Large And Small Animal Nursing Midterm Review

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is the correct answer because it refers to the condition where the antibodies present in the colostrum of the queen (mother cat) cause destruction of the red blood cells (RBCs) in the kittens. This condition occurs when the queen's antibodies recognize and attack the RBCs of the kittens due to incompatibility between their blood types.

The correct answer is "Minor crossmatch". The minor crossmatch test is used to detect alloantibodies in the donor plasma against recipient RBCs. This test is performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient, specifically to identify any antibodies present in the recipient's blood that may react with the donor's red blood cells. The test involves mixing a small amount of the recipient's plasma with the donor's red blood cells and observing for any agglutination or other reactions that indicate incompatibility.

0.9% NaCl, also known as normal saline, is the only crystalloid fluid that can be administered along with blood. This is because 0.9% NaCl has the same concentration of sodium as blood, making it compatible and safe to be used in conjunction with blood transfusions. Other crystalloid fluids may have different concentrations of electrolytes, which could disrupt the balance in the body when administered with blood. Therefore, 0.9% NaCl is the preferred choice when additional fluid support is needed alongside blood transfusions.

The statement is true because the infusion of a single unit of blood or blood component should not take longer than 4 hours. This is because blood products can be at risk of contamination or degradation if left at room temperature for too long. Additionally, prolonged infusion times can increase the risk of adverse reactions or complications for the patient. Therefore, it is important to ensure that blood transfusions are completed within a reasonable timeframe to maintain the safety and efficacy of the procedure.

During and post-transfusion, parameters should be rechecked every 15 minutes. This is important to monitor the patient's vital signs, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature, as well as to assess for any signs of transfusion reactions or complications. Regular monitoring ensures early detection and prompt intervention if any issues arise during or after the transfusion process.

Transfusion reactions can be classified into two categories: immune-mediated and non-immune-mediated. Immune-mediated reactions occur when the recipient's immune system recognizes the transfused blood as foreign and mounts an immune response against it. This can lead to symptoms such as fever, chills, rash, and in severe cases, organ damage. Non-immune-mediated reactions, on the other hand, are not caused by an immune response but rather by other factors such as transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) or transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO). Therefore, the statement that transfusion reactions can be immune-mediated or non-immune-mediated is true.

Taking a history and examining the environment is important in ruminant physical exams because it helps the veterinarian gather information about the animal's past medical issues, diet, housing conditions, and potential exposure to diseases. This information is crucial in understanding the overall health and well-being of the animal, and it can guide the veterinarian in conducting a thorough physical examination and making an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, it is essential to always begin ruminant physical exams with taking a history and examining their environment.

The correct answer is "goat". In goats, the nasty secretion produced by the sebaceous gland is considered normal.

The correct answer is "All of these" because a pulse can be taken from any of the mentioned arteries in a cow. The facial artery is located on the face, the coccygeal artery is located near the tail, the median (forelimb) artery is located in the forelimb, and the great metatarsal arteries are located in the hindlimb. Therefore, a pulse can be measured from any of these four places in a cow.

Eructation refers to the process of belching or releasing gas from the stomach through the mouth. If you hear low-pitched fluttering sounds coming from a cow, it is likely that the cow is experiencing eructation. This could indicate that the cow is releasing gas from its stomach, which is a normal bodily function in ruminant animals like cows.

The given scenario describes a technique called percussion, which is used to assess the presence of gas in the abdomen. When the abdominal wall is flicked, a pinging sound is heard due to the presence of gas. By repeating this on both sides of the abdomen, the examiner can determine if there is gas accumulation present.

not-available-via-ai

Cattle typically defecate 12-18 times per day.

Stroking the vulva of female cattle can stimulate them to urinate. This action can trigger a reflex response in the animal, causing the release of urine.

i am not sure if i spelled this correctly...

When administering an intramuscular (IM) injection to cattle or small ruminants, it is important to avoid injecting more than 10ml per site in cattle or more than 5ml in small ruminants. This is because injecting larger volumes at a single site can cause discomfort and potential damage to the muscle tissue. Therefore, it is recommended to divide larger doses into multiple injection sites to ensure proper absorption and minimize the risk of adverse effects. Hence, the given statement is true.

The correct answer is lateral cervical muscles. Many DVMs prefer to target the lateral cervical muscles as they are important for neck stability and movement. These muscles help in maintaining proper posture and head position, and they are often involved in conditions such as neck pain or stiffness. By focusing on the lateral cervical muscles, DVMs can effectively address these issues and improve the overall function and comfort of their patients.

The coccygeal vein should not be used for any drug that causes irritation if given perivascularly because it is a small vein located near the tailbone and is not suitable for drug administration. Using this vein could cause discomfort, pain, or other adverse effects due to the irritation caused by the drug.

The correct answer suggests three ways to correctly size an ET tube: feeling the patient's trachea, placing the tube on the nasal septum, and using the patient's body weight. Feeling the patient's trachea can provide an indication of the appropriate size based on the size and feel of the trachea. Placing the tube on the nasal septum can help determine the length required for proper insertion into the trachea. Using the patient's body weight can be a rough estimate to guide the selection of the appropriate tube size.

The statement is asking if you want the endotracheal (ET) tube to extend from the tip of the nose to the thoracic inlet. The correct answer is true because the ET tube should be inserted into the trachea, which is located in the neck, and it should extend down to the thoracic inlet, which is the entrance to the chest cavity. This ensures that the tube is properly placed in the airway and allows for effective ventilation and oxygenation of the patient.

The FARAD is a resource commonly used by bovine DVMS (Dairy Veterinarian Medical Specialists) to look up withdrawal times for medications used to treat their patients. Withdrawal times refer to the period of time that must pass after administering a medication to an animal before its milk or meat can be safely consumed by humans. This information is crucial for ensuring the safety of the food supply and preventing the presence of harmful residues in animal products.

A semi-private cremation refers to the process where pets are separated during the cremation process but are still cremated together. This means that multiple pets are placed in the crematory at the same time, but their ashes are mixed together. As a result, no individual ashes are returned to the pet owners.

The phrase "Leave left alone" suggests that the mentioned veins should not be touched or manipulated. In the dog, the cephalic vein should be left alone. In the cat, the medial saphenous vein should be left alone.

The purpose is to assess the amount of tear production in each eye. (Tests for KCS)

The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the Fluorescein stain strip is indeed placed on the bulbar conjunctiva for a short duration of 1-2 seconds. This stain is commonly used in ophthalmology to detect corneal abrasions, foreign bodies, and other eye conditions. By placing the strip on the bulbar conjunctiva, the dye spreads across the surface of the eye, highlighting any abnormalities or damage that may be present.

Crystalloids are solutions that contain small molecules such as salts and sugars. These small molecules are able to pass through semipermeable membranes, which means they can enter all body compartments, including the intracellular and extracellular spaces. This property of crystalloids allows them to be used for fluid resuscitation and maintenance in medical settings. Therefore, the statement that crystalloids contain small molecules that will pass through semipermeable membranes and enter all body compartments is true.

When a solution is administered intravenously (IV), it is directly delivered into the bloodstream. This means that most of the solution remains within the intravascular space, which refers to the blood vessels. As a result, IV solutions are more effective at expanding blood volume because they directly enter the circulatory system and increase the overall volume of blood. This can be beneficial in situations where there is a need to rapidly restore blood volume, such as in cases of severe dehydration or blood loss. Therefore, the statement "When administered IV, most of the solution stays in the intravascular space and therefore are more effective at expanding blood volume" is true.

Fill anticoagulants and then clot tubes.

You need to redo the procedure.

All of the given clinical signs, including petechiation, ecchymosis, epistaxis, and hematuria, suggest platelet or vascular abnormalities. Petechiation refers to small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. Ecchymosis refers to larger areas of bruising. Epistaxis refers to nosebleeds, and hematuria refers to blood in the urine. These signs indicate potential issues with the blood clotting system or blood vessels, which can be indicative of platelet or vascular abnormalities.

The cross math test is indeed used to identify antibodies in donor or recipient plasma against recipient or donor RBCs. This test is crucial in determining compatibility between the donor's plasma and recipient's RBCs, or vice versa, to avoid potential complications such as transfusion reactions. By detecting the presence of antibodies, the cross match test ensures a safer and more successful blood transfusion process.

>2.5%

CPDA-1 is a solution used to preserve blood for transfusion purposes. It contains citrate, phosphate, dextrose, and adenine, which help prevent clotting and maintain the viability of red blood cells. The preservative in CPDA-1 allows the blood to be stored for an extended period of time, typically 35-45 days, without significant degradation. Therefore, the statement that CPDA-1 adds a preservative and can last for 35-45 days is true.

The correct answer is 18/hour because it is the highest rate among the given options. Eructation refers to the process of releasing gas from the digestive system through burping, and it is a normal physiological process in cattle. A higher eructation rate indicates better digestion and gas expulsion, which is essential for the overall health and comfort of the animal. Therefore, 18/hour is the most favorable and optimal eructation rate for cattle.

A halter is not an adequate restraint for bovine venipuncture because it only provides minimal control over the animal's head and does not prevent it from moving or resisting during the procedure. Bovine venipuncture requires proper immobilization and restraint to ensure the safety of both the animal and the person performing the procedure. Therefore, a halter alone is not sufficient and additional methods of restraint, such as a squeeze chute or a tilt table, should be used.

Goat and sheep feces are pelleted, meaning they form into small, compact pellets. This is a common characteristic of these animals' waste, which helps with their digestion and nutrient absorption. Pelleting also makes it easier to handle and manage the feces for various purposes, such as fertilizer or fuel. Therefore, the statement is true.

short term use

White blood cells and epithelial cells are both types of somatic cells. Somatic cells are any cells in the body that are not reproductive cells (gametes). These cells make up the majority of cells in the body and are responsible for various functions such as tissue formation, immune response, and protection against pathogens. Both white blood cells and epithelial cells are examples of somatic cells that play important roles in the body's defense mechanisms and maintaining the integrity of tissues and organs.

It tests for the reflexive and basal reflexes.

CPDA-1 is the preferred choice of an anticoagulant for a blood transfusion. This anticoagulant is commonly used because it helps to prevent clotting and preserve the quality of the blood during storage. CPDA-1 also provides nutrients to the red blood cells, ensuring their viability and functionality after the transfusion. CDDA-1 is not a recognized anticoagulant for blood transfusion. Heparin is an anticoagulant but is not typically used for blood transfusions due to its potential side effects. Adenosine is not an anticoagulant and is not used for blood transfusions.

Fecal samples are good for 3 days if stored in the refrigerator. This is because refrigeration helps to slow down the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms that can contaminate the sample. After 3 days, there is a higher risk of the sample becoming degraded or contaminated, which can affect the accuracy of any tests or analysis conducted on the sample. It is important to properly store and handle fecal samples to ensure reliable results.

25% will remain

Clinical signs such as hematoma formation, hemarthroses, and deep muscle hemorrhage suggest clotting factor deficiencies. These signs occur due to the impaired ability of the blood to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding and bruising. Therefore, all of the mentioned signs are indicative of clotting factor deficiencies.

The rumen is a large fermentation chamber in ruminant animals, such as cows and sheep, where food is broken down by bacteria and other microorganisms. It is located on the left side of the abdomen and can occupy a significant amount of space. Therefore, the statement that the rumen occupies the left side of the abdomen is true.

They are roughly equivalent to urine output.

Donor cats are often sedated during blood collection procedures to ensure their safety and to minimize stress and discomfort. Sedation helps to keep the cat calm and still, making it easier for the veterinarian or technician to collect the blood sample. Sedation also reduces the risk of injury to both the cat and the person performing the procedure. Therefore, it is true that most donor cats need to be sedated for blood collection.

they are not seen in dogs

Alcohol has the benefit of removing microbes, as it acts as an antiseptic and can kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces or in wounds. It also causes vasodilation, which is the widening of blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow and potentially reducing blood pressure. This can have positive effects on cardiovascular health. Lastly, alcohol can improve visualization, as it can act as a solvent and help dissolve substances, making them easier to see or detect.

The common maintenance dose for fluid therapy is 60ml/kg/day. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, 60ml of fluid should be administered daily to maintain hydration. This dosage is commonly used in medical settings to ensure that patients receive adequate fluid intake to support their body's needs.

every 4 hours

The major crossmatch is a test that is performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient. It detects alloantibodies in the recipient's plasma against the donor's red blood cells (RBCs). This is important because if the recipient has alloantibodies against the donor's RBCs, it can lead to a transfusion reaction. The test helps to identify any potential risks and allows for the selection of compatible blood units for transfusion.

They don't contain a preservative as they require that the blood be used within 24-48 hours

The normal eructation rate in goats and sheep is 10 per hour. Eructation refers to the process of belching or releasing gas from the digestive system. This rate indicates that goats and sheep typically release gas from their digestive systems 10 times in an hour.

Male ruminants are extremely difficult to catheterize because they have a narrow urethral opening and a Sigmoid flexure shape to their penis. This combination of anatomical features makes it challenging to insert a catheter into their urethra. The narrow opening restricts the passage of the catheter, and the Sigmoid flexure adds further difficulty by causing the penis to bend, making it harder to navigate the catheter through the urethra.

The statement is true because when administering SQ fluids, it is common practice to give a volume of 50-150 milliliters at a single site. This allows for efficient absorption of the fluids into the subcutaneous tissue, providing hydration and support to the patient.

The need for fluid therapy can be determined by assessing the dryness of mucous membranes (MM), which can indicate dehydration. The capillary refill time (CRT) is another important factor, as a prolonged CRT may suggest poor circulation and the need for fluid replacement. The position of the eyes in the socket can also provide information about hydration status, as sunken eyes can be a sign of dehydration. Lastly, the skin turgor test can help assess fluid balance, as decreased skin turgor may indicate dehydration and the need for fluid therapy.

45 seconds

In 95% of cases, the two main suspects for Mastitis are Streptococcus agalactiae and Staphylococcus aureus. These two bacteria are commonly found to be the causative agents of Mastitis, which is an infection of the breast tissue. Streptococcus agalactiae is a type of bacteria that can cause various infections including Mastitis, while Staphylococcus aureus is a common bacteria that can also lead to Mastitis. These two bacteria are often responsible for the majority of Mastitis cases, hence they are considered the main suspects.

Two-thirds of TBW (Total Body Water) refers to the amount of water present inside the cells of the body, which is known as intracellular fluid. This statement is true because the majority of the body's water is indeed located within the cells.

The major ECF electrolytes are chloride, sodium, and bicarbonate. These electrolytes play crucial roles in maintaining the balance of fluids and pH levels in the extracellular fluid (ECF). Chloride is an anion that helps maintain fluid balance, while sodium is a cation that regulates fluid levels and plays a role in nerve and muscle function. Bicarbonate is also an anion that helps regulate the pH of the ECF by acting as a buffer. These electrolytes are essential for normal bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis.

Adult cattle can receive up to 250 mls per site when giving a SQ injection, while calves and small ruminants can receive up to 50 mls per site.

100% indoor cats

Cryoprecipitate is the correct answer because it is a product that is harvested from Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) and then centrifuged. This process separates the cryoprecipitate from the rest of the plasma components. Cryoprecipitate contains important proteins such as von Willebrand factor, fibrinogen, and fibronectin, which are essential for blood clotting. Therefore, cryoprecipitate is often used to treat bleeding disorders or to replace specific clotting factors in patients with deficiencies.

The correct answer is 25 kgs because in order to collect a full unit of blood from a canine donor, they need to have a sufficient amount of blood volume. Larger dogs typically have a higher blood volume, so a minimum weight of 25 kgs ensures that there is enough blood to be collected for transfusion purposes.

Ketosis occurs during the first few months of lactating in high-producing cows. This is because during this period, the cow's energy demands are high, and if they are not met through proper nutrition, the body starts breaking down stored fat for energy. This process produces ketones, which can lead to ketosis. High-producing cows are more prone to ketosis as they require a higher energy intake to meet their milk production needs.

Blood loss anemia is characterized by a decrease in the packed cell volume (PCV) and total plasma protein (TPP) levels. PCV refers to the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume, while TPP measures the amount of protein in the plasma. In cases of blood loss anemia, there is a loss of red blood cells and plasma, leading to a decrease in both PCV and TPP levels. Therefore, the statement that blood loss anemia causes a decrease in PCV and TPP is true.

DEA 1.1 + is the most common DEA because it is widely used in various industries and sectors for data envelopment analysis (DEA) purposes. It is a popular version of DEA that incorporates positive inputs and outputs, making it suitable for evaluating the efficiency and productivity of different entities. Many researchers and practitioners prefer using DEA 1.1 + due to its versatility and applicability in different contexts.

Milking in a clean place and cleaning the udders before and after milking can help reduce the incidence of mastitis. Mastitis is an infection of the udder, and keeping the milking environment clean and dry helps prevent the introduction of bacteria that can cause the infection. Additionally, cleaning the udders before and after milking helps remove any bacteria that may be present on the surface of the udder, further reducing the risk of infection. Therefore, both practices together contribute to reducing the occurrence of mastitis.

FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma) that is not used within 12 months is relabeled as FP (Frozen Plasma) and stored for an additional 4 years. This means that after 12 months, the FFP is relabeled and can be stored for a total of 16 years (12 months as FFP + 4 years as FP).

The correct answer is ">40%". This means that the hemoglobin concentration of a canine blood donor should be greater than 40%. Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Having a hemoglobin concentration above 40% ensures that the blood donor has a sufficient amount of hemoglobin to deliver oxygen effectively.

The signs of fluid overload include restlessness, serous nasal discharge, pitting edema, hyperpnea, and chemosis. Restlessness can be a result of the body's attempt to compensate for the excess fluid. Serous nasal discharge is a common symptom of fluid overload, as the body tries to eliminate the excess fluid through the nasal passages. Pitting edema occurs when excess fluid accumulates in the tissues, causing indentation when pressure is applied. Hyperpnea refers to increased respiratory rate, which can occur as the body tries to remove excess fluid through increased breathing. Chemosis is the swelling of the conjunctiva, which can be a sign of fluid overload.

When performing a Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA), it is crucial to never leave the mass. This means that the needle should be kept in place and not withdrawn before completing the procedure. Leaving the mass can result in an incomplete or inaccurate sample collection, leading to potential misdiagnosis or inadequate evaluation of the condition. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the needle remains in the mass during the entire FNA procedure.

The correct answer is Sodium Pentobarbital, 2ml/1st 4.5 kgs and 1ml/additional 4.5 kgs. This is the recommended dose for the most commonly used injectable euthanasia solution. It is important to administer the correct dosage based on the weight of the animal to ensure a humane and effective euthanasia process. Additionally, Sodium Pentobarbital, 1ml/10 lbs is not the correct answer as it does not specify the weight in kilograms, which is the standard unit of measurement for dosing in this context.

Dehydration can lead to an increase in both PCV (packed cell volume) and TPP (total plasma protein). When the body is dehydrated, there is a decrease in the amount of water in the blood, causing the blood to become more concentrated. This results in an increase in the proportion of red blood cells in the blood (PCV) and an increase in the concentration of proteins in the plasma (TPP). Therefore, it is true that dehydration can cause an increase in both PCV and TPP.

A normal animal would have 1-2 rumen contractions per minute.

When performing a cystocentesis, it is important to always release negative pressure before moving or withdrawing the needle. This helps to prevent any damage or injury to the bladder or surrounding tissues. Additionally, it is advised to never redirect the needle during the procedure as it can increase the risk of complications. Squirting alcohol on the female's abdomen can help to locate the bladder by causing it to stand out more prominently. The other options, such as needing sedation or singing to calm down the patient, are not necessary or relevant to the procedure.

If a cow has bloat, it means that there is excessive gas or fluid in their rumen, causing it to expand. This can lead to a change in the shape of their body. Normally, a cow's body has a pear-shaped appearance, with a narrower front and a wider back. However, when a cow has bloat, their rumen becomes distended and their body takes on a papple (or apple) shaped appearance, with a rounder and more bulging abdomen. Therefore, the statement that a cow with bloat will have a papple shaped appearance instead of a pear shaped appearance is true.

The correct answer is >18G because a larger gauge needle (smaller number) is needed when the vein is smaller in size. Since the coccygeal vein is smaller than the jugular vein, a needle with a gauge larger than 18G would be too large and could cause damage or discomfort to the patient.

Strep is caused by the bacteria Streptococcus, which is generally easier to treat with antibiotics. On the other hand, Staph is caused by Staphylococcus bacteria, which tends to be more resistant to antibiotics and can be harder to treat. Therefore, the statement that Strep is easy to treat while Staph is harder to treat is true.

Performing a cystocentesis is a procedure where a needle is inserted into the bladder to collect a urine sample. It is important to avoid performing a cystocentesis when the bladder is small or cannot be palpated because it may be difficult to locate and access the bladder. Additionally, if the patient recently had pyometra, which is an infection of the uterus, it may be risky to perform a cystocentesis due to the potential for spreading the infection. Lastly, if the patient has a bleeding disorder, performing a cystocentesis could lead to excessive bleeding. Therefore, it is best to avoid performing a cystocentesis in all of these situations.

PCV alone

Anemia caused by decreased production or hemolysis leads to a decrease in PCV (packed cell volume) alone. PCV is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the total blood volume. In anemia, there is a decrease in the number of red blood cells, which results in a lower PCV value. The other options, TPP (total plasma protein) and total bleeding time, are not directly affected by the decrease in red blood cells and are therefore not the correct answer.

Delayed hemolytic reactions can occur within a range of 2-21 days post-transfusion. This type of reaction is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells (hemolysis) due to an immune response. It typically occurs when the recipient's immune system recognizes antigens on the transfused red blood cells as foreign and mounts an immune attack against them. The time frame of 2-21 days allows for the variability in the immune response and the time it takes for antibodies to develop and initiate hemolysis.

The correct pairing of blood type to type of cat is A and C. This means that cats with blood type A can be paired with cats with blood type C. The other options provided, such as DSH and DHL-A, DSH-B, Purebreds-B, and Purebreds and DHL-AB, are not the correct pairings of blood type to type of cat.

The correct answer is Proparacaine, Schrimer tear test strips. These supplies are necessary for conducting the Schrimer Tear Test. Proparacaine is a local anesthetic used to numb the eye before performing the test. Schrimer tear test strips are small strips of filter paper that are placed in the lower eyelid to measure the amount of tears produced over a certain period of time. The ophthalmic irrigating solution is not required for this specific test.

The correct answer is 1ml/kg for the first 15 minutes. During a blood transfusion, it is recommended to deliver blood at a rate of 1ml per kilogram of the recipient's body weight for the first 15 minutes. This ensures a controlled and gradual infusion of blood, minimizing the risk of complications such as fluid overload or adverse reactions. This initial rate may be adjusted based on the patient's response and vital signs.

it doesn't confirm it, it just helps find out the exact organism.

The major ICF electrolytes are potassium, phosphorus, and magnesium. These electrolytes are essential for various physiological processes in the body. Potassium is important for maintaining proper fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contractions. Phosphorus is involved in energy production, bone formation, and cell signaling. Magnesium plays a role in muscle and nerve function, protein synthesis, and blood pressure regulation. These electrolytes are primarily found inside the cells and are crucial for maintaining cellular health and function.

Fresh-frozen plasma/frozen plasma does not contain functional platelets. Platelets are small cell fragments that are involved in blood clotting. They are not present in plasma, which is the liquid component of blood that remains after the removal of cells and clotting factors. Platelets are typically obtained through a separate blood product called platelet concentrate or platelet-rich plasma. Therefore, the given statement is false.

Classic features of an allergic transfusion reaction include erythema (redness), urticaria (hives), pruritus (itching), fever, vomiting/diarrhea, and nausea. These symptoms are commonly seen in patients who have an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion.

The clinical signs of a degree of dehydration of 6%-8% include eyes possibly sunken in the orbits, obvious delay in return of tented skin to normal position, slightly prolonged CRT, and possibly dry MM. These signs indicate a moderate level of dehydration, where the body has lost a significant amount of fluid. The sunken eyes and delayed return of tented skin suggest decreased fluid volume, while slightly prolonged CRT and dry MM indicate reduced blood circulation and moisture levels in the body. These signs may be indicative of dehydration and should be monitored and addressed promptly.

Oxyglobin solution is indicated for the treatment of anemia in dogs and is a sterile solution of purified, polymerized, bovine hemoglobin in a modified LRS. There is no risk of transfusion reaction with Oxyglobin solution. Additionally, a transient discoloration of mm, sclera, urine, and skin may be noted as a side effect. However, it does not provide the von Willebrand factor and does not increase vascular volume.

The Subcutaneous Abdominal Vein is also known as the milk vein because it provides major drainage of the udder, especially during lactation. It is prone to hematomas and excessive bleeding, so it should be used with caution.

this one wasn't exactly in our notes...I had written it on the side and highlighted it...

The mastitis test is designed to identify clinical signs of mastitis, such as inflammation and abnormal milk. It is not capable of detecting subclinical mastitis, which is an early stage of the infection that does not show any visible signs. Therefore, the statement that the mastitis test is used to detect clinical signs, but not subclinical mastitis, is true.

Acute blood loss or hemodilution can lead to a decrease in PCV (packed cell volume) and TPP (total plasma protein) levels. PCV measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume, so a decrease in PCV indicates a decrease in the number of red blood cells. TPP measures the concentration of proteins in the plasma, and a decrease in TPP suggests a dilution of proteins due to increased fluid volume. Therefore, both PCV and TPP can be affected by acute blood loss or hemodilution.

FWB stands for Fresh Whole Blood, which refers to blood that is collected from a donor and used for transfusion without any separation or processing. The components that are found in FWB include red blood cells (RBCs), platelets, white blood cells (WBCs), plasma proteins, and coagulation factors. These components are essential for various functions in the body, such as oxygen transport (RBCs), clotting (platelets, clotting factors), and immune response (WBCs). Plasma proteins and coagulation factors also play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of fluids and preventing excessive bleeding.

Use a 16-18G with small ruminants

The correct answer suggests a series of steps to check for proper placement of the ET tube cuff. Using the laryngoscope helps visualize the placement of the tube in the trachea. Watching the rebreathing bag allows for monitoring of the patient's breathing and the movement of the bag. Feeling for air movement confirms that air is flowing through the tube. Checking for unidirectional valves ensures that the air is flowing in the correct direction. Palpating the neck helps assess the position of the tube and the cuff.

3 inches

Blood should be slowly brought to room temperature before administering it for a transfusion. The question asks which temperature should never be exceeded. The correct answer is 50 degrees Celsius. This means that the blood should not be warmed beyond this temperature before being given to the patient. Exceeding this temperature could potentially cause damage to the blood or compromise its safety for transfusion.

85 degrees

The Schirmer tear test strip is left in place for 1 minute and is placed near the lateral canthus between the cornea and lower eyelid. This is done to measure the amount of tear production and assess the function of the lacrimal glands. The lateral canthus is the outer corner of the eye, and placing the strip in this location allows for accurate measurement of tear production.

Fresh-frozen plasma or frozen plasma is primarily used for coagulation factor value. Coagulation factors are proteins in the blood that help with blood clotting. Fresh-frozen plasma is collected from whole blood and frozen at a very low temperature to preserve the clotting factors. It is then used to replace these factors in patients with clotting disorders or to treat bleeding disorders.

not-available-via-ai