Lymphatic System Lecture Quiz

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  • 1/18 Questions

    Dendritic cells are found in T cell rich areas

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

The 'Lymphatic System Lecture Quiz' assesses knowledge on lymphatic system components, including Th2 Cells, lymphatic organs, antibodies, and genetic markers. It is designed for learners aiming to deepen their understanding of immunological functions and anatomy.

Lymphatic System Lecture Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A person cannot live without a spleen

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because a person can live without a spleen. While the spleen plays important roles in filtering blood and fighting infections, it is not essential for survival. Other organs in the body can compensate for its functions. In some cases, the spleen may need to be removed due to injury or disease, and individuals can still lead normal lives without it.

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  • 3. 

    A person will have more adipose tissue in their thymus when they are a child then when they are an Adult

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Adipose tissue refers to fat tissue, which is not typically found in the thymus. The thymus is a gland responsible for the development and maturation of immune cells called T-lymphocytes. As a person grows older, the thymus gradually decreases in size and is replaced by adipose tissue. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a person will have more adipose tissue in their thymus when they are a child compared to when they are an adult.

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  • 4. 

    Peyer's patches are located in the

    • Ileum

    • Pharynx

    • Doudenum

    • Large intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ileum
    Explanation
    Peyer's patches are located in the ileum, which is the final section of the small intestine. These patches are part of the lymphatic system and play a crucial role in immune function. They contain specialized immune cells called lymphocytes that help protect the body against harmful pathogens and bacteria that may enter the digestive system. The ileum is specifically chosen as the location for Peyer's patches because it is where most of the nutrient absorption takes place, making it an ideal site for immune surveillance and defense.

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  • 5. 

    What type of cell would you most expect to find near the Periarterial Lymphatic Sheath

    • T Cells

    • B Cells

    • RBC's

    • Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. T Cells
    Explanation
    The Periarterial Lymphatic Sheath (PALS) is a region in the spleen where lymphocytes are found. T cells are a type of lymphocyte that play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity. Therefore, it is expected to find T cells near the PALS as they are involved in immune responses.

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  • 6. 

    This patient most likely has

    • Neutropenia

    • Hodgkin Lymphoma

    • Sickle-Cell Anemia

    • Elliptocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hodgkin Lymphoma
    Explanation
    Based on the given options, the most likely diagnosis for the patient is Hodgkin Lymphoma. Neutropenia refers to a low count of neutrophils, which is not specified in the question. Sickle-Cell Anemia is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal red blood cells, which is not mentioned in the question. Elliptocytosis is a condition where red blood cells have an elliptical shape, which is also not mentioned in the question. Therefore, Hodgkin Lymphoma is the most reasonable choice based on the given information.

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  • 7. 

    A Patient presents with Lymphocytopenia, hemorrhages and eczema (dermatitis) Recurrent infections with opportunistic pathogens, Streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae and CMV  this patient most likely has?

    • DiGeorge Syndrome

    • Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

    • Beta Thalassemia

    • Pompe Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
    Explanation
    Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome:
    X-linked defect caused by numerous mutations in the X chromosome especially the Wiskott Aldrich syndrome protein (WASP) expressed in lymphocytes and megakaryocytes

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  • 8. 

    Which antibody is most associated with the primary immune response?

    • IgM

    • IgG

    • IgD

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    IgM is the antibody most associated with the primary immune response. During the primary immune response, the body produces IgM antibodies as the first line of defense against pathogens. IgM is the largest antibody and is produced in large quantities initially to neutralize and eliminate the invading pathogens. It activates complement proteins to enhance the immune response and is crucial for clearing the infection during the early stages. As the immune response progresses, other antibodies such as IgG, IgD, and IgE may also be produced, but IgM is the primary antibody involved in the initial immune response.

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  • 9. 

    Except on the thymus, the reticular meshwork and cells on lymphatic tissues is derived from the

    • Mesenchyme

    • Myeloid cells

    • Erythroid cells

    • PPSC

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesenchyme
    Explanation
    The reticular meshwork and cells in lymphatic tissues are derived from the mesenchyme. Mesenchyme is a type of embryonic connective tissue that gives rise to various cell types, including fibroblasts, which are responsible for producing the reticular fibers that make up the meshwork in lymphatic tissues. This process occurs during embryonic development when mesenchymal cells differentiate into specialized cell types to form the lymphatic system. Myeloid cells and erythroid cells are not involved in the development of the reticular meshwork and cells in lymphatic tissues. PPSC (presumptive pluripotent stem cell) is not relevant to this context.

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  • 10. 

    The MHC gene is located on which chromosome?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The MHC gene is located on chromosome 6.

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  • 11. 

    In Lymph Nodules/Follicles reticular cells produce

    • Type I collagen

    • Type II collagen

    • Type III collagen

    • Type IV collagen

    Correct Answer
    A. Type III collagen
    Explanation
    Lymph nodules or follicles are small structures found in the lymphatic system that contain immune cells. Reticular cells are specialized cells found in lymphoid tissues that produce various types of collagen. Type III collagen, also known as reticular collagen, is primarily produced by reticular cells. It forms a network of fibers that provide structural support to lymphoid tissues, helping to maintain their shape and organization. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that reticular cells produce type III collagen in lymph nodules/follicles.

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  • 12. 

    The Trabecular sinus drains into the Cortical Sinus

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    3 types of sinuses in lymph nodes:
    Subcapsular or cortical sinuses: between node capsule and cortical lymphocytes. Site of afferent lymph vessel drainage
    Trabecular sinuses: originate on cortical sinus, travel along trabeculae and drain in medullary sinuses
    Medullary sinuses: in the medulla of lymph nodes

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  • 13. 

    Which type of epithelioreticular cell has tight junctions and MHC I and II molecules

    • Type I

    • Type II

    • Type III

    • Type V

    Correct Answer
    A. Type III
    Explanation
    Type I:
    Boundary of connective tissue cortex and trabeculae
    Surround adventitia of cortical blood vessels
    Separate thymic parenchyma from connective tissue  separates developing T cells from connective tissue
    Type II:
    In the cortex
    Rich in desmosomes (maculae adherens)
    Separate and compartmentalize cortex into isolated areas for the developing T cells
    Express MHC I and MCH II molecules  thymic cell education
    Type III:
    Boundary of cortex and medulla
    Occluding junctions
    Functional barrier between cortex and medulla
    Have MHC I and MHC II molecules
    Type IV:
    Close to type III cells
    Tight junctions
    Help create barrier at corticomedullary junction
    Type V:
    Contain desmosomes
    Framework and compartmentalization of medulla
    Type VI:
    Form Hassall’s corpuscles  isolated masses  flattened nuclei
    Desmosomes
    Produces IL-4 and IL-7  thymic differentiation and education of T cells

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  • 14. 

    How many types of epithelioreticular cells are there?

    • 4

    • 5

    • 6

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    There are six types of epithelioreticular cells.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of epithelioreticular cell forms Hassall's corpuscle?

    • Type I

    • Type III

    • Type IV

    • Type VI

    Correct Answer
    A. Type VI
    Explanation
    Type VI epithelioreticular cells form Hassall's corpuscles. Hassall's corpuscles are found in the thymus gland and are composed of concentric layers of epithelial cells. These cells are derived from the endoderm and play a role in the maturation of T-cells. Type VI epithelioreticular cells are responsible for the production of keratin and the formation of the characteristic concentric layers seen in Hassall's corpuscles.

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  • 16. 

    A Patient presents with heart defects, hypocalcemia and recurrent viral, bacterial and fungal infections upon examining their karyotype you notic a pinpoint deletion on chromosome 22 (nice catch!) this patient most likely has?

    • DiGeorge Syndrome

    • Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

    • Beta Thalassemia

    • Pompe Syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. DiGeorge Syndrome
    Explanation
    DiGeroge Syndrome:
    Caused by pinpoint deletion in chromosome 22  defective development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches  Absent thymus, abnormal cardiac development and defective parathyroid glands
    Pts with heart defects, hypocalcemia and recurrent viral, bacterial and fungal infections  NO T lymphocytes in the most severe form
    Some patients may have a rudimentary thymus
    Many patients die in early childhood due to uncontrollable infections  no cell mediated immunity

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  • 17. 

    Th2 Cells interact with all of the following EXCEPT

    • B cells

    • NK cells

    • Cytotoxic T cells

    • Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. B cells
    Explanation
    Th2 cells interact with all of the cells listed except for B cells. Th2 cells are a subset of T helper cells that play a crucial role in regulating immune responses, particularly in allergic reactions and defense against parasites. They primarily interact with B cells, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages to coordinate the immune response. Th2 cells help activate B cells, which then produce antibodies to fight against pathogens. They also interact with cytotoxic T cells and macrophages to enhance their functions. However, Th2 cells do not directly interact with NK cells, which are part of the innate immune system and primarily involved in killing virus-infected cells and tumor cells.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT a central lymphatic organ?

    • Bone Marrow

    • Thymus

    • GALT

    • Spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Spleen
    Explanation
    The spleen is not a central lymphatic organ because it is not involved in the production and maturation of lymphocytes. Instead, the spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ that filters the blood and removes old or damaged red blood cells. The central lymphatic organs include the bone marrow and thymus, which are responsible for the production and maturation of lymphocytes. GALT (Gut-Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is also considered a central lymphatic organ as it plays a crucial role in immune responses in the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Current Version
  • Oct 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 28, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    074604g
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