Jrcalc Test Issue 2006 Soon To Include 2013 Release
REVISION TESTS ON JRCALC SPECIFICALLY - ALL ANSWERS ARE CONTAINED WITHIN MANUAL. OR UPDATES. THERE ARE NO QUESTIONS ON DOSES OF MEDICATION JUST FROM TEXT. . . . . . .
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In the case of severe respiratory depression/arrest at what rate should you support ventilations ?
- A.
12-20bpm
- B.
10-16bpm
- C.
20-28bpm
Correct Answer
A. 12-20bpmExplanation
The correct answer is 12-20bpm. When a person experiences severe respiratory depression or arrest, it is crucial to support their ventilations at a rate of 12-20 breaths per minute. This ensures that enough oxygen is being delivered to the body and helps maintain proper ventilation. Ventilating at a slower or faster rate may not provide adequate oxygenation and can have detrimental effects on the patient's condition.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Approx 85% of all ED cases present with what?
- A.
Falls
- B.
Abdominal Pain
- C.
Shortness of Breath
- D.
Mental Disorder
Correct Answer
C. Shortness of BreathExplanation
Approximately 85% of all cases presenting to the emergency department (ED) exhibit shortness of breath as a symptom. This suggests that shortness of breath is a common complaint among patients seeking urgent medical attention. It could be indicative of various underlying conditions such as respiratory infections, asthma, heart failure, or pulmonary embolism. Prompt evaluation and management are essential in these cases to identify the cause and provide appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In severe Asthma there may be decreased or absent breath sounds ?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In severe asthma, there may be decreased or absent breath sounds. This can occur due to the narrowing of the airways, which restricts the flow of air in and out of the lungs. As a result, the normal breath sounds may be faint or completely absent. This can be a concerning sign indicating a severe asthma attack and may require immediate medical attention. Monitoring breath sounds is an important part of assessing the severity of asthma and guiding appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In Major Pelvic Trauma what % would you expext to be stable despite significant damage to the Pelvic ring ?
- A.
20%
- B.
22%
- C.
58%
Correct Answer
B. 22%Explanation
In major pelvic trauma, it is expected that approximately 22% of patients would remain stable despite significant damage to the pelvic ring. This suggests that even with severe pelvic injuries, a significant proportion of individuals can maintain stability, possibly due to the resilience and strength of the pelvic ring. However, it is important to note that this percentage may vary depending on the specific case and individual factors.Rate this question:
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- 5.
If Anginal pain lasts more than 15-20 minutes, despite usual treatment you should suspect
- A.
Myocardial Infarction
- B.
Muscular Skeletal injury
- C.
Chest Infection
Correct Answer
A. Myocardial InfarctionExplanation
If anginal pain lasts more than 15-20 minutes, despite usual treatment, the most likely cause is a myocardial infarction. Anginal pain is typically caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, resulting in chest pain or discomfort. If the pain persists for a longer duration, it suggests that the blood flow to the heart is severely compromised, leading to a heart attack or myocardial infarction. Prompt medical attention is required in such cases to prevent further damage to the heart muscle.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Obese Patients are less likely to sustian a Pelvic Injury from a blunt trauma
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because obese patients are actually more likely to sustain a pelvic injury from a blunt trauma. This is because the excess weight and increased body mass in obese individuals can put additional stress on the pelvis, making it more susceptible to injury. Additionally, obesity is often associated with other health conditions such as osteoporosis or weakened bones, which can further increase the risk of pelvic injuries.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Haemorrage accounts for what % of fatal cases in an unstable pelvic fracture.
- A.
40%
- B.
50%
- C.
60%
Correct Answer
C. 60%Explanation
In an unstable pelvic fracture, hemorrhage accounts for 60% of fatal cases. This means that the majority of deaths in this type of fracture are caused by severe bleeding. Unstable pelvic fractures can cause significant damage to blood vessels, leading to internal bleeding that can be difficult to control. Prompt medical intervention and effective management of hemorrhage are crucial in reducing mortality rates associated with this type of injury.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In a pelvic injury bleeding from what is more frequent?
- A.
Veins
- B.
Arteries
- C.
Capileries
Correct Answer
A. VeinsExplanation
In a pelvic injury, bleeding from veins is more frequent. This is because veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart from various parts of the body, including the pelvis. Injuries to veins can result in significant bleeding as veins have thinner walls compared to arteries. Arteries, on the other hand, carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the different parts of the body. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels that connect arteries and veins, and they are not as prone to significant bleeding as veins.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What rupture occurs in up to 10% of pelvic fractures
- A.
Vagina
- B.
Bowel
- C.
Bladder
- D.
Uterus & Ovaries
Correct Answer
C. BladderExplanation
In up to 10% of pelvic fractures, the rupture that occurs is in the bladder. Pelvic fractures can cause significant trauma to the pelvic region, leading to damage and rupture of organs. The bladder, being located in the pelvic area, is at risk of rupture in these cases. This can result in urinary incontinence, blood in the urine, and severe pain. Prompt medical attention is necessary to address this complication and prevent further complications such as infection.Rate this question:
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- 10.
For assessment of a Pelvis injury springing the Pelvis should only be carried out once?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Springing the pelvis should be carried out multiple times to assess for any potential injuries. This is because certain injuries, such as pelvic fractures, may not be immediately apparent and may only become evident after repeated springing tests. Therefore, it is important to perform this assessment multiple times to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Log rolling of a Patient should be avoided when a Pelvic facture is suspected ?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Log rolling of a patient should be avoided when a pelvic fracture is suspected because it can cause further damage to the pelvic area and potentially lead to complications such as internal bleeding or nerve damage. Log rolling involves moving a patient as a single unit without bending or twisting the spine, which is typically done to prevent spinal cord injuries. However, in the case of a suspected pelvic fracture, the pelvis is a fragile area that needs to be stabilized and immobilized to prevent further injury.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Mental Disorder affects how many people during their life ?
- A.
1 in 3
- B.
1 in 4
- C.
1 in 5
- D.
1 in 6
Correct Answer
B. 1 in 4Explanation
One in four people are affected by a mental disorder during their lifetime. This means that a significant portion of the population experiences some form of mental health issue at some point in their lives. Mental disorders can range from anxiety and depression to more severe conditions like schizophrenia. This statistic highlights the prevalence and importance of addressing mental health concerns and providing support and resources for those affected.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What year was the Mental Heath Act (England & Wales) that enables for compulsory admission of patients to an appropriate facility for assessment ?
- A.
1986
- B.
1983
- C.
2005
Correct Answer
B. 1983Explanation
The Mental Health Act (England & Wales) that enables for compulsory admission of patients to an appropriate facility for assessment was enacted in 1983. This legislation provides a legal framework for the detention, treatment, and rights of individuals with mental health disorders. It outlines the criteria for compulsory admission, safeguards to protect patients' rights, and procedures for assessment and treatment. The Act has since been amended several times to ensure that it remains up to date and in line with changing societal needs and understanding of mental health issues.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What section of the Mental Health Act allows for a patient to be held the longest?
- A.
Section 2
- B.
Section 3
- C.
Section 4
- D.
Section 135
- E.
Section 136
Correct Answer
B. Section 3Explanation
Section 3 of the Mental Health Act allows for a patient to be held the longest. This section provides for the detention of a patient for treatment in a hospital for a maximum initial period of six months. However, this can be extended for further periods of up to six months at a time if the patient's condition requires it and certain criteria are met. This section is often used for patients who require longer-term treatment and care for their mental health condition.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following are place of safety orders under the Mental Health Act - Two Answers
- A.
Section 2
- B.
Section 3
- C.
Section 4
- D.
Section 135
- E.
Section 136
Correct Answer(s)
D. Section 135
E. Section 136Explanation
Section 135 and Section 136 of the Mental Health Act are both place of safety orders. Section 135 allows the police to enter a private premises and remove a person who appears to have a mental disorder and is a risk to themselves or others, and take them to a place of safety for assessment. Section 136 allows the police to take a person who appears to have a mental disorder and is in a public place to a place of safety, such as a hospital, for assessment. Both sections aim to ensure that individuals with mental health issues receive the necessary care and support in a safe environment.Rate this question:
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- 16.
On the Suidice & Self-harm risk Assessment form a score of >6 would be
- A.
Low Risk
- B.
Medium Risk
- C.
High Risk
Correct Answer
C. High RiskExplanation
A score of >6 on the Suicide & Self-harm risk Assessment form indicates a high risk. This means that the individual being assessed has a greater likelihood of engaging in self-harming behaviors or attempting suicide. It is crucial to provide immediate support and intervention to ensure their safety and well-being.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Being Married is on the Suicide & Self -harm risk Assessment Form?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement "Being married is on the Suicide & Self-harm risk Assessment Form" is false. Marriage itself is not a direct risk factor for suicide or self-harm. While relationship problems or stressors related to marriage can contribute to mental health issues, it is not a specific criterion on a risk assessment form. Risk assessment forms typically focus on factors such as mental health history, previous suicide attempts, current mental state, and presence of social support systems.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In Non-Tramatic Chest Pain/Discomfort you should Assess patients general appearance first ?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
In non-traumatic chest pain/discomfort, it is not necessary to assess the patient's general appearance first. While assessing the general appearance can provide some initial information about the patient's overall condition, it is more important to focus on specific aspects related to the chest pain/discomfort, such as the location, severity, and associated symptoms. Assessing vital signs, conducting a thorough medical history, and performing a physical examination are more relevant in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is false.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The commonest single cause of death in the UK is
- A.
Stroke
- B.
Bowel Cancer
- C.
Coronary Heart Disease
- D.
COPD
Correct Answer
C. Coronary Heart DiseaseExplanation
Coronary Heart Disease is the correct answer because it is the leading cause of death in the UK. It occurs when the blood vessels that supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients become narrowed or blocked, leading to a heart attack. This condition is often caused by a buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries, known as atherosclerosis. Coronary Heart Disease is a major public health concern and efforts are made to raise awareness about its risk factors and promote preventive measures.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What single piece of equipment must always be taken to a patient with symptons suggestive of heart attack ?
- A.
Pulse Oximeter
- B.
Drugs Pack
- C.
Defibillator
Correct Answer
C. DefibillatorExplanation
A defibrillator is a piece of equipment that must always be taken to a patient with symptoms suggestive of a heart attack. A defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart in order to restore a normal heart rhythm. This is crucial in cases of cardiac arrest or when the heart is not pumping effectively. Prompt use of a defibrillator can significantly increase the chances of survival for a patient experiencing a heart attack.Rate this question:
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- 21.
How long should a Defibrillator remain with a patient when suspecting heart attack.
- A.
Until entering the Ambulance
- B.
Until exiting the Ambulance at Hospital
- C.
Until Handover of patient to hospital staff
Correct Answer
C. Until Handover of patient to hospital staffExplanation
The correct answer is until handover of the patient to hospital staff. This means that the defibrillator should remain with the patient until they have been transferred to the care of the hospital staff. This is important because the defibrillator may be needed to administer life-saving shocks to the patient in case their heart stops or goes into a dangerous rhythm. Keeping the defibrillator with the patient ensures that it is readily available for immediate use if necessary during the transfer process.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Oxygen should be provided in paraquat poisining in a patient with SpO2 85%
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In paraquat poisoning, oxygen should be provided to the patient with an SpO2 of 85% because paraquat is a highly toxic herbicide that can cause severe lung damage. Providing oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further damage to the lungs. Additionally, paraquat poisoning can lead to respiratory distress and oxygen therapy can support the patient's breathing and overall oxygen levels. Therefore, it is true that oxygen should be provided in paraquat poisoning when the SpO2 is 85%.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the second most common cause of an Allergic reaction in aduls
- A.
Latex
- B.
Food - Nuts, fish etc
- C.
Drugs - Medications etc
- D.
Insect Stings
Correct Answer
D. Insect StingsExplanation
Insect stings are the second most common cause of allergic reactions in adults. This means that after latex, insect stings are the most frequent trigger for allergic reactions in adults. Allergic reactions to insect stings can range from mild symptoms such as itching and swelling to severe reactions like anaphylaxis, which can be life-threatening. It is important for individuals who are allergic to insect stings to take precautions and seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms after being stung.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Anaphylaxis can only be a rapid onset
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Anaphylaxis can have both rapid and delayed onset. While it is commonly associated with a rapid onset, where symptoms develop within minutes to hours after exposure to an allergen, it can also have a delayed onset. In some cases, symptoms may take several hours to appear after exposure. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that anaphylaxis can only have a rapid onset.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Asthma in Adults, if it is a first episode always consider an inhaled foriegn body
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The correct answer is true because in adults, if they are experiencing their first episode of asthma, it is important to consider the possibility of an inhaled foreign body. This is because the symptoms of asthma and an inhaled foreign body can be similar, such as wheezing and difficulty breathing. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the possibility of a foreign body to ensure appropriate treatment and management.Rate this question:
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- 26.
4 of the following are life threatening conditions in Asthma in Adults check the correct ones
- A.
Silent Chest
- B.
SpO2
- C.
Resp Rate >25 (adult)
- D.
Confusion
- E.
Hypotension
- F.
Pulse >110 bpm
Correct Answer(s)
A. Silent Chest
B. SpO2
D. Confusion
E. HypotensionExplanation
The correct answers for life-threatening conditions in asthma in adults are silent chest, low oxygen saturation (SpO2), confusion, and hypotension. These symptoms indicate severe respiratory distress and inadequate oxygenation, leading to potential organ failure and death. It is important to recognize and address these signs promptly to prevent further complications and provide appropriate medical intervention.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Approx how many people die as a result of Asthma each year
- A.
2000
- B.
3000
- C.
4000
Correct Answer
A. 2000Explanation
Approximately 2000 people die as a result of Asthma each year.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The Peak Expiratory Flow Rate is measured on what scale ?
- A.
Wong Baker
- B.
Wright
- C.
Wrangler
- D.
Wrong
Correct Answer
B. WrightExplanation
The correct answer is "Wright" because the Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) is measured using a scale called the Wright scale. This scale is commonly used in medical settings to assess lung function and is specifically designed to measure the maximum flow of air that can be forcefully exhaled in one breath. Other options such as Wong Baker, Wrangler, and Wrong are not relevant to the measurement of PEFR.Rate this question:
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- 29.
In CBRN there are 6 hazards in total
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because CBRN stands for Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear hazards. These four categories cover a wide range of potential hazards, including chemical spills, biological outbreaks, radiation exposure, and nuclear accidents. Additionally, within each category, there are numerous specific hazards that can pose a threat to human health and safety. Therefore, it is accurate to say that there are six hazards in total within the CBRN framework.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Decontamination Technique is Wash------Wipe-----Wash
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The correct answer is False. The decontamination technique is not "Wash-Wipe-Wash". The correct sequence is usually "Wash-Wipe-Wipe-Wash" or "Wipe-Wipe-Wash". The additional step of wiping after the initial wash helps to remove any remaining contaminants from the surface before the final wash, ensuring effective decontamination.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the MNEMONICS - METHANE & CHALETS - The letter C in Chalets stands for Casualties. What letter in Methane stands for Casualties ?
- A.
E
- B.
N
- C.
M
Correct Answer
B. NExplanation
In the given mnemonic, the letter "C" in "Chalets" stands for "Casualties." To find the corresponding letter in "Methane," we look for the same position in the word. Since "C" is the third letter in "Chalets," we look for the third letter in "Methane," which is "N." Therefore, the letter "N" in "Methane" stands for "Casualties."Rate this question:
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- 32.
In which CBRN incident are casulties most likely to appear after 2 - 3 days
- A.
Chemical
- B.
Radiological & Nuclear
- C.
Biological
Correct Answer
C. BiologicalExplanation
In a biological CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear) incident, casualties are most likely to appear after 2-3 days. This is because biological agents, such as viruses or bacteria, typically have an incubation period before symptoms manifest. During this period, individuals may be infected but not yet show any signs of illness. After the incubation period, symptoms start to appear, leading to casualties. In contrast, chemical and radiological incidents usually have immediate effects or symptoms that appear shortly after exposure.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Upon identification of a CBRN incident you should firstly
- A.
Park uphill and upwind
- B.
Get as far as away as possible as quick as possible
- C.
Advise Control
- D.
Park Down Hill and Down Wind
Correct Answer
C. Advise ControlExplanation
The correct answer is "Advise Control." When a CBRN (Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear) incident is identified, it is important to inform the appropriate authorities or control center. This allows them to take immediate action, coordinate response efforts, and provide necessary instructions to minimize the impact of the incident. It is crucial to prioritize communication and seek guidance from control in order to ensure a coordinated and effective response to the CBRN incident.Rate this question:
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- 34.
You should always take a defib to a patient who is convulsing
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
When a patient is convulsing, it is important to have a defibrillator (defib) nearby. Convulsions can be caused by various factors, including cardiac arrest or arrhythmias. In such cases, a defib can be crucial in delivering an electric shock to the heart to restore its normal rhythm. This can potentially save the patient's life. Therefore, it is recommended to always have a defib available when dealing with a patient who is convulsing.Rate this question:
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- 35.
You should administer drugs if a convulsion last longer than
- A.
2 minutes
- B.
4 minutes
- C.
5 minutes
- D.
3 minutes
Correct Answer
C. 5 minutesExplanation
If a convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, it is considered a medical emergency known as status epilepticus. During status epilepticus, the brain is at risk of prolonged seizure activity, which can cause permanent damage or even be life-threatening. Administering drugs, such as anticonvulsant medications, is necessary to stop the seizure and prevent further complications. Therefore, waiting longer than 5 minutes to administer drugs could potentially be dangerous for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Upper GI Bleeds account for how many deaths each year in the UK ?
- A.
7500
- B.
5000
- C.
10000
Correct Answer
B. 5000Explanation
Upper GI bleeds account for 5000 deaths each year in the UK. This indicates that a significant number of individuals in the UK die annually due to upper GI bleeds. It is important to address and manage this condition effectively to reduce the mortality rate associated with it.Rate this question:
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- 37.
GI bleeding is not as prevalent in deprived areas of the UK
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement contradicts the reality. GI bleeding is actually more prevalent in deprived areas of the UK. Deprived areas often have higher rates of poverty, limited access to healthcare, and higher prevalence of risk factors such as smoking and alcohol consumption, which can contribute to GI bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 38.
There is not normally any associated pain with upper GI Bleeds
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeds usually do not cause pain. This is because the upper GI tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and the first part of the small intestine, does not have many pain receptors. Therefore, bleeding in this area is often not accompanied by pain. However, it is important to note that while upper GI bleeds may not cause pain, they can still lead to symptoms such as vomiting blood, black or tarry stools, and lightheadedness.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Where would a Mallory-Weiss tear occur
- A.
Oesophagus
- B.
Bowel
- C.
Bladder
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
A. OesophagusExplanation
A Mallory-Weiss tear occurs in the oesophagus. This tear is a laceration that develops at the junction of the oesophagus and stomach, usually as a result of forceful vomiting or retching. It is commonly seen in individuals with alcoholism or eating disorders. The tear can cause bleeding and may require medical intervention to stop the bleeding and repair the tear.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Around 80% of all GI Bleeds stop spontaneously or respond to conservative management
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement suggests that a significant majority (around 80%) of gastrointestinal bleeds either stop on their own or can be managed effectively without the need for invasive procedures or surgeries. This indicates that conservative measures such as medication, lifestyle changes, and close monitoring are often sufficient in treating GI bleeds. Therefore, the answer "True" implies that the statement is accurate and reflects the common outcome for most cases of GI bleeds.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The use of a paper bag for a patient to rebreathe their own air can be used in pre hospital care when dealing with Hyperventilation Syndrome
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The use of a paper bag for a patient to rebreathe their own air is not recommended in pre-hospital care when dealing with Hyperventilation Syndrome. This practice used to be common, but it is now considered outdated and potentially harmful. Rebreathing into a paper bag can lead to an increase in carbon dioxide levels, which can worsen symptoms and potentially cause complications. It is important to provide proper care and support to patients experiencing Hyperventilation Syndrome, including reassurance, breathing techniques, and addressing the underlying cause.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Hypothermia is defined as a core body tempreture below
- A.
32 c
- B.
35 c
- C.
30 c
Correct Answer
B. 35 cExplanation
Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature below 35°C. This means that when a person's body temperature drops below this level, they are experiencing hypothermia. It is important to note that this condition can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Moderate Hypothermia ranges between
- A.
30-32 c
- B.
32-35 c
- C.
Correct Answer
A. 30-32 cExplanation
Moderate hypothermia ranges between 30-32 °C. Hypothermia is a condition where the body's core temperature drops below normal levels. Moderate hypothermia occurs when the body temperature falls to around 30-32 °C. At this stage, the person may experience symptoms such as shivering, confusion, drowsiness, and difficulty speaking. It is important to seek medical attention and provide warmth to the person to prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A non blanching rash in an unwell person meningococcal septicaemia must be assumed
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In cases of a non-blanching rash in an unwell person, it is crucial to assume meningococcal septicaemia. Meningococcal septicaemia is a severe and potentially life-threatening infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria meningitidis. The presence of a non-blanching rash, which does not fade when pressed, is a key symptom of this condition. Prompt recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient. Therefore, assuming meningococcal septicaemia in such cases is the correct approach.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Paracetomol Overdose even in modest doses say 20 - 30 tablets can cause damage to which organs
- A.
Spleen & Lungs
- B.
Liver & Kidney
- C.
Brain & Liver
Correct Answer
B. Liver & KidneyExplanation
Paracetamol overdose, even in modest doses, can cause damage to the liver and kidneys. The liver is responsible for metabolizing paracetamol, and an overdose can overwhelm its capacity, leading to liver damage. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste products from the blood, and excessive paracetamol can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, both the liver and kidneys are at risk of damage in cases of paracetamol overdose.Rate this question:
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- 46.
It can take how long before any damage is evident from a Paracetamol overdose
- A.
24 - 48 hrs
- B.
12 - 24hrs
- C.
6 - 12hrs
Correct Answer
A. 24 - 48 hrsExplanation
Paracetamol overdose can take 24 - 48 hours before any damage becomes evident. This means that it may take up to two days for symptoms or signs of damage to appear after consuming an excessive amount of Paracetamol. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if an overdose is suspected, as early treatment can greatly improve the chances of a full recovery.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In the Wells criteria for a Pulmonary Embolism what score would you give for a patient with a Heart Rate >100 bpm with no other symptoms
- A.
3
- B.
1
- C.
1.5
Correct Answer
C. 1.5Explanation
According to the Wells criteria for a Pulmonary Embolism, a patient with a Heart Rate >100 bpm with no other symptoms would be given a score of 1.5. This suggests that the patient has a moderate risk of having a pulmonary embolism. The Wells criteria is a clinical prediction rule used to assess the probability of a pulmonary embolism based on various clinical factors. A higher score indicates a higher probability of a pulmonary embolism, while a lower score suggests a lower probability.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When called to a patient with Chest Pain it may also be prudent to check what other part of the body as this can greatly help with a diagnosis.
- A.
Legs
- B.
Arms
- C.
Ears
Correct Answer
A. LegsExplanation
When called to a patient with chest pain, checking the legs can provide valuable information for a diagnosis. This is because certain conditions, such as deep vein thrombosis or peripheral artery disease, can cause symptoms that mimic or contribute to chest pain. By examining the legs, a healthcare professional can assess for signs of swelling, redness, tenderness, or decreased pulses, which may suggest underlying vascular issues. Therefore, evaluating the legs alongside chest pain can help determine the cause and guide appropriate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Strokes account for how many deaths in England & Wales in 1999
- A.
72,000
- B.
36,000
- C.
56,000
Correct Answer
C. 56,000Explanation
In 1999, there were a total of 56,000 deaths in England & Wales that were attributed to strokes.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Trauma - Medical Emergencies In Adults blood loss of how much would be required before classical signs of shock appear ?
- A.
750 - 1000ml
- B.
1000 - 1500ml
- C.
1500 -2000ml
Correct Answer
B. 1000 - 1500mlExplanation
Classical signs of shock typically appear when a person loses around 15-30% of their blood volume. In adults, the average blood volume is about 5 liters, so 15-30% of that would be 750-1500ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000-1500ml, as it falls within the range where classical signs of shock would be expected to appear.Rate this question:
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