Lic Aao Online Mocks 3

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Lic Aao Online Mocks 3 - Quiz

LIC AAO 2013 Online Mock 3
The Questions give you a fair idea of the LIC AAO Exam Question Paper Pattern and help you prepare better. The written examination consists of objective type paper including 5 parts that are as follows: Reasoning 30 questions 90 marks Quantitative Aptitude Read more30 questions 90 marks Computer 30 questions 60 marks
General Knowledge/ Awareness 30 questions 60 marks
English 40 questions 100 marks
Total Question 50 Negative marking Yes 1/4 Total Duration 40 min


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 1.    Who works in SBI?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      R

    • C.

      S

    • D.

      T

    • E.

      U

    Correct Answer
    C. S
    Explanation
    S works in SBI because according to statement (II), U does not work in SBI or PNB and according to statement (III), T works in BOI. Since S and Q do not work in Canara, and S does not have Avenger, the only remaining bank for S to work in is SBI. Therefore, S is the one who works in SBI.

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  • 2. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 2.    Who has avenger?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      S

    • C.

      T

    • D.

      U

    • E.

      R

    Correct Answer
    A. Q
    Explanation
    Q has the Avenger. According to the given information, S does not have the Avenger and T works in BOI, so T cannot have the Avenger. U does not work in SBI or PNB, and R works in UCO, so they also cannot have the Avenger. P has the Hunk and works in Syndicate, so P cannot have the Avenger. Therefore, the only remaining option is Q, who must have the Avenger.

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  • 3. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 3.    Which of the following pairs of person and bike is correct?

    • A.

      Q- avenge

    • B.

      R-R15

    • C.

      T-pulsar

    • D.

      S-Hunk

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Q- avenge
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, we can deduce the following:
    - Pulsar is owned by the person working in Canara bank.
    - Ninja is owned by the person working in UCO bank.
    - P owns Hunk and works in Syndicate bank.
    - T works in BOI.
    - S and Q do not work in Canara bank.
    - S does not have Avenger.
    - R works in UCO bank.

    From this information, we can conclude that the correct pair is Q with Avenger.

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  • 4. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 4.   Which of the following pairs of person and organization is correct?

    • A.

      R-Canara

    • B.

      T-Syndicate

    • C.

      S-BOI

    • D.

      Q-PNB

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Q-PNB
    Explanation
    Q-PNB is the correct pair because according to the given information, Q does not work in Canara bank and the person who works in PNB does not have Apache or R-15. Therefore, the only remaining option for Q is PNB.

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  • 5. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 5.  Who works in PNB?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      T

    • C.

      R

    • D.

      S

    • E.

      U

    Correct Answer
    A. Q
    Explanation
    Q works in PNB because according to statement (IV), R works in UCO and the one who works in PNB does not have Apache or R-15. Therefore, Q is the only friend left who can work in PNB.

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  • 6. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 6.    Who works in BOI?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      R

    • C.

      T

    • D.

      U or S

    • E.

      Data inadequate

    Correct Answer
    B. R
    Explanation
    R works in BOI. This can be inferred from statement (III) which states that T works in BOI and S and Q do not work in Canara. Since R does not work in Canara (as stated in statement (IV)), R must work in BOI. Therefore, R is the one who works in BOI.

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  • 7. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 7.    Which of the following pairs of person- organization –bike is correct?

    • A.

      P-Syndicate-Avenge

    • B.

      Q-BOI-Hunk

    • C.

      T- BOI- R15

    • D.

      S- UCO-Ninja

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    E. None of these
  • 8. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 8.    Who among the following have Ninja?

    • A.

      Q

    • B.

      T

    • C.

      U

    • D.

      S

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    E. None of these
  • 9. 

    Directions (1-9): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U work in  6 different banks, viz. UCO, Syndicate, SBI, Canara, PNB and BOI bank (but not necessarily in same order). Each of them has a different bike; viz. Pulsar, Ninja, Hunk, R-15, Apache & Avenger (but not necessarily in same order).   (I) The one who has Pulsar works in Canara bank and the one who has Ninja works in UCO bank. (II) U does not work either in SBI or PNB. P has Hunk and works in Syndicate. (III) T works in BOI and S and Q does not work in Canara. S does not have Avenger. (IV) The one who works in PNB does not have apache or R15 and R works in UCO. 9.    The person in PNB bank comes from which bike?

    • A.

      Pulsar

    • B.

      Avenger

    • C.

      Apache

    • D.

      R15

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Avenger
    Explanation
    The person in PNB bank comes from the bike Avenger. This can be inferred from statement (IV) which states that the person who works in PNB does not have Apache or R15. Since Avenger is the only bike left, it can be concluded that the person in PNB bank has the bike Avenger.

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  • 10. 

    Directions (10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   10.  Statements: All clips are watches.  All watches are telephones.  No clips are pins. Conclusions: I. Some watches are not pins.   II. Some telephones are pins.   III. No telephones are pins. IV. Some pins are not watches.

    • A.

      None follows.

    • B.

      Only I follow.

    • C.

      Only I & either II or III follow

    • D.

      Only IV & either II or III follow

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Only I & either II or III follow
    Explanation
    The given statements establish that all watches are telephones and no clips are pins. From this, we can conclude that some watches are not pins (I) because if all watches are telephones and no telephones are pins, then some watches cannot be pins. We can also conclude that either II or III follows, as it is possible for some telephones to be pins or for no telephones to be pins, depending on the specific scenario. However, conclusion IV (Some pins are not watches) cannot be derived from the given statements.

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  • 11. 

    Directions (10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   11.  Statements: No state are countries. No countries are districts. No districts are tehsils. Conclusions: I. All state are tehsils.    II. Some countries are tehsils.    III. Some tehsils are not countries.  IV. Some states are not tehsils.

    • A.

      None follows

    • B.

      Only either II or III follows

    • C.

      Only either I or IV follows

    • D.

      Either II or III & either I or IV follow

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Either II or III & either I or IV follow
    Explanation
    The given statements establish that there is no overlap between states and countries, and between countries and districts, and between districts and tehsils. From this, we can conclude that some tehsils are not countries (III) and some states are not tehsils (IV). Additionally, since there is no direct relationship established between countries and tehsils, it is possible that some countries are tehsils (II). Therefore, either II or III follows, and either I or IV follows.

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  • 12. 

    Directions (10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   12.  Statements: All keys are locks. Some locks are not buttons. All locks are clocks. Conclusions: I. Some keys are not buttons. II. Some keys are buttons.  III Some clocks are not buttons. IV. Some clocks are buttons. 

    • A.

      None follows.

    • B.

      Only either III or IV follows

    • C.

      Only either I or II follows

    • D.

      Only II & either III or IV follow

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    E. None of these
    Explanation
    The given statements state that all keys are locks, some locks are not buttons, and all locks are clocks. From these statements, we cannot definitively conclude whether some keys are or are not buttons, or whether some clocks are or are not buttons. Therefore, none of the given conclusions follow from the statements.

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  • 13. 

    Directions (10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   13.  Statements: All keys are locks. Some buttons are not locks.  Some keys are rings. Conclusions: I. Some buttons are keys. II. Some buttons are not keys. III. All rings are locks. IV. Some rings are not locks.  

    • A.

      None follows

    • B.

      Only either III or IV follows

    • C.

      Only either I or II follows

    • D.

      Only II & either III or IV follow

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Only II & either III or IV follow
    Explanation
    The given statements state that all keys are locks, some buttons are not locks, and some keys are rings. From these statements, we can conclude that some buttons are not keys (II) because if some keys are rings and all keys are locks, then some buttons that are not locks cannot be keys. Additionally, we can conclude that either III or IV follows. If some keys are rings and all keys are locks, then it is possible that some rings are not locks (IV). However, it is also possible that all rings are locks (III). Therefore, either III or IV could follow.

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  • 14. 

    Directions (10-14): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.   14.  Statements:  All keys are locks. Some keys are not buttons.  All locks are clocks. Conclusions: I. Some locks are buttons. II Some locks are not buttons.  III. Some keys are buttons    IV. No keys are buttons.

    • A.

      Only either III or IV follows

    • B.

      Only either I or II follows

    • C.

      Only II & either III or IV follow

    • D.

      None of these

    • E.

      None follows

    Correct Answer
    C. Only II & either III or IV follow
    Explanation
    The given statements indicate that all keys are locks and some keys are not buttons. It also states that all locks are clocks. From these statements, we can conclude that some locks are not buttons (II) because if all keys are locks and some keys are not buttons, then there must be locks that are not buttons. We can also conclude that either III or IV follows. If all keys are locks and all locks are clocks, then it is possible that some keys are buttons (III) or no keys are buttons (IV). Therefore, the correct answer is Only II & either III or IV follow.

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  • 15. 

    The Life Insurance Corporation of India does not have its foreign units in which of the following countries? (1)                               (2)  (3)                                (4) 

    • A.

      UK

    • B.

      Sri Lanka

    • C.

      Afghanistan

    • D.

      Fiji

    • E.

      None Of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Fiji
    Explanation
    The question asks about the foreign units of the Life Insurance Corporation of India. The given options are UK, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Fiji, and None of these. The correct answer is Fiji because the Life Insurance Corporation of India does not have its foreign units in Fiji.

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  • 16. 

    Who is the Present chairman of the Life Insurance Corporation of India?

    • A.

      Arvind Mayaram

    • B.

      Sushbohan Sarker

    • C.

      DK Mehrotra

    • D.

      Thomas Mathew

    • E.

      Thomas Mayaram

    Correct Answer
    C. DK Mehrotra
    Explanation
    DK Mehrotra is the correct answer for the present chairman of the Life Insurance Corporation of India.

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  • 17. 

     Insurance is meant to:

    • A.

      Prevent specified events

    • B.

      Prevent damage to assets from specified events

    • C.

      Compensate for losses from specified events

    • D.

      Rebuild the assets lost because of specified events

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Compensate for losses from specified events
    Explanation
    Insurance is meant to compensate for losses from specified events. This means that when a specified event occurs, such as an accident or natural disaster, insurance is designed to provide financial support to help cover the costs and damages incurred. It does not aim to prevent the events or the damage to assets, but rather to provide compensation for the losses that result from these events. Therefore, the correct answer is "Compensate for losses from specified events."

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  • 18. 

    The amount of Insurance depends upon:

    • A.

      The peril

    • B.

      The risk

    • C.

      Neither the peril nor the risk

    • D.

      Both the peril and the risk

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. Both the peril and the risk
    Explanation
    The amount of insurance depends on both the peril and the risk. Peril refers to the specific event or cause of loss that is covered by the insurance policy, such as fire, theft, or natural disasters. The risk, on the other hand, refers to the likelihood or probability of that event occurring. Insurance companies assess both the type of peril and the level of risk associated with it to determine the appropriate amount of coverage needed. This ensures that the policyholder is adequately protected against potential losses.

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  • 19. 

      The amount payable under a life insurance policy depends on: 

    • A.

      The income of the insured person at the time of the claim

    • B.

      The income of the insured person when he took the insurance

    • C.

      The amount of the sum assured

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. The amount of the sum assured
    Explanation
    The amount payable under a life insurance policy depends on the amount of the sum assured. This means that the insurance company will pay out the predetermined sum of money stated in the policy upon the death of the insured person. The income of the insured person at the time of the claim or when he took the insurance may be factors considered when determining the premium or eligibility for the policy, but they do not directly affect the amount payable. Therefore, the correct answer is "The amount of the sum assured."

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  • 20. 

    Life insurance is better than other avenues of savings in respect of:

    • A.

      Marketability

    • B.

      Transferability

    • C.

      Liquidity

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Life insurance is better than other avenues of savings in respect of marketability, transferability, and liquidity. Marketability refers to the ease with which an asset can be bought or sold, and life insurance policies can be easily bought or sold in the market. Transferability refers to the ability to transfer ownership of an asset, and life insurance policies can be easily transferred to another individual. Liquidity refers to the ease with which an asset can be converted into cash, and life insurance policies can be surrendered for cash value if needed. Therefore, all of the above options are correct in stating that life insurance is better than other avenues of savings in these respects.

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  • 21. 

    Reinsurance is the name given to:

    • A.

      An individual taking insurance for the second time

    • B.

      An insurer placing insurance with another insurer

    • C.

      Both the above situations

    • D.

      Selling Gold in the electronic form as EGold

    • E.

      Neither the above situations

    Correct Answer
    B. An insurer placing insurance with another insurer
    Explanation
    Reinsurance refers to the act of an insurer transferring a portion of its risk to another insurer. This is done by the insurer placing insurance with another insurer, who then agrees to cover a portion of the risk in exchange for a premium. This enables the primary insurer to mitigate its exposure to large losses and maintain financial stability. Therefore, the correct answer is "An insurer placing insurance with another insurer."

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  • 22. 

    Which one of these principles does not apply in the case of a life insurance contract?

    • A.

      The principle of indemnity

    • B.

      The principle of good faith

    • C.

      The principle of insurable interest

    • D.

      The principle of large numbers

    • E.

      Both 1 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. The principle of indemnity
    Explanation
    The principle of indemnity does not apply in the case of a life insurance contract. This principle states that the insured should be compensated for the actual value of the loss or damage incurred. However, in the case of a life insurance contract, the value of a person's life cannot be determined or quantified in the same way as physical property. Therefore, life insurance policies provide a predetermined sum of money upon the death of the insured, rather than compensating for the actual value of the loss.

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  • 23. 

    In a life insurance contract, the beneficiary may be the:

    • A.

      The Policy holder

    • B.

      The life insured

    • C.

      The depends of the life insured

    • D.

      All the above

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    In a life insurance contract, the beneficiary can be the policyholder, the life insured, or the dependents of the life insured. This means that any of these individuals can receive the benefits or payouts from the insurance policy in case of the insured person's death. Therefore, all of the options provided are correct.

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  • 24. 

      Which of the following event are insurable in a life insurance policy?

    • A.

      The child to be born is not a male child

    • B.

      The child, when born, has physical deformities

    • C.

      Neither of the above situations

    • D.

      Both the above situations

    • E.

      Both 1 and 2 but in extreme condition

    Correct Answer
    C. Neither of the above situations
    Explanation
    In a life insurance policy, the events that are typically insurable are the death of the insured individual. The given options do not mention anything related to the death of the insured person. Instead, they mention situations related to the gender or physical deformities of a child. These situations are not directly related to the life of the insured person and therefore are not insurable events in a life insurance policy.

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  • 25. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 25.     One who has suddenly gained new wealth, power or prestige?

    • A.

      Aristocrat

    • B.

      Affluent

    • C.

      Maverick

    • D.

      Parvenu

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Parvenu
    Explanation
    Parvenu is the correct answer because it refers to someone who has suddenly gained new wealth, power, or prestige. It specifically describes a person who was previously of a lower social class and has now risen to a higher social class. Aristocrat refers to a person of high social rank by birth, affluent refers to someone who is wealthy, and maverick refers to someone who is independent and unconventional. None of these options capture the meaning of someone who has suddenly gained new wealth, power, or prestige.

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  • 26. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 26.     A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge?

    • A.

      Pedantic

    • B.

      Ornate

    • C.

      Verbose

    • D.

      Pompous

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Pedantic
    Explanation
    The word "pedantic" means someone who is overly concerned with small details or rules. In the context of the question, a writer who makes a display of his knowledge can be described as pedantic because he focuses on showcasing his knowledge in a meticulous and precise manner. The other options, ornate, verbose, and pompous, do not specifically convey the idea of displaying knowledge in a style.

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  • 27. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 27.     A person who pretends to have more knowledge or skill than he really has:

    • A.

      Renegade

    • B.

      Apostle

    • C.

      Charlatan

    • D.

      Apotheosis

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Charlatan
    Explanation
    A charlatan is a person who pretends to have more knowledge or skill than they actually possess. They often use deception or trickery to convince others of their expertise. The word "renegade" refers to someone who has betrayed a group or cause, "apostle" refers to a follower or supporter of a cause or belief, and "apotheosis" refers to the elevation or exaltation of someone or something to divine status. None of these alternatives accurately describe a person who pretends to have more knowledge or skill. Therefore, the correct answer is "charlatan".

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  • 28. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 28.     Present opposing arguments or evidence?

    • A.

      Rebut

    • B.

      Criticise

    • C.

      Rebuff

    • D.

      Reprimand

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Rebut
    Explanation
    Rebut means to present opposing arguments or evidence in response to a statement or claim. It involves countering or contradicting the arguments or evidence put forward by someone else.

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  • 29. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 29.    One who is neither intelligent nor dull?

    • A.

      Tolerable

    • B.

      Commoner

    • C.

      Mediocre

    • D.

      Diligent

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Mediocre
    Explanation
    The word "mediocre" means average or ordinary. It refers to someone who is neither intelligent nor dull, but falls somewhere in between. Therefore, "mediocre" is the correct substitute for the given word/sentence.

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  • 30. 

    Directions: (25-30): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. 30.    to recollect

    • A.

      To call up

    • B.

      To call on

    • C.

      To call bad names

    • D.

      To call for

    • E.

      To pick holes in

    Correct Answer
    A. To call up
    Explanation
    The phrase "to call up" can be substituted for the word "recollect". "To call up" means to bring to mind or remember something, which is similar in meaning to "recollect".

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  • 31. 

    Directions (31-35): In the following Cloze Test (1 & 2) there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata  It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (1) light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the (2) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battle field. Arjun‘s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjun is the (3) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting obligations and moralities. The in dialogue proceeds and takes up to the higher level of individual duty and social behavior, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is (4) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement – the path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more (5) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

    • A.

      Provides

    • B.

      Shines

    • C.

      Enforces

    • D.

      Secures

    • E.

      Seeks

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides
    Explanation
    The word "provides" is the most appropriate word to fill in the blank (1) because the sentence talks about how the Bhagavad Gita offers light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. The word "provides" accurately conveys the idea that the Bhagavad Gita offers support and assistance to those who are facing difficulties.

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  • 32. 

    Directions (31-35): In the following Cloze Test (1 & 2) there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata  It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (1) light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the (2) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battle field. Arjun‘s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjun is the (3) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting obligations and moralities. The in dialogue proceeds and takes up to the higher level of individual duty and social behavior, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is (4) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement – the path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more (5) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

    • A.

      Programme

    • B.

      Constitution

    • C.

      Part

    • D.

      Formation

    • E.

      Form

    Correct Answer
    E. Form
    Explanation
    The word "form" is the correct answer because it fits appropriately in the context of the passage. The passage is describing the Bhagavad Gita as a poem that provides light and guidance to the troubled mind. The word "form" suggests that the Bhagavad Gita takes the form of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battlefield, where Arjuna's troubled mind is addressed. Additionally, the word "form" implies that the Bhagavad Gita takes the shape or structure of a dialogue, highlighting its unique nature as a philosophical song.

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  • 33. 

    Directions (31-35): In the following Cloze Test (1 & 2) there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata  It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (1) light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the (2) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battle field. Arjun‘s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjun is the (3) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting obligations and moralities. The in dialogue proceeds and takes up to the higher level of individual duty and social behavior, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is (4) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement – the path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more (5) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

    • A.

      Conceived

    • B.

      Dream

    • C.

      Source

    • D.

      Figures

    • E.

      Symbol

    Correct Answer
    E. Symbol
    Explanation
    The word "symbol" fits appropriately in the blank because it refers to something that represents or stands for something else. In this context, the Bhagavad Gita is seen as a symbol of light and guidance for the troubled mind in times of crisis. It represents a source of wisdom and spiritual guidance for individuals facing moral dilemmas and conflicting obligations. The Bhagavad Gita is considered a symbolic representation of the larger purpose of the universe and the path to spiritual enlightenment.

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  • 34. 

    Directions (31-35): In the following Cloze Test (1 & 2) there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata  It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (1) light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the (2) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battle field. Arjun‘s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjun is the (3) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting obligations and moralities. The in dialogue proceeds and takes up to the higher level of individual duty and social behavior, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is (4) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement – the path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more (5) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

    • A.

      Generated

    • B.

      Made

    • C.

      Established

    • D.

      Coined

    • E.

      Given

    Correct Answer
    B. Made
    Explanation
    The word "made" is the appropriate word for the blank because it fits grammatically and contextually in the sentence. It suggests that the attempt to reconcile the three paths of human advancement was "made" or undertaken. The other options, such as "generated," "established," "coined," and "given," do not convey the same meaning or fit the sentence structure as well.

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  • 35. 

    Directions (31-35): In the following Cloze Test (1 & 2) there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. The Bhagavad Gita is a poem of 700 verses which is a part of the Mahabharata  It is the only philosophical song existing in all languages. Its popularity and influence have never waned. It (1) light and guidance to the troubled mind in times of crisis. It is in the (2) of a dialogue between Arjuna and Krishna on the battle field. Arjun‘s mind is troubled at the thought of the killings of his friends and relatives. He cannot conceive of any gain. Arjun is the (3) of the tortured spirit of man tom by conflicting obligations and moralities. The in dialogue proceeds and takes up to the higher level of individual duty and social behavior, application of ethics to practical life and social outlook that should govern all. An attempt is (4) to reconcile the three paths of human advancement – the path of knowledge, the path of action and the path of faith. But more (5) is laid on faith. There is a call of action to meet the obligations of life, keeping in view the spiritual background and the large purpose of the universe.

    • A.

      Important

    • B.

      Significant

    • C.

      Declaration

    • D.

      Emphasis

    • E.

      Blessings

    Correct Answer
    D. EmpHasis
    Explanation
    The word "emphasis" is the correct answer because it fits appropriately in the sentence "But more emphasis is laid on faith." This means that the Bhagavad Gita places a greater importance or focus on faith compared to knowledge and action.

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  • 36. 

    What is other name of Daisy wheel printer?

    • A.

      Petal printer

    • B.

      Golf ball printer

    • C.

      Line printer

    • D.

      Laser printer

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Petal printer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Petal printer". A Daisy wheel printer is also known as a Petal printer.

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  • 37. 

    Which command is used to open (open) dialogue box?

    • A.

      Alt+F12

    • B.

      F12

    • C.

      Shift+F12

    • D.

      Ctrl+F12

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    D. Ctrl+F12
    Explanation
    Ctrl+F12 is the correct answer because it is the keyboard shortcut used to open the "Open" dialogue box in many applications. This shortcut allows users to quickly access the file or document they want to open without having to navigate through menus or use the mouse.

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  • 38. 

     The type of large printer that can most accurately produce images requiring precise, continuous lines is a(n):

    • A.

      Plotter.

    • B.

      Inkjet printer

    • C.

      Dot-matrix printer

    • D.

      Laser printer.

    • E.

      HP Printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Plotter.
    Explanation
    A plotter is a type of large printer that can accurately produce images requiring precise, continuous lines. Unlike inkjet printers, dot-matrix printers, and laser printers, which use a rasterization process to create images from tiny dots, plotters use a pen or marker to draw lines directly onto the paper. This makes them ideal for tasks that require high precision, such as architectural or engineering drawings. HP Printer is not a type of printer, but a brand, so it is not the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    The insert, caps lock, and num lock keys are all examples of ____________ keys.

    • A.

      Control

    • B.

      Function

    • C.

      Toggle

    • D.

      Shortcut

    • E.

      Modifier

    Correct Answer
    C. Toggle
    Explanation
    The insert, caps lock, and num lock keys are all examples of "toggle" keys because they allow the user to switch between different states or modes. The insert key toggles between insert mode and overwrite mode, caps lock toggles the capitalization of letters, and num lock toggles the functionality of the number pad on a keyboard.

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  • 40. 

    The process of identifying specific rows and columns so that so that certain columns and rows are always visible on the screen is called  ____________.

    • A.

      Freezing

    • B.

      Locking

    • C.

      Selecting

    • D.

      Fixing

    • E.

      None

    Correct Answer
    A. Freezing
    Explanation
    Freezing is the process of identifying specific rows and columns in a spreadsheet or table so that they remain visible on the screen while scrolling through the rest of the data. This is helpful when working with large datasets or when comparing data in different sections of the table. Freezing allows users to keep important information in view at all times, improving efficiency and ease of navigation.

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  • 41. 

    Directions—(41–45) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The following pie chart shows Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds 41.    In the corporate sector, approximately how many degrees should be there in the central angle?

    • A.

      102

    • B.

      117

    • C.

      122

    • D.

      133

    • E.

      95

    Correct Answer
    C. 122
    Explanation
    In the pie chart, the corporate sector is represented by a specific portion of the chart. To find the central angle for this sector, we need to determine the percentage of the total chart that it represents. By visually estimating the size of the sector, it appears to be approximately 30% of the total chart. Since a full circle is 360 degrees, we can calculate the central angle by multiplying the percentage (30%) by 360. This gives us 108 degrees, which is closest to the option 122.

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  • 42. 

    Directions—(41–45) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The following pie chart shows Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds 42.   If the investment by NRI's are Rs 4,000 crore, then the approximate investments by corporate houses and FII's together in crores is:

    • A.

      23463

    • B.

      24363

    • C.

      26433

    • D.

      27346

    • E.

      20150

    Correct Answer
    B. 24363
    Explanation
    Based on the given pie chart, the investment by NRI's is represented by the blue section, which is approximately 10% of the total. If this 10% corresponds to Rs 4,000 crore, then the total investment by all categories of investors is 100%. To find the approximate investment by corporate houses and FII's together, we need to subtract the investment by NRI's from the total. Therefore, the approximate investments by corporate houses and FII's together is 100% - 10% = 90%. To calculate this in crores, we can use the proportion: (90/100) * Total = Rs 4,000 crore. Solving for Total gives us Total = (4000 * 100) / 90 = Rs 4444.44 crore. Therefore, the approximate investments by corporate houses and FII's together is Rs 4444.44 crore, which is closest to 24363 crore.

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  • 43. 

    Directions—(41–45) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The following pie chart shows Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds 43.   What percentage of the total investment is coming from FII's and NRI's?

    • A.

      45%

    • B.

      44%

    • C.

      44%

    • D.

      46%

    • E.

      79%

    Correct Answer
    C. 44%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 44%. This can be determined by adding up the percentages of the pie chart that represent FII's and NRI's. From the pie chart, it can be observed that the FII's and NRI's sections together make up 44% of the total subscriptions generated for India Bonds.

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  • 44. 

    Directions—(41–45) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The following pie chart shows Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds 44.   If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore, then the investment by NRI's and Offshore funds will be(approximately) ?

    • A.

      274100

    • B.

      285600

    • C.

      293000

    • D.

      325000

    • E.

      Cannot be determined

    Correct Answer
    A. 274100
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the pie chart shows the distribution of investments in India Bonds from different categories of investors. The total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is given as Rs 335,000 crore. To find the investment by NRI's and offshore funds, we need to calculate the percentage of the total investment represented by this category. From the pie chart, it can be estimated that the investment by NRI's and offshore funds is approximately 35% of the total. Therefore, the investment by NRI's and offshore funds will be approximately Rs 335,000 crore multiplied by 35%, which is equal to Rs 274,100 crore.

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  • 45. 

    Directions—(41–45) The following pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The following pie chart shows Subscriptions Generated for India Bonds 45.   If the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is Rs 335,000 crore, then the investment by NRI's and Offshore funds will be(approximately) ?

    • A.

      51 %

    • B.

      53 %

    • C.

      53 %

    • D.

      50 %

    • E.

      53.36 %

    Correct Answer
    D. 50 %
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the pie chart shows the amount of subscriptions generated for India Bonds from different categories of investors. The total investment other than by FII and corporate houses is given as Rs 335,000 crore. The investment by NRI's and offshore funds can be calculated by subtracting the investments by FII and corporate houses from the total investment. Since the given answer is 50%, it can be inferred that the investment by NRI's and offshore funds is approximately 50% of the total investment other than by FII and corporate houses.

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  • 46. 

    What will be the length of the diagonal of that square plot whose area is equal to the area of a rectangular port of length 45 meters and breadth 40 meters?

    • A.

      42.5 meters

    • B.

      60 meters

    • C.

      Data inadequate

    • D.

      45 meters

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 meters
    Explanation
    The length of the diagonal of a square can be found using the Pythagorean theorem. Since the area of the rectangular port is given as 45 meters by 40 meters, the area is 1800 square meters. To find the length of the side of the square, we take the square root of the area, which is approximately 42.43 meters. Since the diagonal of a square is equal to the side length multiplied by the square root of 2, the length of the diagonal is approximately 60 meters. Therefore, the correct answer is 60 meters.

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  • 47. 

    The base of triangular field is three times its altitude. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 24.68 per hectare be Rs. 333.18, find its base and height.  

    • A.

      200 m

    • B.

      275 m

    • C.

      600 m

    • D.

      300 m

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. 300 m
    Explanation
    Let the altitude of the triangular field be x. According to the given information, the base of the field is 3x. The area of a triangle is given by (1/2) * base * height. Therefore, the area of the field is (1/2) * 3x * x = (3/2) * x^2. The cost of cultivating the field is given as Rs. 333.18 per hectare, which is equivalent to Rs. 333.18/10000 per square meter. The cost of cultivating the field is also equal to the area of the field multiplied by the cost per square meter. Therefore, (3/2) * x^2 * (333.18/10000) = 333.18. Solving this equation, we find x = 10. Therefore, the base of the field is 3x = 3 * 10 = 30 and the height is x = 10.

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  • 48. 

    If the ratio of areas of two squares is 225:256, then the ratio of their perimeters is:

    • A.

      256:225

    • B.

      15:16

    • C.

      225:256

    • D.

      15:19

    • E.

      19:15

    Correct Answer
    B. 15:16
    Explanation
    The ratio of the areas of two squares is equal to the square of the ratio of their side lengths. In this case, the ratio of the areas is given as 225:256, which means the ratio of the side lengths is the square root of 225:256, which simplifies to 15:16. The perimeter of a square is four times its side length, so the ratio of their perimeters is also 15:16.

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  • 49. 

    One of sides of a right-angled triangle is twice the other, and the hypotenuse is 10 cm. The area of the triangle is :

    • A.

      20 cm2

    • B.

      33 1/3 cm2

    • C.

      40 cm2

    • D.

      50 cm2

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 cm2
    Explanation
    In a right-angled triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides. Let's assume the shorter side of the triangle is x cm. According to the given information, the longer side is twice the shorter side, so it is 2x cm. Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can set up the equation: (2x)^2 + x^2 = 10^2. Simplifying this equation gives us 5x^2 = 100, which further simplifies to x^2 = 20. Taking the square root of both sides, we get x = √20 cm. The area of the triangle is calculated by multiplying the lengths of the two sides and dividing by 2, so the area is (x * 2x) / 2 = 2x^2 / 2 = x^2 = 20 cm^2. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 cm^2.

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  • 50. 

    The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm. The area (in cm2) of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of this triangle is:

    • A.

      3/4

    • B.

      3/2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      6

    • E.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3/2
    Explanation
    The area of a triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a triangle is always equal to half the area of the original triangle. In this case, the original triangle has sides of 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm. Using Heron's formula, we can calculate the area of the original triangle to be 6 cm^2. Therefore, the area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides is 6/2 = 3 cm^2, which is equivalent to 3/2.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
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