Large And Small Animal Nursing Midterm Review
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What is the meaning of Euthanasia?
About This Quiz
This Midterm Review for Large and Small Animal Nursing covers key aspects of euthanasia, including its ethics, required consents, and methods. It assesses understanding of humane end-of-life care, client communication, and proper dosages of euthanasia solutions.
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- 2.
Never perform a euthanasia without a:
Explanation
Performing euthanasia without a signed consent form is not only unethical but also illegal in many jurisdictions. The consent form ensures that the decision to end a person's life is made willingly and with full understanding of the consequences. It protects both the patient and the healthcare provider from any potential legal or ethical issues that may arise. Without a signed consent form, there is no evidence that the patient or their legal representative authorized the euthanasia procedure, making it a violation of medical ethics and potentially subject to legal consequences.Rate this question:
- 3.
What 3 things must you find out from the owner before a euthanasia?
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Where/when will the procedure take place
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What is to be done with the body
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Will the client/family be present for the procedure
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
Before performing euthanasia, it is crucial to gather important information from the owner. This includes knowing the location and time of the procedure, ensuring proper arrangements for the body after euthanasia, and determining whether the client or family members will be present during the procedure. Gathering all of this information is essential for ensuring a smooth and respectful euthanasia process.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What are 6 things to tell the client before the euthanasia?
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The animal won't feel pain.
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The pet may go through an excitatory phase.
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The pet will lose control of their bowels.
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The DVM will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic.
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The animal's eyes won't close.
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The animal may take one last break (agonal breathing).
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The pet will roll off the table.
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The pet will take a few hours to pass on.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The animal won't feel pain.
A. The pet may go through an excitatory phase.
A. The pet will lose control of their bowels.
A. The DVM will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic.
A. The animal's eyes won't close.
A. The animal may take one last break (agonal breathing).Explanation
The explanation for the given answer is that these are the six important things to tell the client before euthanasia. It is important to assure the client that the animal won't feel pain during the process. The client should also be informed about the possibility of the pet going through an excitatory phase and losing control of their bowels. It is important to explain that the veterinarian will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic and that the animal's eyes won't close. The client should also be prepared for the possibility of the animal experiencing agonal breathing and rolling off the table. Additionally, the client should be informed that the process may take a few hours for the pet to pass on.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Blood should be collected after giving medications and fluids.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
Blood should not be collected immediately after giving medications and fluids because these substances can affect the composition and quality of the blood sample. Medications and fluids can alter the levels of certain components in the blood, such as electrolytes or drugs, which can lead to inaccurate test results. Therefore, it is important to wait for a certain period of time after administering medications or fluids before collecting blood for testing.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Collect enough blood to run the test how many times?
Correct Answer
3Explanation
The question asks how many times the test can be run with the collected amount of blood. The answer is 3, indicating that there is enough blood to conduct the test three times.Rate this question:
- 7.
You should label blood tubes immediately after collection.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Blood tubes should be labeled immediately after collection to ensure accurate identification of the sample. By labeling the tubes right away, healthcare professionals can avoid any confusion or mix-ups that may occur later on. Proper labeling also helps in maintaining the integrity of the sample and ensures that it is properly matched with the patient's information. This practice is crucial for patient safety and to prevent any errors in diagnosis or treatment. Therefore, it is important to label blood tubes immediately after collection.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Most blood draws performed on dogs and cats are performed with a 20G needle.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
22G (larger dog would require a 20G)Rate this question:
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- 9.
Glucose curves require what size needle?
Correct Answer
25-28GExplanation
Glucose curves require a needle size of 25-28G. This is because a larger gauge needle may cause discomfort or pain to the patient, while a smaller gauge needle may not be able to effectively draw blood for accurate glucose measurements. The 25-28G needle size strikes a balance between patient comfort and the ability to obtain a sufficient blood sample for glucose testing.Rate this question:
- 10.
What are the 2 most important aspects to venipuncture?
Correct Answer
Proper restraint and proper distention and immobilization of the vein.Explanation
The two most important aspects of venipuncture are proper restraint and proper distention and immobilization of the vein. Proper restraint ensures that the patient is held securely and safely during the procedure, minimizing the risk of injury or movement that could affect the accuracy of the puncture. Proper distention and immobilization of the vein involves techniques such as applying a tourniquet or using gravity to make the vein more prominent and stable, making it easier to locate and puncture. These two aspects are crucial for a successful and safe venipuncture procedure.Rate this question:
- 11.
When attempting to draw blood from peripheral veins, always start at the most proximal portion.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
Start at the distal portion.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What should you never do when you are redirecting your needle?
Correct Answer
Never swing the needle
swing the needleExplanation
When redirecting a needle, it is important to never swing it. Swinging the needle can cause it to veer off course and potentially cause injury. It is crucial to maintain control and precision when redirecting the needle to ensure accurate and safe insertion.Rate this question:
- 13.
You have to occlude arteries in order to obtain a blood sample.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
This statement is false. In order to obtain a blood sample, it is not necessary to occlude arteries. Blood samples are typically obtained by puncturing a vein, not an artery. Occluding arteries can lead to serious complications and is not a standard procedure for obtaining blood samples.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Asepsis:
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Surgical puncture of a vein
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The act of inhaling
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A bruise or contusion
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The absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious material
Correct Answer
A. The absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious materialExplanation
The correct answer is "the absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious material." Asepsis refers to the state of being free from any infection or infectious material. It is the opposite of sepsis, which is the presence of harmful bacteria or toxins in the bloodstream. Asepsis is an important concept in healthcare settings, as it is crucial to maintain a sterile environment to prevent the spread of infections and ensure patient safety.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Perivascular means within a vessel.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
It means around a vessel.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the most common enema solution?
Correct Answer
mild soap and water
water and mild soapExplanation
The most common enema solution is a combination of mild soap and water or water and mild soap. This solution is used to cleanse the colon and rectum, typically before a medical procedure or to relieve constipation. The mild soap helps to soften and lubricate the stool, making it easier to pass. Water is added to dilute the soap and ensure a gentle and effective cleansing.Rate this question:
- 17.
What is the correct order of ophthalmic procedures?
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Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, staining of the cornea, corneoconjunctival smear and scraping
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Corneoconjunctival culture, cornealconjunctival smear and scraping, staining of the cornea, schrimer tear test
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Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, corneoconjunctival smear and scraping, staining of the cornea
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Staining of the cornea, schrimer tear test, tonometry
Correct Answer
A. Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, staining of the cornea, corneoconjunctival smear and scrapingExplanation
The correct order of ophthalmic procedures is as follows: first, the schrimer tear test is performed to measure tear production. Then, a corneoconjunctival culture is taken to identify any bacterial or fungal infections. Next, the corneoconjunctival smear and scraping are done to collect samples for further analysis. Finally, the cornea is stained to detect any abnormalities or damage. This sequence ensures that the tear production is measured first, followed by the identification of infections and collection of samples, and lastly, the detection of any abnormalities or damage.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the purpose of the Tono-Pen?
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To check for KCS
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To measure IOP
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To assess tear production
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To check the patency of the nasolacrimal duct
Correct Answer
A. To measure IOPExplanation
The purpose of the Tono-Pen is to measure intraocular pressure (IOP). Intraocular pressure refers to the pressure inside the eye and is an important measurement in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as glaucoma. The Tono-Pen is a handheld device that uses a small probe to gently touch the cornea and provide a reading of the pressure. By measuring IOP, healthcare professionals can assess the health of the eye and determine if any treatment is necessary.Rate this question:
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- 19.
60% of the body is composed of water called:
Correct Answer
Total Body Water
TBWExplanation
Total Body Water (TBW) refers to the percentage of water present in the human body. It is estimated that around 60% of the body is composed of water. TBW is an important factor in maintaining various bodily functions such as digestion, circulation, and temperature regulation. It is crucial for overall health and hydration.Rate this question:
- 20.
3 areas that fluids are found include:
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Intravascular fluid (plasma)
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Intracellular fluid (ICF)
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Interstitial fluid
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because fluids are found in all three areas mentioned: intravascular fluid (plasma), intracellular fluid (ICF), and interstitial fluid. Intravascular fluid refers to the fluid found within blood vessels, intracellular fluid refers to the fluid inside cells, and interstitial fluid refers to the fluid that surrounds cells in tissues. Therefore, all three areas mentioned contain fluids.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Sometimes fluids can accumulate in areas such as the abdomen, pleural cavity, or in the extremeties and is known as:
Correct Answer
third space fluids
Third space fluidsExplanation
Third space fluids refer to the accumulation of fluids in areas of the body such as the abdomen, pleural cavity, or extremities. These fluids are referred to as "third space" because they are not in the normal spaces where fluids are typically found, such as the blood vessels or cells. This accumulation can occur due to various reasons, such as inflammation, trauma, or certain medical conditions. It is important to monitor and manage third space fluids as their accumulation can lead to complications and imbalances in the body.Rate this question:
- 22.
What are the normal pHs of arterial and venous blood?
Correct Answer
7.4, 7.35
7.35, 7.4Explanation
The normal pH of arterial blood is 7.4, while the normal pH of venous blood is 7.35. This slight difference in pH is due to the fact that arterial blood is oxygenated and has a higher concentration of oxygen, which increases the pH. Venous blood, on the other hand, is deoxygenated and has a lower concentration of oxygen, leading to a slightly lower pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.4 for arterial blood and 7.35 for venous blood.Rate this question:
- 23.
What 3 primary mechanisms are used to control the acid base balance?
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Blood buffers (sodium bicarbonate)
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Lungs
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Kidneys
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
The question asks about the primary mechanisms used to control the acid-base balance. The answer "All of the above" is correct because all three options mentioned (blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys) play crucial roles in maintaining the acid-base balance in the body. Blood buffers, such as sodium bicarbonate, help to regulate the pH of the blood by absorbing or releasing hydrogen ions. The lungs regulate the levels of carbon dioxide, which affects the pH of the blood. The kidneys excrete excess acid or base through urine, thereby maintaining the acid-base balance. Therefore, all three mechanisms are essential for controlling the acid-base balance.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The goal of fluid therapy is to:
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Restore fluid losses
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Reestablish normal blood volume
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Improve tissue perfusion
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Facilitate the administration of drugs
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All of the above
Correct Answer
A. All of the aboveExplanation
Fluid therapy aims to achieve multiple goals, including restoring fluid losses, reestablishing normal blood volume, improving tissue perfusion, and facilitating the administration of drugs. By replenishing lost fluids, normal blood volume can be maintained, ensuring adequate circulation and oxygenation of tissues. This helps improve tissue perfusion, which is essential for optimal organ function. Additionally, fluid therapy provides a route for the administration of medications, allowing for their effective delivery. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the most common type of crystalloid?
Correct Answer
Lactated Ringer's Solution
LRS
lacatated ringers solutionExplanation
Lactated Ringer's Solution is the most common type of crystalloid. It is a balanced electrolyte solution that contains sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It is commonly used for fluid resuscitation and maintenance in patients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances. LRS helps restore and maintain the body's fluid balance and electrolyte levels, making it a popular choice in various medical settings.Rate this question:
- 26.
What are 3 other types of crystalloids?
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Normosol-R
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0.9% NaCl
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5% Dextrose
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All of the above.
Correct Answer
A. All of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because Normosol-R, 0.9% NaCl, and 5% Dextrose are all examples of crystalloids. Crystalloids are a type of intravenous fluid that contains small molecules that can easily pass through cell membranes. They are commonly used to replace fluids and electrolytes in the body and to maintain hydration. Normosol-R is a balanced crystalloid solution that contains multiple electrolytes, 0.9% NaCl is a saline solution, and 5% Dextrose is a solution containing glucose.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of fluid contains large molecules that don't readily pass through semipermeable membranes?
Correct Answer
Colloids
colloidsExplanation
Colloids are a type of fluid that contains large molecules that cannot easily pass through semipermeable membranes. These large molecules are suspended in the fluid and do not dissolve completely. Due to their size, they are unable to pass through the pores of the semipermeable membranes, resulting in the fluid being unable to pass through as well. Therefore, colloids are the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
- 28.
The loss of total body water without affecting vascular volume.
Correct Answer
Dehydration
dehydrationExplanation
Dehydration refers to the loss of total body water without affecting vascular volume. This means that the body is losing water, but the volume of blood within the blood vessels remains the same. Dehydration can occur due to various reasons such as inadequate fluid intake, excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or certain medical conditions. It is important to replenish the lost fluids to prevent complications associated with dehydration.Rate this question:
- 29.
The loss of vascular volume large enough to affect cardiac output.
Correct Answer
Hypovolemia
hypovolemiaExplanation
Hypovolemia refers to a decrease in the volume of blood circulating in the body, specifically a loss of vascular volume. This loss of blood volume can be significant enough to impact the cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. When there is not enough blood volume, the heart has to work harder to maintain adequate circulation, leading to a decrease in cardiac output. Therefore, hypovolemia is the correct answer to the given question.Rate this question:
- 30.
A significant loss of blood during minutes to hours that can cause hypovolemia and collapse of the cardiac system.
Correct Answer
Hemorrhage
hemorrhageExplanation
Hemorrhage refers to a significant loss of blood within a short period of time, ranging from minutes to hours. This can lead to hypovolemia, which is a decreased volume of blood in the body, and ultimately result in the collapse of the cardiac system. Hemorrhage can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, internal bleeding, or medical conditions. It is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or even death.Rate this question:
- 31.
A condition in which systemic blood pressure is inadequate to deliver oxygen and nutrients to vital tissues and organs.
Correct Answer
Shock
shockExplanation
Shock refers to a medical condition where the systemic blood pressure is insufficient to supply oxygen and nutrients to vital tissues and organs. This can lead to organ failure and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The repetition of the word "shock" in the answer options reinforces the correct response.Rate this question:
- 32.
An increased excretion of urine..."flushing" out the toxins that can accumulate in the bloodstream.
Correct Answer
Diuresis
diuresisExplanation
Diuresis refers to an increased excretion of urine, which can help in "flushing" out toxins that may accumulate in the bloodstream. This process helps to eliminate waste products and maintain the balance of fluids in the body. Diuresis can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, diseases, or increased fluid intake. Overall, diuresis plays a vital role in maintaining the body's homeostasis and eliminating harmful substances.Rate this question:
- 33.
This route of fluid therapy is effective in domestic and wildlife neonates and the rate of absorption is roughly equivalent to SQ.
Correct Answer
Intraperitoneal
intraperitoneal
IPExplanation
The intraperitoneal route of fluid therapy is effective in domestic and wildlife neonates. This route involves administering fluids directly into the peritoneal cavity, which is the space within the abdomen. The rate of absorption of fluids through this route is roughly equivalent to subcutaneous (SQ) administration. Intraperitoneal administration can be beneficial in cases where other routes of fluid therapy are not feasible or effective.Rate this question:
- 34.
This route of fluid therapy has an absorption rate equivalent to IV infusion.
Correct Answer
Intraosseous
intraosseous
IOExplanation
Intraosseous fluid therapy involves the administration of fluids directly into the bone marrow, providing a route for rapid absorption similar to intravenous (IV) infusion. This method is particularly useful in emergency situations when IV access is not readily available or difficult to establish. By accessing the bone marrow, fluids can quickly enter the bloodstream, allowing for effective fluid resuscitation and delivery of medications. Intraosseous fluid therapy is commonly abbreviated as IO.Rate this question:
- 35.
What is the normal CVP for dogs and cat?
Correct Answer
<5 cm of H20 - 36.
It is recommended not to leave a catheter in place longer than 72 hours.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Leaving a catheter in place for longer than 72 hours increases the risk of complications such as infection, blockage, and tissue damage. The longer a catheter remains in the body, the greater the chance of bacteria entering the urinary tract and causing infection. Additionally, prolonged catheter use can lead to the formation of blood clots or bladder stones. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended guidelines and remove the catheter within 72 hours to minimize these risks.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What should you examine the leg for once the catheter is in?
Correct Answer
swelling, wetness, redness, pain, and dischargeExplanation
After inserting a catheter into the leg, it is important to examine it for several signs and symptoms. Swelling may indicate inflammation or fluid accumulation, while wetness could suggest leakage or infection. Redness may be a sign of irritation or infection, and pain could indicate discomfort or an underlying issue. Finally, discharge may be a sign of infection or other complications. By examining the leg for these signs, healthcare professionals can identify any potential problems or complications related to the catheter insertion.Rate this question:
- 38.
If the patient is receiving continuous IV fluids, the catheter can be flushed every _____ hours.
Correct Answer
8-12Explanation
If a patient is receiving continuous IV fluids, it is necessary to flush the catheter every 8-12 hours. Flushing the catheter helps to prevent blockage and maintain its patency, ensuring that the fluids can continue to flow smoothly. This practice also helps to reduce the risk of infection and maintain the integrity of the catheter. Flushing the catheter at regular intervals is an essential part of the patient's care to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the IV therapy.Rate this question:
- 39.
The final step in the hemostatic process is:
Correct Answer
fibrinolysisExplanation
Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down the fibrin clot that forms during hemostasis. After a blood vessel is damaged, platelets form a plug and release clotting factors to form a fibrin mesh. Once the damaged vessel is repaired, the body needs to remove the clot to restore normal blood flow. Fibrinolysis involves the activation of plasmin, an enzyme that breaks down the fibrin clot into smaller fragments. This allows the clot to be gradually dissolved and removed from the site of injury, allowing for tissue healing and restoration of blood flow.Rate this question:
- 40.
What is the normal bleeding time of dogs?
Correct Answer
<4 minutes - 41.
What is the normal bleeding time of cats?
Correct Answer
<2 minutes - 42.
How long is blood considered fresh?
Correct Answer
8 hours after collectionExplanation
Blood is considered fresh for a period of 8 hours after collection. After this time, the blood starts to deteriorate and may no longer be suitable for certain medical procedures or transfusions. This time limit ensures that the blood maintains its optimal quality and viability for use in various medical treatments.Rate this question:
- 43.
Fresh whole blood is known as Stored whole blood after 24 hours of storage and provides RBCs and plasma proteins.
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True
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False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Fresh whole blood refers to blood that has been collected and not undergone any processing or separation. After 24 hours of storage, this blood is known as stored whole blood. During storage, the red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood can degrade and the plasma proteins can also undergo changes. Therefore, it is true that fresh whole blood is known as stored whole blood after 24 hours of storage, and it provides RBCs and plasma proteins.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which type of blood is a component of choice for increasing red cells mass in patients who require oxygen-carrying support?
Correct Answer
Packed Red Blood cells
packed red blood cells
prbc
PRBCExplanation
Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC) are the component of choice for increasing red cell mass in patients who require oxygen-carrying support. PRBCs are obtained by removing plasma and other components from whole blood, leaving behind concentrated red blood cells. This allows for a higher concentration of red blood cells to be transfused, increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. PRBC transfusions are commonly used in patients with anemia or blood loss to improve their oxygenation and overall health.Rate this question:
- 45.
What should the Hct be for a feline blood donor?
Correct Answer
>35%Explanation
The Hct (hematocrit) is a measure of the volume percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. In feline blood donors, a Hct of greater than 35% is desirable. This indicates a higher concentration of red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues. A higher Hct ensures that the blood is more efficient in delivering oxygen, making it suitable for donation and transfusion purposes.Rate this question:
- 46.
How many specific antigens have been identified on the surface of canine RBCs?
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19
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100
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33
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4
Correct Answer
A. 19Explanation
Nineteen specific antigens have been identified on the surface of canine RBCs. This means that there are 19 different types of antigens that can be found on the surface of red blood cells in dogs. These antigens play a crucial role in determining blood type and compatibility for transfusions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What does DEA stand for?
Correct Answer
dog erythrocyte antigenExplanation
DEA stands for dog erythrocyte antigen. This term refers to specific antigens found on the surface of red blood cells in dogs. These antigens play a crucial role in determining blood compatibility between dogs, especially in cases of blood transfusions. By identifying and matching DEA types, veterinarians can ensure that the donor's blood is compatible with the recipient's, reducing the risk of adverse reactions. Understanding DEA is essential in veterinary medicine to provide safe and effective blood transfusions for dogs in need.Rate this question:
- 48.
What are the 3 blood types of felines?
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A
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AC
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B
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AB
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BD
Correct Answer(s)
A. A
A. B
A. ABExplanation
The correct answer is A, B, AB. Felines, like humans, have different blood types. The three main blood types in felines are type A, type B, and type AB. Type A is the most common blood type in domestic cats, while type B is more common in certain breeds like the Bengal cat. Type AB is the rarest blood type and is a result of a genetic mutation. Understanding a cat's blood type is important for veterinary procedures, such as blood transfusions, to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which blood type can be transfused with type A blood?
Correct Answer(s)
ABExplanation
Type AB blood is known as the universal recipient because it can receive blood from any blood type, including type A. This is because type AB blood has both A and B antigens on its red blood cells, making it compatible with both type A and type B blood. Type A blood, on the other hand, can only receive blood from type A or type O donors, as it has A antigens on its red blood cells. Therefore, type AB is the correct answer as it can be transfused with type A blood.Rate this question:
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