37. 58) If the price of a product increases from $12 to $15, which of the following will occur? A) Demand for the product will decrease. B) Quantity demanded for the product will increase. C) Quantity demanded for the product will decrease. D) Demand for the product will increase.

Explanation

When the price of a product increases, it usually leads to a decrease in the quantity demanded for the product. This is because consumers are less willing to purchase the product at a higher price, resulting in a decrease in demand. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Quantity demanded for the product will decrease.

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38. 85) Shortly after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because A) the goods are all complements and the higher price of beef increases demand for chicken. B) buyers are irrational. C) the goods are all substitutes and the higher price of beef increases demand for chicken. D) sellers are taking advantage of consumers.

Explanation

The correct answer is C because beef and chicken are considered substitutes, meaning that they can be used interchangeably in a consumer's preferences. When the price of beef increases, consumers may choose to buy chicken instead, leading to an increase in demand and therefore an increase in price for chicken. This is a common phenomenon in the market when substitute goods are involved.

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39. 87) Which of the following is characteristic of international trade? A) It enables consumers to consume products that would be impossible to make at home. B) It is a two way street with imports from and exports to other countries. C) Lower priced competitive products can be imported. D) All of these are characteristic of international trade.

Explanation

International trade is characterized by all of the options mentioned in the answer. It enables consumers to access products that cannot be produced domestically, it involves both imports and exports, and it allows for the importation of lower priced competitive products. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

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40. 117) The largest component of spending in GDP is A) investment spending. B) government spending. C) consumption spending. D) net export spending.

Explanation

Consumption spending refers to the expenditure made by individuals and households on goods and services. It includes purchases of durable goods (such as cars and appliances), non-durable goods (such as food and clothing), and services (such as healthcare and education). Since individuals and households make up a significant portion of the economy, their spending has a major impact on the overall GDP. Therefore, consumption spending is the largest component of spending in GDP.

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41. 129) The labor force is the sum of A) employed workers and unemployed workers. B) unemployed workers and the working age population. C) employed workers and discouraged workers. D) employed workers and and individuals not looking for work. E) employed workers and the working age population.

Explanation

The labor force is defined as the total number of people who are either employed or actively looking for work. Option A correctly states that the labor force is the sum of employed workers (those who have a job) and unemployed workers (those who are actively seeking employment but currently do not have a job). Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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42. 74) As more firms produce a product, which of the following happens? A) Production costs necessarily increase. B) A higher market price. C) An increase in market demand. D) Increased market supply.

Explanation

As more firms produce a product, the market supply increases. This is because there are more producers adding their products to the market, leading to a higher quantity of goods available. Increased market supply can result in lower prices and more options for consumers.

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43. 100) What does an import quota specify? A) Who is allowed to buy an imported good. B) The quality of an imported good. C) The tax on an imported good. D) The maximum number of units of a good that can be imported.

Explanation

An import quota specifies the maximum number of units of a good that can be imported.

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44. 105) Why do many groups oppose globalization? A) To decrease foreign competition from producers with comparative advantages. B) Some oppose globalization because they think it tends to destroy distinctive cultures. C) Many believe that globalization favor the more developed nations as the expense of the less developed ones. D) All of these have been stated as reasons to oppose globalization.

Explanation

Many groups oppose globalization for a variety of reasons. Some argue that it leads to increased foreign competition, which can be detrimental to domestic producers with comparative advantages. Others believe that globalization threatens the preservation of distinctive cultures. Additionally, many people argue that globalization disproportionately benefits more developed nations at the expense of less developed ones. Therefore, all of these reasons have been stated as arguments against globalization.

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45. 108) When firms buy or build facilities in foreign countries they are engaging in A) foreign direct investment B) international law breaking C) foreign portfolio investment D) none of these

Explanation

When firms buy or build facilities in foreign countries, they are engaging in foreign direct investment. Foreign direct investment refers to the investment made by a company in a foreign country to establish a physical presence, such as a manufacturing plant or office, in order to control and manage operations directly. This allows the company to have greater control over its operations, access new markets, and take advantage of cost efficiencies or resources available in the foreign country. Foreign direct investment is different from foreign portfolio investment, which refers to investing in foreign financial assets like stocks or bonds.

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46. 114) Which of the following are not considered part of government purchases? A) a bridge purchased by the state government B) teacher's salaries paid by a local government C) a tank purchased by the federal government D) welfare benefits

Explanation

Welfare benefits are not considered part of government purchases because they are not the acquisition of goods or services by the government. Government purchases refer to the spending on goods and services by the government, such as infrastructure projects (like a bridge), salaries for government employees (like teachers), and the purchase of military equipment (like a tank). Welfare benefits, on the other hand, are cash or in-kind transfers provided to individuals or families in need, which do not involve the acquisition of goods or services.

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47. 134) If the number employed is 190 million, the number unemployed is 10 million, and the working age population is 250 million, then the labor force participation rate is A) 60% B) 80% C) 4% D) 5.2% E) 76%

Explanation

The labor force participation rate is calculated by dividing the number employed and unemployed by the working age population and multiplying by 100. In this case, the labor force participation rate is (190 million + 10 million) / 250 million * 100 = 80%. Therefore, the correct answer is B) 80%.

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48. 136) Unemployment arising from a persistent mismatch between the skills and characteristics of workers and the requirements of jobs (often due to technological change and/or globalization) is called A) cyclical unemployment. B) structural unemployment. C) frictional unemployment. D) unnatural unemployment. E) seasonal unemployment.

Explanation

Structural unemployment refers to the unemployment that occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills and characteristics of workers and the requirements of available jobs. This type of unemployment is often caused by technological advancements or globalization, which can make certain skills obsolete or shift job opportunities to different regions. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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49. 7) What does marginal analysis involve? A) Comparing total costs to total benefits. B) Subtracting total costs from total benefits. C) Comparing average costs to average benefits. D) Comparing marginal costs to marginal benefits.

Explanation

Marginal analysis involves comparing the additional or incremental costs and benefits associated with a decision or action. It focuses on the changes in costs and benefits rather than the total amounts. By comparing marginal costs to marginal benefits, individuals or businesses can make more informed decisions about whether the additional costs are worth the additional benefits gained. This approach allows for a more precise evaluation of the costs and benefits of different options and helps in optimizing decision-making.

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50. 10) How is the decision about what goods and services will be produced made in a market economy? A) What will be produced is determined by what society needs the most. B) Producing firms decide to produce only what the boss says must be produced. C) Lawmakers in the government vote on what will be produced. D) By consumers, firms, and government choosing which goods and services to buy.

Explanation

In a market economy, the decision about what goods and services will be produced is made by consumers, firms, and the government choosing which goods and services to buy. This means that the production of goods and services is driven by the demand and preferences of the consumers, as well as the decisions made by firms and the government regarding their own needs and priorities. This system allows for a decentralized decision-making process, where multiple stakeholders have a say in determining what is produced.

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51. 65) Which of the following would most likely be an inferior good? A) luxury automobiles B) steaks C) DVD players D) Spam and ramen noodles

Explanation

Spam and ramen noodles would most likely be an inferior good because they are low-cost food items that are often associated with lower-income individuals. As income increases, people tend to consume higher-quality food items, making Spam and ramen noodles less desirable. On the other hand, luxury automobiles, steaks, and DVD players are typically considered normal or even superior goods, as they are associated with higher levels of income and are often seen as more desirable as income increases.

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52. 89) If nation A can produce 20 units of good X and 16 of good Y while nation B can produce 18 units of X and 12 of Y, what is A's opportunity cost to produce a unit of X? A) 0.8 of a unit of Y B) 8 units of Y C) 16 units of Y D) impossible to determine without more information.

Explanation

The opportunity cost of producing a unit of X for nation A is 0.8 units of Y. This can be determined by calculating the ratio of the units of Y that nation A can produce to the units of X that nation A can produce. In this case, nation A can produce 16 units of Y for every 20 units of X, which simplifies to a ratio of 0.8 units of Y per unit of X. Therefore, the correct answer is A) 0.8 of a unit of Y.

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53. 94) A nation that does not trade with other nations A) maximizes the number of jobs in its economy. B) will have lower prices than other countries. C) has as large a Gross Domestic Product as is possible. D) has its citizens consuming at a lower standard of living than if it traded.

Explanation

A nation that does not trade with other nations will have its citizens consuming at a lower standard of living than if it traded. This is because trade allows countries to specialize in producing goods and services that they have a comparative advantage in, leading to increased efficiency and productivity. By engaging in international trade, countries can access a wider variety of goods at lower prices, leading to a higher standard of living for their citizens.

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54. 3) What assumptions about humans do economists make? A) People are greedy and selfish. B) None, because economics takes humans as given. C) Humans prefer to live in a society that values fairness above all else. D) People are rational and respond to incentives.

Explanation

Economists make the assumption that people are rational and respond to incentives. This means that individuals make choices based on their own self-interest and are motivated by the potential benefits or rewards they can receive. This assumption is foundational in economic theory and is used to analyze and predict human behavior in various economic situations. It helps economists understand how individuals make decisions regarding consumption, production, investment, and other economic activities.

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55. 53) When the price of a good increases A) demand will decrease. B) quantity demanded will decrease. C) demand will increase. D) quantity demanded will increase.

Explanation

When the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded will decrease. This is because as the price of a good goes up, consumers are less willing and able to purchase it, resulting in a decrease in the quantity demanded.

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56. 25) The production possibilities frontier shows A) the various products that can be produced now and in the future. B) what an equitable distribution of products among citizens would be. C) attainable combinations of two products that may be produced with available resources. D) none of these.

Explanation

The production possibilities frontier shows the attainable combinations of two products that may be produced with available resources. This means that it represents the different combinations of goods or services that can be produced given the available resources and technology. It illustrates the trade-offs and opportunity costs involved in producing one product over another. It does not represent the distribution of products among citizens or the products that can be produced now and in the future.

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57. 77) The existence of a surplus for a good at a given price will cause A) market price to fall and quantity supplied of that good to decrease. B) market price to rise and quantity supplied of that good to increase. C) market price to rise and quantity demanded of that good to decrease. D) market price to fall and quantity demanded of that good to decrease.

Explanation

When there is a surplus for a good at a given price, it means that the quantity supplied of that good is greater than the quantity demanded. In order to clear the surplus, sellers will have to lower the price of the good. This will cause the market price to fall. Additionally, since there is a surplus, sellers will decrease the quantity supplied of that good in order to match the lower demand. Therefore, the correct answer is A) market price to fall and quantity supplied of that good to decrease.

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58. 84) If market demand doubles and market supply decreases by 30 percent, what happens to equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity? A) Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium quantity increases. B) Equilibrium price is constant and equilibrium quantity increases. C) Equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity increases. D) Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium quantity is constant.

Explanation

When market demand doubles and market supply decreases by 30 percent, the equilibrium price will rise and the equilibrium quantity will increase. This is because with an increase in demand and a decrease in supply, there will be more competition for the limited supply, leading to an increase in price. As a result, the equilibrium quantity will also increase as suppliers try to meet the higher demand at the new equilibrium price.

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59. 99) What is the impact of a tariff on an imported good? A) It causes foreign producers to pay to export to the tariff imposing nation. B) It sets the maximum number of a good that is allowed into the economy. C) It keeps the good from being imported. D) It reduces the amount of imports and raises the domestic price of the good.

Explanation

A tariff on an imported good reduces the amount of imports and raises the domestic price of the good. This is because the tariff increases the cost of importing the good, making it less attractive for foreign producers to export to the tariff imposing nation. As a result, the quantity of imports decreases, leading to a decrease in supply and an increase in price in the domestic market.

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60. 123) Which of the following is a TRUE statement about real and nominal GDP A) If real GDP increases from one year to the next,  we know that production of goods and services has risen. B) If nominal GDP increases from one year to the next,  we know that production of goods and services has risen. C) Increases in average prices do not affect the calculation of nominal GDP. D) Nominal GDP is a better measure than real GDP in comparing changes in the production of goods and service year after year.

Explanation

The correct answer is A. If real GDP increases from one year to the next, we know that production of goods and services has risen. This is because real GDP adjusts for changes in prices, allowing us to measure the actual increase in the quantity of goods and services produced. Nominal GDP, on the other hand, does not account for changes in prices and can be influenced by inflation or deflation. Therefore, real GDP is a more accurate measure of economic growth.

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61. 133) If the number employed is 190 million, the working age population is 230 million, and  the number unemployed is 10 million, then the unemployment rate is A) 10% B) 5% C) 50% D) 5.2% E) 8%

Explanation

The unemployment rate can be calculated by dividing the number of unemployed individuals by the total labor force (employed + unemployed) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the number of unemployed is given as 10 million and the number employed is given as 190 million, so the total labor force is 200 million. Dividing 10 million by 200 million and multiplying by 100 gives a result of 5%. Therefore, the correct answer is B) 5%.

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62. 52) Market demand shows the A) quantities that all sellers will sell at all possible prices. B) quantities that all buyers will buy at all possible prices C) quantity that one buyer will buy at a given price. D) quantity that one seller will sell at a given price.

Explanation

Market demand shows the quantities that all buyers will buy at all possible prices. This means that it represents the total demand from all buyers in the market for a particular product or service. It takes into account the various price levels and the corresponding quantities that buyers are willing and able to purchase. The market demand curve shows the relationship between price and quantity demanded, indicating the overall demand for a product in the market.

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63. 54) When the price of a good decreases A) quantity demanded will decrease. B) demand will increase C) demand will decrease. D) quantity demanded will increase.

Explanation

When the price of a good decreases, the quantity demanded will increase. This is because as the price decreases, consumers are more willing and able to purchase the good, leading to an increase in demand for it. The inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded is known as the law of demand.

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64. 86) As the population increases, which of the following will occur for sure? A) Supply of all inferior goods will increase. B) Demand for all normal goods will increase. C) Price of all inferior goods will increase. D) Price of all normal goods will decrease.

Explanation

As the population increases, the demand for all normal goods will increase. This is because with a larger population, there will be more people who need and want these goods, leading to an increase in demand.

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65. 115) A transfer payment is a payment by the government to an individual A) for which the government does not receive a good or service in return. B) for an investment good. C) for a service. D) for a debt owed. E) for a consumption good.

Explanation

A transfer payment is a payment made by the government to an individual without receiving a good or service in return. This means that the government is providing financial assistance or support to the individual, such as welfare benefits or social security payments. It is not a payment for an investment good, a service, a debt owed, or a consumption good. The correct answer is A) for which the government does not receive a good or service in return.

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66. 11) Which of the following is correct? A) Economics is a decision science that studies the tradeoffs we are forced to make because of scarcity. B) All of these are correct. C) Every individual, no matter how rich or poor, is faced with making tradeoffs. D) Anytime you have to decide which action to take you are facing an economic tradeoff.

Explanation

All of the statements A, C, and D are correct. Economics is indeed a decision science that studies the tradeoffs we make due to scarcity. Every individual, regardless of their wealth, has to make tradeoffs. And anytime we have to make a decision, we are faced with an economic tradeoff. Therefore, option B, which states that all of these statements are correct, is the correct answer.

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67. 13) Who ultimately decides what goods and services will be produced in a market economy? A) none of these B) producing firms C) the ruling political party D) consumers

Explanation

In a market economy, consumers ultimately decide what goods and services will be produced. This is because consumers have the power to determine the demand for different products and services through their purchasing decisions. If consumers demand a certain product or service, businesses will respond by producing more of it to meet the demand. Conversely, if consumers do not demand a certain product or service, businesses will be less likely to produce it. Therefore, the choices and preferences of consumers play a crucial role in shaping the production decisions in a market economy.

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68. 21) If a graph has a line that shows the amount of outsourcing in the last ten years, it is known as a A) time series graph. B) demand curve for outsourcing. C) pie chart. D) supply curve of outsourcing.

Explanation

A time series graph is a type of graph that shows the amount of outsourcing over a period of time, specifically in the last ten years. This graph would plot the outsourcing data on the y-axis and the years on the x-axis, allowing for a visual representation of the trend in outsourcing over time. The other options, such as the demand curve for outsourcing, pie chart, and supply curve of outsourcing, do not accurately describe a graph that shows the amount of outsourcing over time.

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69. 23) Which of the following is not a factor of production? A) the manager of the local tire shop B) $1,000 C) a drill press in a machine shop D) an acre of farmland

Explanation

The manager of the local tire shop, a drill press in a machine shop, and an acre of farmland are all examples of factors of production. These are resources or inputs used in the production process to create goods and services. However, $1,000 is not a factor of production. It is a form of financial capital or money, which is used to purchase the factors of production but is not a factor itself.

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70. 101) Why don't economists support saving domestic jobs by tariffs or quotas? A) The cost to consumers is many times larger than the wages earned in the jobs saved. B) If workers were moved into production with a comparative advantage, wages earned would be higher. C) It creates deadweight losses. D) All of these are reasons why.

Explanation

Economists do not support saving domestic jobs by tariffs or quotas because it leads to several negative consequences. One reason is that the cost to consumers is often much higher than the wages earned in the jobs that are saved. This means that consumers end up paying more for goods and services, which can harm the overall economy. Additionally, if workers were instead moved into industries where they have a comparative advantage, they would be able to earn higher wages. Lastly, implementing tariffs or quotas creates deadweight losses, which refers to the inefficiency and economic loss caused by restricting trade. Therefore, all of these reasons contribute to economists' lack of support for saving domestic jobs through tariffs or quotas.

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71. 106) What is the total cost of protectionism and why don't more people support free trade? A) The total cost is small because the average cost is small, leading people to not worry about free trade. B) Since the cost is so small per consumer, the total cost is also small, so free trade is ignored. C) The total cost is very large  but because the per unit cost is so small for each consumer, most buyers do not notice it and therefore do not make the connection. D) None of these correctly answers the question.

Explanation

The total cost of protectionism is very large, but because the per unit cost is so small for each consumer, most buyers do not notice it and therefore do not make the connection. This explains why more people do not support free trade, as they are not aware of the significant overall cost of protectionism.

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72. 119) Which of the following is counted in GDP? A) the value of goods and services produced in the underground economy. B) the value of leisure. C) the value of do-it-yourself work. D) the cost of a speed boat purchased at Bob's Boats and used by drug smugglers.

Explanation

The correct answer is d) the cost of a speed boat purchased at Bob's Boats and used by drug smugglers. This is counted in GDP because it represents a legal transaction for the purchase of a good, even though it is being used for illegal activities. GDP measures the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of their intended use or legality.

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73. 121) Nominal GDP is another word for A) constant dollar GDP. B) real GDP. C) current dollar GDP. D) inflation adjusted GDP.

Explanation

Nominal GDP refers to the total value of goods and services produced in a country, measured in current prices. This means that it does not account for inflation or changes in purchasing power over time. Therefore, the correct answer is C) current dollar GDP, as it accurately describes what nominal GDP represents.

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74. 5) Which of the following best describes the assumption about human behavior that economics makes? A) People weigh religious, envy, compassion, anger aspects in all decisions they make. B) Assuming rational behavior is useful in explaining choices people make even though they may not behave rationally all the time. C) Economics assumes individuals act rationally all the time in all circumstances. D) None of these describes what economics assumes about human behavior.

Explanation

Economics assumes that individuals act rationally in their decision-making process, even though they may not behave rationally all the time. This means that people consider the costs and benefits of their choices and make decisions that maximize their own self-interest. While other factors such as emotions and social influences may also play a role in decision-making, the assumption of rational behavior is still considered useful in explaining the choices people make.

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75. 18) Which of the following is a normative statement? A) The current high price of gasoline is the result of strong world wide demand. B) The price of gasoline is too high. C) All of these. D) None of these.

Explanation

Option B is a normative statement because it expresses a value judgment or opinion about the price of gasoline being too high. It is subjective and reflects the speaker's personal belief rather than stating a factual observation. Options A, C, and D are not normative statements as they either state a factual observation (option A) or include all possible options (option C) or none of the options (option D).

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76. 33) At full employment, an economy that wants to produce more war goods must A) wait until resource supplies have increased. B) be attempting the impossible. C) cut back on the production of other goods. D) increase the production of consumer goods.

Explanation

At full employment, an economy is already utilizing all of its available resources and labor. Therefore, if the economy wants to produce more war goods, it would have to reallocate resources from the production of other goods. This means that the production of other goods would have to be cut back in order to increase the production of war goods.

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77. 55) The law of demand states that A) there is a positive or upsloping relationship between price and quantity. B) there is an inverse or downsloping relationship between price and quantity. C) buyers increase the quantities they buy when their incomes increase. D) buyers decrease the amount of a good bought when there is more in the market.

Explanation

The correct answer is B) there is an inverse or downsloping relationship between price and quantity. The law of demand states that as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded decreases, and vice versa. This is because consumers are generally willing to buy more of a good when it is cheaper, and less of it when it is more expensive. This relationship is represented by a downward-sloping demand curve.

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78. 73) Why does an advance in technology increase supply? A) Buyers are willing to buy more of a product produced with high technology. B) It doesn't because new technology is so expensive. C) Labor's productivity increases due to technology, and the per-unit costs of production fall. D) None of these.

Explanation

An advance in technology increases supply because it allows for an increase in labor productivity and a decrease in per-unit costs of production. With new technology, workers can produce more goods in less time, leading to an increase in supply. Additionally, the use of technology can help streamline production processes and reduce costs, making it more efficient and cost-effective to produce goods. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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79. 56) The substitution effect results in A) sellers substituting less expensive inputs in production. B) sellers producing products that are more profitable. C) buyers buying more of a good because their real income has increased. D) buyers buying more of a relatively cheaper good when the price of a substitute rises.

Explanation

The correct answer is D. The substitution effect refers to the change in consumer behavior when the price of a substitute good rises. In this case, buyers will choose to buy more of a relatively cheaper good instead of the substitute. This is because the substitute has become more expensive, making the cheaper good a more attractive option. So, the substitution effect leads to buyers buying more of a relatively cheaper good when the price of a substitute rises.

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80. 70) If the demand for good A decreases when the price of good B decreases, evidently A) the two goods are substitutes. B) the two goods are complementary. C) good B is a normal good. D) A is an inferior good.

Explanation

If the demand for good A decreases when the price of good B decreases, it implies that the two goods are substitutes. This means that consumers view good A and good B as interchangeable and are willing to switch from one to the other based on their relative prices. When the price of good B decreases, consumers find it more attractive and therefore demand less of good A. This relationship indicates that the goods are substitutes.

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81. 92) How can world output of goods and services be maximized? A) By having every nation produce the good it has a comparative advantage in producing. B) By having every nation produce the good it has an absolute advantage in producing. C) It cannot be maximized. D) Letting the United Nations decide.

Explanation

The correct answer is A. By having every nation produce the good it has a comparative advantage in producing. This means that each country should specialize in producing the goods or services that they can produce most efficiently compared to other countries. By doing so, resources are allocated more efficiently and productivity is maximized, leading to an increase in world output of goods and services.

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82. 102) Shouldn't the U.S. eliminate trade barriers only if other nations do the same? A) Yes, otherwise there would not be a level trading field. B) Yes, because trade is bilateral, we can't export to a nation, then we shouldn't import from that country. C) Yes, because otherwise there is no way to force other nations to lower trade barriers unless we don't import from them. D) No, because U.S. consumers would benefit from lower prices of imported goods regardless what other nations do with their trade barriers, and domestic resources competing with those imports could be allocated to more efficient uses.

Explanation

The correct answer is D. This is because even if other nations do not eliminate trade barriers, the U.S. consumers would still benefit from lower prices of imported goods. Additionally, domestic resources that are competing with imports could be allocated to more efficient uses. Therefore, it is not necessary for other nations to eliminate trade barriers for the U.S. to do so.

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83. 103) What happened in the 1930s when the U.S. passed the highest tariffs ever? A) In order to keep imports into the U.S., other nations reduced the prices of their exports. B) Domestic production increased because less was being imported. C) Other nations raised tariffs in retaliation and international trade collapsed, causing unemployment in the U.S. to worsen. D) Millions of jobs were saved.

Explanation

In the 1930s, when the U.S. passed the highest tariffs ever, other nations raised tariffs in retaliation and international trade collapsed, causing unemployment in the U.S. to worsen.

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84. 16) Which of the following uses do economic models fulfill? A) Make economic ideas explicit and concrete for use by decision makers. B) Simplification of some aspect of economic life. C) To answer economic questions. D) All of these.

Explanation

Economic models fulfill multiple uses. They make economic ideas explicit and concrete for use by decision makers, simplify some aspect of economic life, and help answer economic questions. These models provide a framework for understanding and analyzing complex economic phenomena, allowing decision makers to make informed choices based on data and evidence. By simplifying economic concepts and relationships, these models make them more accessible and easier to comprehend. Ultimately, economic models serve the purpose of providing insights and guidance in the field of economics.

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85. 34) How is economic growth represented on a production possibilities frontier model? A) By the production possibilities frontier tilting on the graph. B) By the production possibilities frontier shifting inward. C) By the production possibilities frontier shifting outward. D) By none of these.

Explanation

Economic growth is represented on a production possibilities frontier model by the production possibilities frontier shifting outward. This indicates that an economy is able to produce more goods and services over time, as resources are utilized more efficiently or new resources are discovered. This shift represents an increase in the economy's potential output and reflects economic growth.

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86. 37) On a production possibilities frontier model, the production of more physical and human capital will have which of the following results. A) Future production possibilities frontiers will be shifted outward. B) Future economic growth is enhanced. C) Less goods for consumption today will be produced. D) All of these will occur.

Explanation

The production of more physical and human capital will have multiple results. It will shift the future production possibilities frontiers outward, meaning that the economy will be able to produce more goods and services in the future. This will enhance future economic growth. However, in order to invest in physical and human capital, resources need to be allocated away from the production of goods for immediate consumption. Therefore, less goods for consumption today will be produced. Overall, all of these outcomes will occur when more physical and human capital is produced.

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87. 67) What would happen in the red apple market if the price of golden apples decreases? A) The demand for red apples would decrease. B) The demand for red apples would be unchanged. C) Nothing, they are separate and unrelated commodities. D) The quantity demanded of red apples would increase.

Explanation

If the price of golden apples decreases, it is likely that consumers would switch to buying more golden apples instead of red apples since they are now relatively cheaper. This would result in a decrease in the demand for red apples. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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88. 31) Assume a firm can produce a combination of 60 units of X together with 80 units of Y but to produce 70 units of X, the firm can only produce 60 units of Y.  What is the opportunity cost to produce 10 more units of X? A) two units of Y B) 20 units of Y C) one-half a unit of X D) 10 units of X

Explanation

To produce 10 more units of X, the firm has to reduce the production of Y by 10 units. Since the firm can produce 80 units of Y when producing 60 units of X, the opportunity cost of producing 10 more units of X is 20 units of Y. Therefore, the correct answer is B) 20 units of Y.

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89. 95) What does international trade enable nations to do? A) Consume beyond their domestic production possibilities frontier. B) Increase employment, income, and GDP. C) Use domestic resources more efficiently. D) Trade enables nations to do all these things.

Explanation

International trade enables nations to consume beyond their domestic production possibilities frontier, increase employment, income, and GDP, and use domestic resources more efficiently.

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90. 96) Economic analysis of comparative advantage shows that a nation should specialize in the production of goods for which it has a comparative advantage.  But in the real world, most production in a nation is not 100 percent specialized.  Why don't nations specialize 100 percent in reality? A) Typically, as specialization advances, there is increasing opportunity costs which makes 100 percent specialization too costly for exportation. B) Some services such as medical services, would be difficult to export to other nations. C) Since tastes differ, some products such as autos are produced in many different nations. D) All of these explain why nations do not specialize completely.

Explanation

The correct answer is d) All of these explain why nations do not specialize completely. This is because there are multiple reasons why nations do not specialize 100 percent in reality. Firstly, as specialization advances, there is an increase in opportunity costs, which makes it too costly for exportation. Secondly, certain services such as medical services are difficult to export to other nations. Lastly, since tastes differ among nations, some products like autos are produced in many different nations. These factors contribute to the fact that most production in a nation is not completely specialized.

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91. 98) Who pays a tariff on an imported good? A) Foreign producers and exporters of the good with a tariff on it. B) Domestic consumers and importing firms. C) The government of the nation that exported the good to tariff imposing nation. D) The government that imposed the tariff.

Explanation

Foreign producers and exporters of the good with a tariff on it pay the tariff on an imported good. This is because the tariff is a tax imposed on the imported good by the importing country's government. The foreign producers and exporters are responsible for paying this tax when they bring their goods into the importing country.

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92. 120) The measure of total production that values output using a base year and constant dollars adjusting for inflation is called A) nominal GDP. B) underground GDP. C) value added GDP. D) real GDP.

Explanation

Real GDP is the correct answer because it is a measure of total production that adjusts for inflation by using a base year and constant dollars. Real GDP is important because it allows for a more accurate comparison of economic output over time, as it removes the effects of inflation. Nominal GDP, on the other hand, does not adjust for inflation and reflects the current prices of goods and services. Underground GDP and value added GDP are not relevant to this question.

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93. 15) Why does voluntary exchange increase economic efficiency? A) Because the true economic value of the good or service is established. B) Because it is free and consequently does not cost anything. C) Because neither the buyer nor the seller would agree to a trade unless they both benefit. D) It doesn't, only government approved exchange is considered efficient.

Explanation

Voluntary exchange increases economic efficiency because both the buyer and the seller would only agree to a trade if they both benefit. This means that resources are allocated to their most valued uses, resulting in a more efficient allocation of goods and services.

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94. 124) If nominal GDP rises we can say that A) production has risen and prices remain constant. B) prices have risen and production remains constant. C) production has fallen and prices have risen. D) production has risen or  prices have risen or both have risen.

Explanation

If nominal GDP rises, it means that the total value of goods and services produced in an economy has increased. This could be due to an increase in production, an increase in prices, or both. Therefore, we can say that production has risen or prices have risen or both have risen.

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95. 63) Last year, the Ajax firm sold 250 sofas at $1,000 each.  This year, Ajax sold 500 sofas at $1,500 each. Evidently A) the demand for sofas is upsloping. B) the demand for sofas increased. C) the quantity demanded has increased. D) Ajax increased the supply of sofas.

Explanation

The correct answer is b) the demand for sofas increased. This can be inferred from the fact that Ajax sold more sofas this year compared to last year, indicating an increase in demand. Additionally, the increase in price from $1,000 to $1,500 suggests that consumers were willing to pay a higher price for the sofas, further supporting the idea of increased demand.

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96. 72) Which of the following will NOT increase the supply of soybeans? A) A decrease in the price of soybean fertilizer. B) A technological advance in growing soybeans. C) An increase in the number of soybean farmers. D) An increase in the price of soybeans.

Explanation

An increase in the price of soybeans will not increase the supply of soybeans. When the price of soybeans increases, farmers have an incentive to produce and sell more soybeans in order to maximize their profits. This would result in an increase in the supply of soybeans. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it states that an increase in the price of soybeans will not increase the supply.

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97. 110) How are intermediate goods treated in the calculation of GDP? A) Their value is counted separately, and their value is also  included as part of the value of the final good of which they are an input. B) They are included in the year that they are produced. C) Their value is not counted separately, but included as part of the value of the final good of which they are an input. D) They are included only if they are imported.

Explanation

Intermediate goods are treated in the calculation of GDP by including their value as part of the value of the final good of which they are an input. This means that the value of intermediate goods is not counted separately but is included in the overall value of the final good. This is because the value of intermediate goods is already captured when the final good is produced and sold. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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98. 66) A change in demand represents a ________ while a change in quantity demanded is a ________. A) movement along one demand curve, shift to a new demand curve. B) shift to a new demand curve, movement along one demand curve. C) shift to a new demand curve, shift to a new demand curve. D) movement along one demand curve, movement along one demand curve. 

Explanation

A change in demand represents a shift to a new demand curve, while a change in quantity demanded is a movement along one demand curve.

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99. 75) If the price of a product increases, which of the following is correct? A) Market supply will decrease immediately. B) Quantity supplied will increase. C) Market supply will increase immediately. D) None of these will happen.

Explanation

If the price of a product increases, the quantity supplied will increase. This is because suppliers are motivated by the higher price to produce and supply more of the product in order to maximize their profits. As a result, the quantity supplied in the market will increase.

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100. 80) If market demand is constant and market supply decreases, what happens to equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity? A) Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium quantity decreases. B) Equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity increases. C) Equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity decreases. D) Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium quantity increases.

Explanation

If market demand is constant and market supply decreases, there will be a shortage in the market. This shortage will cause the equilibrium price to rise as consumers compete for the limited supply. At the same time, the equilibrium quantity will decrease because there is less supply available. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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101. 107) What has caused the widening gap between the wages of skilled and unskilled labor in the U.S. In recent years? A) greater demand for high skilled labor due to technological advances B) North American Free Trade Agreement C) globalization D) low wage foreign labor

Explanation

The widening gap between the wages of skilled and unskilled labor in the U.S. in recent years can be attributed to the greater demand for high skilled labor due to technological advances. As technology continues to advance, the need for skilled workers who can operate and maintain these technologies increases. This increased demand for skilled labor drives up their wages, while the wages of unskilled labor remain relatively stagnant.

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102. 118) Which of the following accurately describes an effect of the hurricane Katrina on GDP? A) GDP would decrease reflecting the costs of cleanup and lost investment. B) GDP would increase well being. C) GDP would increase reflecting the decrease in production that occurred during the storm and the productive capacity lost in the storm. D) GDP would increase reflecting the costs of cleanup, but the standard of living for the average person would decrease.

Explanation

The correct answer is D) GDP would increase reflecting the costs of cleanup, but the standard of living for the average person would decrease. This is because while the costs of cleanup would contribute to an increase in GDP, the overall impact of the hurricane on the economy would result in a decrease in the standard of living for the average person. The destruction caused by the hurricane would lead to a decrease in productive capacity and an increase in costs for individuals, leading to a lower standard of living.

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103. 32) A production possibilities frontier with a bowed outward shape indicates which of the following? A) Constant opportunity costs as more and more of one good is produced. B) Increasing opportunity costs as more and more of one good is produced. C) The possibility of inefficient production. D) Falling opportunity costs as more and more of one good is produced.

Explanation

A production possibilities frontier with a bowed outward shape indicates increasing opportunity costs as more and more of one good is produced. This means that as more units of one good are produced, the opportunity cost of producing additional units of that good increases. In other words, to produce more of one good, society must give up increasing amounts of the other good. This is represented by the curved shape of the production possibilities frontier.

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104. 83) As workers demand higher wages to produce automobiles, how will this influence the automobile market? A) Market demand would increase because buyer incomes would be higher. B) Market demand would decrease because the price of automobiles would be higher. C) Market supply would decrease because costs of production would be higher. D) Market supply would increase because the price of automobiles would be higher.

Explanation

As workers demand higher wages to produce automobiles, it would increase the costs of production. This would result in a decrease in market supply because the higher costs would make it more expensive for manufacturers to produce automobiles. Therefore, the correct answer is C) Market supply would decrease because costs of production would be higher.

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105. 35) Increasing opportunity cost illustrates which of the following important economic concepts? A) The importance of production and exchange. B) The law of scarcity. C) The more resources devoted to any activity, the smaller the payoff of devoting more resources to that activity. D) How easy it is to slip into inefficient production.

Explanation

Increasing opportunity cost illustrates the concept that the more resources are devoted to any activity, the smaller the payoff of devoting more resources to that activity. As resources are shifted from one activity to another, the opportunity cost of producing additional units of the original activity increases. This concept highlights the trade-offs and choices that individuals and societies face when allocating scarce resources.

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106. 116) Consumption expenditures do NOT include household purchases of A) new houses. B) medical care. C) durable goods. D) education.

Explanation

Consumption expenditures refer to the spending by households on goods and services. The correct answer, "new houses," is not included in consumption expenditures because it falls under the category of investment spending, as it is considered a long-term asset rather than a consumable good or service. Medical care, durable goods, and education are all examples of goods and services that are typically included in consumption expenditures.

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107. 122) Suppose that a very simple economy  produces three goods: movies, burgers, and bikes.  Suppose the quantities produced and their corresponding prices for 2002 and 2009 are shown in the table: 2002 2009 Product Quantity Price Quantity Price Movies 20 $6 30 $7 Burgers 100 $2 90 $2.50 Bikes 3 $1,000 6 $1,100 What is nominal GDP in 2009? A) $6,360 B) $3,690 C) $3,320 D) $7,035

Explanation

The nominal GDP in 2009 can be calculated by multiplying the quantity of each product produced in 2009 by its corresponding price in 2009, and then summing up the values.

For movies, the quantity produced in 2009 is 30 and the price is $7, so the contribution to GDP is 30 * $7 = $210.

For burgers, the quantity produced in 2009 is 90 and the price is $2.50, so the contribution to GDP is 90 * $2.50 = $225.

For bikes, the quantity produced in 2009 is 6 and the price is $1,100, so the contribution to GDP is 6 * $1,100 = $6,600.

Adding up these values, the nominal GDP in 2009 is $210 + $225 + $6,600 = $7,035.

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108. 126) If a U.S. firm produces Nova cars in Mexico, that production should count towards A) Mexico's GNP. B) U.S. GNP. C) U.S. GDP. D) It will not affect either U.S. GNP or U.S. GDP.

Explanation

If a U.S. firm produces Nova cars in Mexico, that production should count towards U.S. GNP. This is because GNP (Gross National Product) measures the total value of goods and services produced by the residents of a country, regardless of where the production takes place. Since the U.S. firm is based in the U.S., the production of Nova cars in Mexico by this firm would still be considered part of the U.S. GNP.

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109. 69) If the demand for good X increases when the price of good Y decreases, evidently A) goods X and Y are substitute goods. B) goods X and Y are complementary goods. C) good X is an inferior good. D) the two goods are unrelated.

Explanation

If the demand for good X increases when the price of good Y decreases, it suggests that goods X and Y are complementary goods. Complementary goods are products that are typically consumed together, such as bread and butter or coffee and cream. When the price of one of these goods decreases, it makes it more affordable and therefore increases the demand for the other good. In this case, the decrease in the price of good Y leads to an increase in the demand for good X, indicating that they are complementary goods.

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110. 26) What points on a production possibilities frontier are attainable production points. A) Points within the area enclosed by the production possibilities frontier. B) Combinations along the production possibilities frontier. C) Both of these sets of points on a production possibilities frontier. D) None of these sets of points on a production possibilities frontier.

Explanation

Points on a production possibilities frontier represent the maximum possible combinations of goods and services that can be produced given the available resources and technology. These points are considered attainable because they can be achieved through efficient allocation of resources. Both options A and B are correct because points within the area enclosed by the production possibilities frontier and combinations along the production possibilities frontier are both attainable production points.

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111. 51) Demand shows the A) quantity that sellers will sell at a given price. B) quantity that buyers will buy at a given price. C) quantities that buyers will buy at all possible prices. D) quantities that sellers will sell at all possible prices.

Explanation

Demand refers to the quantity of a good or service that buyers are willing and able to purchase at various prices. It represents the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity demanded by consumers. Option C correctly states that demand shows the quantities that buyers will buy at all possible prices, making it the correct answer. Options A and D are incorrect because they only focus on the sellers' perspective, while option B is incorrect because it does not encompass all possible prices.

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112. 79) Which of the following would not increase the demand for coffee? A) A drop in the price of cream and sugar. B) Research findings that drinking coffee increases your life span. C) A rise in the price of tea. D) A drop in the price of coffee.

Explanation

A drop in the price of coffee would not increase the demand for coffee because when the price of a good decreases, people are more likely to buy it. Therefore, a drop in the price of coffee would actually increase the demand for coffee.

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113. 91) If nation A can produce 20 units of good X and 16 of good Y while nation B can produce 18 units of X and 12 of Y, which nation should produce X and which should produce Y? A) B should produce both X and Y. B) B should produce X and A should produce Y. C) A should produce X and B should produce Y. D) A should produce both X and Y.

Explanation

Nation B should produce good X and Nation A should produce good Y. This is because Nation B has a comparative advantage in producing good X, as it can produce 18 units compared to Nation A's 20 units. Similarly, Nation A has a comparative advantage in producing good Y, as it can produce 16 units compared to Nation B's 12 units. By specializing in the production of the good they have a comparative advantage in, both nations can maximize their overall production and efficiency.

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114. 109) Total production (or GDP) in the economy  is measured as the A) total number of goods and services produced in the economy. B) total number of services produced in the economy. C) total number of goods produced in the economy in a given time period. D) current dollar value of all final goods and services produced in the economy in a given time period.

Explanation

Total production or GDP in the economy is measured as the current dollar value of all final goods and services produced in the economy in a given time period. This includes both goods and services, and the value is measured in terms of current prices. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it accurately represents the measurement of GDP.

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115. 127) If a German firm produces BMW cars in the United States, that production should count towards A) German GDP. B) U.S. GNP. C) It will not affect either U.S. GNP or U.S. GDP. D) U.S. GDP.

Explanation

If a German firm produces BMW cars in the United States, the production should count towards U.S. GDP. This is because GDP measures the total value of goods and services produced within a country's borders, regardless of the nationality of the firm. Since the production is taking place in the United States, it contributes to the country's GDP.

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116. 82) If the government were to outlaw the consumption of potatoes, which of the following would be the likely consequence? A) Supply of potatoes would disappear. B) The equilibrium price would increase. C) Demand for potatoes would disappear. D) The equilibrium price would decrease.

Explanation

If the government were to outlaw the consumption of potatoes, the likely consequence would be that the supply of potatoes would disappear. This is because if consumption is outlawed, farmers and suppliers would have no incentive to produce and distribute potatoes, leading to a decrease in the supply of potatoes in the market.

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117. 78) The existence of a shortage for a good at a price will cause A) market price to rise and quantity demanded of that good to increase. B) market price to fall and quantity supplied of that good to increase. C) market price to fall and quantity supplied of that good to decrease. D) market price to rise and quantity demanded of that good to decrease.

Explanation

When there is a shortage for a good at a certain price, it means that the quantity demanded of that good exceeds the quantity supplied. In order to address this shortage, the market price will rise to incentivize suppliers to increase their quantity supplied. At the same time, the higher price will discourage some consumers from purchasing the good, leading to a decrease in quantity demanded. Therefore, the correct answer is D) market price to rise and quantity demanded of that good to decrease.

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118. 81) If market demand increases 25 percent and market supply also increases 25 percent, what happens to equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity? A) Equilibrium price falls and equilibrium quantity increases. B) Equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity increases. C) Equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity is constant. D) Equilibrium price is constant and equilibrium quantity increases.

Explanation

If market demand and market supply both increase by 25 percent, it means that both the quantity demanded and the quantity supplied have increased. This results in an increase in the equilibrium quantity. However, since the increase in demand and supply are equal, the equilibrium price remains constant. Therefore, the correct answer is D) Equilibrium price is constant and equilibrium quantity increases.

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119. 97) Who was the first economist to explain comparative advantage? A) David Ricardo B) Ronald Coase C) Arthur C. Pigou D) Adam Smith

Explanation

David Ricardo was the first economist to explain comparative advantage. Comparative advantage refers to the ability of a country to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country. Ricardo's theory of comparative advantage stated that countries should specialize in producing goods or services in which they have a lower opportunity cost, and then trade with other countries to maximize efficiency and overall output. His work on comparative advantage laid the foundation for international trade theory and has had a significant impact on economics.

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120. 60) Which of the following will NOT cause demand to increase for bananas? A) News that bananas help relieve stress in people. B) Rise in the price of a substitute fruit such as apples or oranges. C) Fall in the price of bananas. D) Buyers switch to a more healthy diet including bananas.

Explanation

A fall in the price of bananas will not cause demand to increase for bananas. Typically, a decrease in price would lead to an increase in demand, as consumers are more likely to purchase a product that is cheaper. However, in this case, the question specifically asks for a factor that will not cause demand to increase. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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121. 71) An increase in the quantity supplied is caused by A) a higher market price. B) an advance of technology. C) a decrease in the price of inputs. D) an increase in the income of buyers.

Explanation

An increase in the quantity supplied is caused by a higher market price. When the market price of a good or service increases, producers are incentivized to supply more of that good or service in order to maximize their profits. This is because they can now sell the good or service at a higher price, leading to an increase in the quantity supplied.

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122. 64) Normal goods are those that buyers buy A) less of when their incomes decrease. B) a lot of throughout the year. C) during normal times. D) more of when their income decrease.

Explanation

Normal goods are goods for which the demand decreases when income decreases. This means that buyers buy less of these goods when their incomes decrease.

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123. 39) You have an absolute advantage whenever you A) are better educated than someone else. B) can produce more of something than others with the same resources. C) can produce something at a lower opportunity cost than others. D) prefer to do one particular activity.

Explanation

An absolute advantage refers to the ability to produce a good or service with fewer resources or at a lower opportunity cost compared to others. Option C correctly identifies this concept by stating that you have an absolute advantage when you can produce something at a lower opportunity cost than others. This means that you can produce more of that particular good or service by sacrificing less of other goods or services. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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124. 28) On a production possibilities frontier, a combination of output that is inside the frontier is A) allocatively inefficient. B) productively efficient. C) allocatively efficient. D) productively inefficient.

Explanation

A combination of output that is inside the production possibilities frontier is considered to be productively inefficient. This means that resources are not being fully utilized and there is potential to increase output without sacrificing the production of other goods.

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125. 125) Which of the following would not be included in the expenditure category called investment expenditures? A) a purchase of a copy machine by Kinkos B) a purchase of shares of preferred stock C) the cars held in inventory on a local Ford dealer's lot D) spending on new houses

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Spending on new houses would not be included in the expenditure category called investment expenditures because it falls under the category of capital expenditures. Investment expenditures typically refer to purchases of financial assets or physical assets such as machinery, equipment, and vehicles, while spending on new houses would be classified as a capital expenditure in the real estate sector.

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1) Scarcity
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104) What is globalization? ...
128) The underground or informal economy can be described as ...
4) Where are buyers and sellers brought together? ...
62) Which of the following would be an example of substitute goods? ...
27) What points are unattainable on a production possibilities...
88) If a nation has an comparative advantage in producing a good or...
29) Which of the following terms means the highest valued alternative...
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130) The unemployment rate is ...
2) Economics is the study of
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22) How can the influence of a third variable be shown on a two...
111) An example of final good would be ...
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135) The short term unemployment arising from the process of matching...
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36) Without an increase in the supplies of factors of production, how...
93) What is outsourcing? ...
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90) If nation A can produce 20 units of good X and 16 of good Y while...
113) Which of the following transactions would be included in the...
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134) If the number employed is 190 million, the number unemployed is...
136) Unemployment arising from a persistent mismatch between the...
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25) The production possibilities frontier shows ...
77) The existence of a surplus for a good at a given price will cause...
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21) If a graph has a line that shows the amount of outsourcing in the...
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103) What happened in the 1930s when the U.S. passed the highest...
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37) On a production possibilities frontier model, the production of...
67) What would happen in the red apple market if the price of golden...
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120) The measure of total production that values output using a base...
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110) How are intermediate goods treated in the calculation of GDP? ...
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107) What has caused the widening gap between the wages of skilled and...
118) Which of the following accurately describes an effect of the...
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126) If a U.S. firm produces Nova cars in Mexico, that production...
69) If the demand for good X increases when the price of good Y...
26) What points on a production possibilities frontier are attainable...
51) Demand shows the ...
79) Which of the following would not increase the demand for coffee? ...
91) If nation A can produce 20 units of good X and 16 of good Y while...
109) Total production (or GDP) in the economy  is measured as the...
127) If a German firm produces BMW cars in the United States, that...
82) If the government were to outlaw the consumption of potatoes,...
78) The existence of a shortage for a good at a price will cause ...
81) If market demand increases 25 percent and market supply also...
97) Who was the first economist to explain comparative advantage? ...
60) Which of the following will NOT cause demand to increase for...
71) An increase in the quantity supplied is caused by ...
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