ITIL - Part 2

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| By KarenBoreland
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KarenBoreland
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 1,646
Questions: 69 | Attempts: 160

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ITIL Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

    • A.

      Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

    • B.

      Public standards are always cheaper to adopt

    • C.

      Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

    • D.

      Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

    Correct Answer
    A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
    Explanation
    Public frameworks and standards, such as ITIL, are attractive compared to proprietary knowledge because proprietary knowledge is often undocumented. This lack of documentation makes it difficult for others to adopt, replicate, or transfer the knowledge. In contrast, public frameworks and standards provide clear and standardized guidelines, making them easier to understand and implement. Additionally, public standards are generally cheaper to adopt as they are widely available and do not require costly licensing fees like proprietary knowledge might.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform? 1. Communication between Data Centre shifts 2. Communication related to changes 3. Performance reporting 4. Routine operational communication

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1,2, and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The functions within Service Operation are responsible for various types of communication. Communication between Data Centre shifts is important to ensure smooth handover and continuity of operations. Communication related to changes is necessary to inform stakeholders about any modifications or updates. Performance reporting involves communicating the performance metrics and status to relevant parties. Routine operational communication is essential for day-to-day coordination and collaboration. Therefore, all of the given options (1, 2, 3, and 4) are types of communication that can be expected from the functions within Service Operation.

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  • 3. 

    Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

    • A.

      Service Operation

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Continual Service Improvement

    • D.

      Service Strategy

    Correct Answer
    C. Continual Service Improvement
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement is a part of the service lifecycle that focuses on finding ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness. It involves regularly reviewing and analyzing the performance of services and identifying areas for improvement. By continuously striving to enhance service delivery and optimize resources, organizations can achieve higher levels of efficiency and cost effectiveness.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

    • A.

      Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available

    • B.

      Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged

    • C.

      All incidents must be fully logged

    • D.

      The Service Desk decide which incidents to log

    Correct Answer
    C. All incidents must be fully logged
    Explanation
    The guidance on incident logging is that all incidents must be fully logged. This means that regardless of whether a resolution is immediately available or if the incident was reported to the Service Desk, it is important to log all incidents. This allows for proper documentation and tracking of incidents, which can help in identifying patterns, trends, and potential areas for improvement in the future. It also ensures that all incidents are properly recorded and can be referred to if needed for further investigation or analysis.

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  • 5. 

    In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is underpinned by which set of activities?

    • A.

      Baseline assessments

    • B.

      Service and process improvements

    • C.

      Taking measurements and recording metrics

    • D.

      Setting measurement targets

    Correct Answer
    B. Service and process improvements
    Explanation
    The stage 'How do we get there?' in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model is underpinned by service and process improvements. This stage focuses on identifying areas for improvement within the organization's services and processes. It involves analyzing current practices, identifying bottlenecks or inefficiencies, and implementing changes to enhance the overall service delivery and process efficiency. By continuously improving services and processes, organizations can drive better outcomes and meet their objectives effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

    • A.

      The Service Level Manager

    • B.

      The IT Service Continuity Manager

    • C.

      The Service Catalogue Manager

    • D.

      The Supplier Manager

    Correct Answer
    D. The Supplier Manager
    Explanation
    The Supplier Manager is responsible for reviewing and conducting risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis. This role ensures that the organization's suppliers are meeting the required standards and that any potential risks are identified and mitigated. By regularly reviewing supplies and contracts, the Supplier Manager can ensure that the organization is receiving the best value for its money and that any potential risks are addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?

    • A.

      To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disaster

    • B.

      To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers

    • C.

      To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss

    • D.

      To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation

    Correct Answer
    D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
    Explanation
    The concern of risk management is not to ensure that only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation. Risk management focuses on identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks to ensure the organization can continue to operate, maintain a safe workplace, and protect its assets. While considering risks in change requests is important, it is not the sole concern of risk management.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

    • A.

      A measurement of cost

    • B.

      A function described within Service Transition

    • C.

      The team of people responsible for implementing a release

    • D.

      The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

    Correct Answer
    D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
    Explanation
    A release unit refers to the portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is typically released together. This means that when a new version or update of a service or IT infrastructure is released, it includes all the necessary components and elements that work together as a unit. This ensures that the release is cohesive and functions properly as a whole.

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  • 9. 

    Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

    • A.

      Demand Management

    • B.

      Supplier Management

    • C.

      Service Desk

    • D.

      RequestFulfilllment

    Correct Answer
    A. Demand Management
    Explanation
    Demand Management is the process that lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role. This process involves analyzing and forecasting customer demands to ensure that the right products or services are available at the right time. By understanding patterns of business activity, Demand Management can effectively plan and manage the supply chain, inventory, and resources to meet customer demands and optimize business performance.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    • A.

      Process owners are more important to service management than service owners

    • B.

      Service owners are more important to service management than process owners

    • C.

      Service owners are as important to service management as process owners

    • D.

      Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization

    Correct Answer
    C. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that both service owners and process owners are equally important to service management. It implies that both roles have significant contributions and responsibilities in ensuring effective service delivery. The statement also emphasizes the importance of having both roles within an organization, indicating that they are necessary for successful service management.

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  • 11. 

    Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

    • A.

      A Service Level Agreement (SLA)

    • B.

      A Request for Change (RFC)

    • C.

      The Service Portfolio

    • D.

      A Service Description

    Correct Answer
    A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
    Explanation
    Incident resolution targets are typically documented in a Service Level Agreement (SLA). An SLA is a formal agreement between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service that will be provided. It includes specific targets and metrics for incident resolution, such as response times and resolution times. The SLA serves as a reference point for both parties, ensuring that the service provider meets the agreed-upon targets for incident resolution.

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  • 12. 

    Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

    • A.

      The value of a service

    • B.

      Customer satisfaction

    • C.

      Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

    • D.

      Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

    Correct Answer
    A. The value of a service
    Explanation
    Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define the value of a service. The way customers perceive a service and the impact it has on business outcomes such as revenue, customer loyalty, and market share all contribute to determining the value of the service. Customer perceptions can be influenced by factors such as quality, reliability, convenience, and customer service, which in turn affect the overall satisfaction and perception of the service. Understanding and measuring these perceptions and their impact on business outcomes is crucial in determining the value of a service.

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  • 13. 

    The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?

    • A.

      Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement

    • B.

      Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements

    • C.

      Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.

    • D.

      Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.
    Explanation
    The Service Catalogue Manager is responsible for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue, which contains important information about the services offered by the organization. Ensuring that this information is adequately protected and backed up is crucial to prevent any loss or unauthorized access. This responsibility helps in maintaining the integrity and availability of the Service Catalogue, ensuring that it remains a reliable source of information for both the organization and its customers.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

    • A.

      Early Life Support

    • B.

      Service Test Manager

    • C.

      Evaluation

    • D.

      Release Packaging and Build Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Early Life Support
    Explanation
    Early Life Support provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment. This means that Early Life Support is responsible for providing assistance and resolving any problems that may arise during the initial stages of implementing a new release or deployment. They ensure that any issues or challenges are addressed promptly and effectively, ensuring a smooth transition and minimizing any disruptions to operations and support.

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  • 15. 

    Identify the input to the Problem Management process

    • A.

      Request for Change

    • B.

      Problem Resolution

    • C.

      Incident Records

    • D.

      New Known Errors

    Correct Answer
    C. Incident Records
    Explanation
    The input to the Problem Management process includes incident records. Incident records provide valuable information about past incidents and their resolutions, which can help identify underlying problems and potential solutions. By analyzing incident records, the Problem Management team can identify patterns, trends, and recurring issues, allowing them to proactively address and resolve problems before they cause further incidents. Incident records serve as a crucial source of data for problem analysis and problem resolution activities within the Problem Management process.

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  • 16. 

    Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

    • A.

      Service Design

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Operation

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Strategy
    Explanation
    Service Strategy is the stage of the Service Lifecycle that is most concerned with defining policies and objectives. During this stage, organizations determine how to differentiate themselves from competitors, identify target markets, and define the value proposition for their services. It involves strategic planning, financial management, and understanding customer needs and expectations. The objective is to align the organization's resources and capabilities with its business goals and objectives, ensuring that the services provided meet the desired outcomes and deliver value to the customers.

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  • 17. 

    Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?

    • A.

      The Service Level Manager

    • B.

      The Configuration Manager

    • C.

      The Change Manager

    • D.

      The Information Security Manager

    Correct Answer
    D. The Information Security Manager
    Explanation
    The Information Security Manager is responsible for ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of services are maintained to the levels agreed upon in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). This role is specifically focused on managing and implementing security measures to protect the organization's information and systems. They work closely with other stakeholders, such as the Service Level Manager, to ensure that the agreed-upon security requirements are met and that any potential risks or vulnerabilities are addressed.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

    • A.

      The Change Advisory Board

    • B.

      A person that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.

    • C.

      A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.

    • D.

      The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change

    Correct Answer
    C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.
    Explanation
    A Change Authority refers to a role, person, or a group of people that provides formal authorization for a specific type of change. This means that they have the authority to approve or reject changes based on their expertise and understanding of the impact it may have on the organization. They play a crucial role in ensuring that changes are properly assessed and approved before implementation, helping to maintain the stability and integrity of the organization's systems and processes.

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  • 19. 

    What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

    • A.

      Technical and Service

    • B.

      Resource and Proactive

    • C.

      Reactive and Technical

    • D.

      Proactive and Reactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Proactive and Reactive
    Explanation
    The two major processes in Problem Management are Proactive and Reactive. Proactive problem management involves identifying and resolving potential issues before they occur, through activities such as trend analysis and proactive monitoring. Reactive problem management, on the other hand, focuses on addressing incidents and problems that have already occurred, by investigating the root cause and implementing corrective actions to prevent future occurrences. These two processes work together to ensure effective problem resolution and minimize the impact of incidents on the overall IT service.

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  • 20. 

    The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

    • A.

      The utility of a service

    • B.

      The warranty of a service

    • C.

      The economic value of a service

    • D.

      Return on investment

    Correct Answer
    A. The utility of a service
    Explanation
    The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as the utility of a service. Utility refers to the usefulness or satisfaction that customers derive from a service, which can ultimately impact their business outcomes. This can include factors such as increased productivity, improved efficiency, cost savings, or enhanced customer satisfaction.

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  • 21. 

    Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?

    • A.

      Capacity Management

    • B.

      Incident Management

    • C.

      Service Level Management

    • D.

      Financial Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacity Management
    Explanation
    Capacity Management is the process that contains the Business, Service, and Component sub-processes. This process is responsible for ensuring that the organization has the right amount of resources, such as hardware, software, and personnel, to meet the current and future needs of the business. The Business sub-process focuses on understanding the business requirements and translating them into capacity requirements. The Service sub-process focuses on managing the capacity of the IT services provided to the business. The Component sub-process focuses on managing the capacity of the individual components that make up the IT services.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?: 1. The services 2. The architectures 3. The configuration items 4. The processes

    • A.

      1, 2, and 3 only

    • B.

      1, 3, and 4 only

    • C.

      2, 3, and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When designing measurement systems, methods, and metrics, all of the options should be considered. The services are important to understand the overall goals and objectives of the system. The architectures help in determining the structure and components of the system that need to be measured. The configuration items are necessary to identify the specific elements that need to be measured. Finally, the processes are crucial to understand how the system functions and to measure its performance. Therefore, considering all of these factors is essential for designing effective measurement systems.

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  • 23. 

    Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these Four Ps?

    • A.

      People, Products, Partners, Profit

    • B.

      People, Process, Products, Partners

    • C.

      Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit

    • D.

      People, Potential, Products, Performance

    Correct Answer
    B. People, Process, Products, Partners
    Explanation
    Service Design emphasizes the importance of considering the Four Ps: People, Process, Products, and Partners. These four elements are crucial in designing and delivering effective services. People refer to the customers, employees, and other stakeholders involved in the service. Process involves the steps and activities required to deliver the service. Products include both tangible and intangible elements that are part of the service experience. Partners refer to the external entities or organizations that collaborate in providing the service. Considering and optimizing these Four Ps is essential for creating a successful service design.

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  • 24. 

    With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

    • A.

      Incident Management

    • B.

      Service Asset and Configuration Management

    • C.

      Capacity Management

    • D.

      IT Service Continuity

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident Management
    Explanation
    Problem Management is likely to share categorization and impact coding systems with Incident Management. This is because both processes deal with resolving issues and incidents within the IT infrastructure. Categorization and impact coding systems help in classifying and prioritizing incidents based on their impact on the business and the urgency of the resolution. By sharing these systems, Problem Management can benefit from the categorization and impact coding already established by Incident Management, ensuring a consistent and efficient approach to problem resolution.

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  • 25. 

    In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

    • A.

      Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

    • B.

      Capacity Plan

    • C.

      Service Level Agreement (SLA)

    • D.

      SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

    Correct Answer
    D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
    Explanation
    The SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM) would provide an overview of actual service achievements against targets. This document is specifically designed to track and monitor the performance of services as outlined in the Service Level Agreement (SLA). It allows for easy comparison between the agreed targets and the actual achievements, providing a clear picture of how well the services are meeting their objectives. The SLAM helps in identifying any gaps or areas that need improvement, allowing for timely corrective actions to be taken.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

    • A.

      The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base

    • B.

      The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System

    • C.

      The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system

    • D.

      The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

    Correct Answer
    C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system. This means that the Configuration Management System is a component or subset of the larger Service Knowledge Management system.

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  • 27. 

    Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

    • A.

      The ITIL Complementary Guidance

    • B.

      The Service Support book

    • C.

      Pocket Guides

    • D.

      The Service Strategy book

    Correct Answer
    A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
    Explanation
    The ITIL Complementary Guidance provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies. This guidance is designed to complement the core ITIL publications and offers additional information and practical advice on implementing ITIL practices. It helps organizations tailor the ITIL framework to their specific needs and requirements, ensuring that ITIL practices align with their business goals and strategies.

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  • 28. 

    What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

    • A.

      Configuration Baseline

    • B.

      Project Baseline

    • C.

      Change Baseline

    • D.

      Asset Baseline

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration Baseline
    Explanation
    A configuration baseline captures the structure, contents, and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other. It provides a snapshot of the current state of the system and serves as a reference point for future changes and comparisons. It helps in ensuring consistency, controlling changes, and facilitating troubleshooting and problem resolution.

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  • 29. 

    Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

    • A.

      The Service Provider

    • B.

      The Service Level Manager

    • C.

      The Customer

    • D.

      The Finance department

    Correct Answer
    A. The Service Provider
    Explanation
    The correct answer is The Service Provider. The service provider is responsible for bearing the costs and risks associated with providing a service. This includes expenses related to infrastructure, resources, and any potential risks or liabilities that may arise during the delivery of the service. The service provider is accountable for ensuring that the service is delivered effectively and efficiently, and they are the ones who ultimately own the responsibility for any associated costs and risks.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine? 1. Things that were done correctly 2. Those things that were done incorrectly 3. How to prevent recurrence 4. What could be done better in the future

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A Major Problem Review would examine all of the given options. It would analyze things that were done correctly, those that were done incorrectly, and determine how to prevent recurrence. Additionally, it would identify areas that could be improved in the future.

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  • 31. 

    What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items(Cls) are stored and protected?

    • A.

      Definitive Media Library

    • B.

      Definitive Software Store

    • C.

      Service Knowledge Management System

    • D.

      Software Secure Library

    Correct Answer
    A. Definitive Media Library
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Definitive Media Library. The Definitive Media Library is the area where the authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (Cls) are stored and protected. It serves as a central repository for all software, hardware, and media assets, ensuring that only authorized and controlled versions are used in the organization.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?

    • A.

      Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

    • B.

      Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

    • C.

      Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

    • D.

      Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

    Correct Answer
    B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom. This hierarchy represents the progression of understanding and utilization of information. Data refers to raw facts and figures, which are then organized and processed into information. Knowledge is derived from analyzing and interpreting information, leading to a deeper understanding and application of concepts. Finally, wisdom is the highest level, representing the ability to apply knowledge in a meaningful and insightful way.

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  • 33. 

    Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?

    • A.

      Service Strategy

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Operation

    • D.

      Continual Service Improvement

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Operation
    Explanation
    Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfilment are all processes that are part of the Service Operation stage of the Service Lifecycle. This stage focuses on delivering and managing the services on a day-to-day basis, ensuring that the services are running effectively and efficiently. Event Management deals with monitoring and managing events to prevent incidents and minimize their impact. Problem Management aims to identify and resolve the root cause of recurring incidents. Access Management controls and manages user access to services and systems. Request Fulfilment handles the fulfillment of service requests from users.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following are aspects of Service Design? 1. Architectures 2. Technology 3. Service Management processes 4. Metrics

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 and 3 only

    • C.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given options, 1. Architectures, 2. Technology, 3. Service Management processes, and 4. Metrics, are aspects of Service Design. Service Design involves designing and organizing the service architecture, selecting suitable technologies to support the service, implementing service management processes to ensure effective service delivery, and defining metrics to measure the performance and success of the service. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are relevant aspects of Service Design.

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  • 35. 

    Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

    • A.

      An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

    • B.

      A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item

    • C.

      An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management

    • D.

      Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

    Correct Answer
    C. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management
    Explanation
    A Configuration Item (CI) refers to an asset, service component, or any other item that is currently or will be under the control of Configuration Management. This means that the CI can be tracked, monitored, and managed throughout its lifecycle. It includes both hardware and software items. The definition emphasizes the importance of Configuration Management in controlling and maintaining the CI.

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  • 36. 

    Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

    • A.

      Incident Model

    • B.

      Problem Model

    • C.

      Configuration Model

    • D.

      Change Model

    Correct Answer
    C. Configuration Model
    Explanation
    The Configuration Model delivers a view of the services, assets, and infrastructure. It provides a comprehensive understanding of the components and their relationships within an organization's IT environment. This model helps in managing and controlling the configuration items, ensuring that they are accurately documented and maintained. It allows for better decision-making regarding changes, incidents, and problems by providing a clear understanding of the configuration items and their dependencies.

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  • 37. 

    The BEST processes to automate are those that are:

    • A.

      Carried out by Service Operations

    • B.

      Carried out by lots of people

    • C.

      Critical to the success of the business mission

    • D.

      Simple and well understood

    Correct Answer
    D. Simple and well understood
    Explanation
    The best processes to automate are those that are simple and well understood because they are easier to analyze and break down into individual steps. Automating complex processes can be challenging and may require more time and resources. Additionally, simple and well-understood processes are more likely to have clear and defined rules, making it easier to program and implement automation. By automating these processes, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce errors, and increase efficiency.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Risk assessment 2. Testing of resilience mechanisms 3. Monitoring of component availability

    • A.

      All of the above

    • B.

      1 and 2 only

    • C.

      1 and 3 only

    • D.

      2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    The activities of risk assessment and testing of resilience mechanisms are considered to be proactive because they involve identifying potential risks and vulnerabilities before they occur and taking measures to prevent or mitigate them. Monitoring of component availability, on the other hand, is more reactive as it involves monitoring and responding to incidents or failures that have already occurred. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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  • 39. 

    What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?

    • A.

      An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization

    • B.

      An agreement between the service provider and an external organization

    • C.

      A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis

    • D.

      A document that describes business services to operational staff

    Correct Answer
    A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
    Explanation
    An Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is an agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization. This agreement outlines the responsibilities, roles, and expectations between the service provider and the internal department or team. OLAs are used to ensure smooth coordination and collaboration between different parts of the organization to deliver services effectively.

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  • 40. 

    How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

    • A.

      As many as necessary to complete the activity

    • B.

      Only one - the process owner

    • C.

      Two - the process owner and the process enactor

    • D.

      Only one - the process architect

    Correct Answer
    B. Only one - the process owner
    Explanation
    In the RACI model, accountability for a process is assigned to the process owner. The process owner is responsible for overseeing and ensuring the successful completion of the process. They are the ultimate authority and decision-maker for the process. Therefore, according to the RACI model, only one person, the process owner, should be accountable for a process.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    • A.

      They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

    • B.

      We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner

    • C.

      They deliver specific results

    • D.

      They respond to specific events

    Correct Answer
    A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
    Explanation
    This statement is incorrect because processes are not units of organizations. Processes are a series of activities or tasks that are designed to achieve a specific outcome or deliver a specific result. They may involve multiple units or departments within an organization, but they are not units themselves.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following would be defined as part of every process? 1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Responsibilities

    • A.

      1 and 3 only

    • B.

      All of the above

    • C.

      2 and 4 only

    • D.

      1, 2 and 4 only

    Correct Answer
    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
    Explanation
    Roles, activities, and responsibilities are all components that are defined as part of every process. Functions, on the other hand, may or may not be defined as part of a process depending on the specific context or requirements. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

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  • 43. 

    The Supplier Management process includes: 1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements 2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements 3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business

    • A.

      1 and 2 only

    • B.

      1 only

    • C.

      All of the above

    • D.

      1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." The Supplier Management process includes service design activities to ensure that contracts can support service requirements, service operation activities to monitor and report supplier achievements, and continual improvement activities to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed business needs.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

    • A.

      Change Management

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Design

    Correct Answer
    D. Service Design
    Explanation
    Service Design is the correct answer because it is primarily focused on the design of new or changed services. It involves creating and modifying services to meet the needs of the customers and the business. Service Design includes activities such as defining service requirements, designing service processes, and creating service level agreements. It ensures that the services are designed in a way that they can be effectively and efficiently delivered and managed.

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  • 45. 

    Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

    • A.

      Categorization

    • B.

      Logging

    • C.

      Prioritization

    • D.

      Closure

    Correct Answer
    A. Categorization
    Explanation
    Categorization is the Problem Management activity that helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained. By categorizing problems, it becomes easier to identify patterns, trends, and commonalities among different incidents or issues. This allows for better analysis and understanding of the underlying causes of problems, leading to more effective problem resolution and prevention strategies. Categorization also enables the generation of meaningful management reports and metrics, which can help in making informed decisions and prioritizing resources.

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  • 46. 

    What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

    • A.

      ReturnOn Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality

    • B.

      Strategic, tactical and operational

    • C.

      Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities

    • D.

      Technology, process and service

    Correct Answer
    D. Technology, process and service
    Explanation
    An organization should collect metrics related to technology, process, and service in order to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI). These metrics help the organization assess the effectiveness and efficiency of their technology systems, evaluate the performance of their processes, and measure the quality of their services. By collecting and analyzing these metrics, the organization can identify areas for improvement and make informed decisions to enhance their overall service delivery.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident? 1. Incident Model 2. Known Error Record

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      Bothofthe above

    • D.

      Neitherofthe above

    Correct Answer
    C. Bothofthe above
    Explanation
    Both an Incident Model and a Known Error Record can be used to manage an Incident. An Incident Model provides a predefined set of steps and procedures to follow when managing an Incident, helping to ensure consistency and efficiency in the resolution process. On the other hand, a Known Error Record contains information about a previously identified problem and its resolution, which can be used to quickly resolve similar Incidents in the future. By utilizing both an Incident Model and a Known Error Record, an organization can effectively manage and resolve Incidents.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

    • A.

      Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)

    • B.

      Customer and User satisfaction

    • C.

      Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty

    • D.

      Utility and Warranty

    Correct Answer
    D. Utility and Warranty
    Explanation
    Utility and warranty are the two primary elements that create value for customers. Utility refers to the usefulness or functionality of a product or service, and how it meets the needs and wants of customers. Warranty, on the other hand, provides assurance to customers that the product or service will perform as expected and any issues will be resolved. Both utility and warranty contribute to customer satisfaction and the perceived value of a product or service.

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  • 49. 

    Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

    • A.

      Do

    • B.

      Perform

    • C.

      Implement

    • D.

      Measure

    Correct Answer
    A. Do
    Explanation
    The fourth stage of the Deming Cycle is "Do". After planning, checking, and acting on the plan, the "Do" stage involves implementing the plan and carrying out the necessary actions. It is the stage where the actual work is done based on the plan that has been developed. This stage focuses on executing the planned activities and gathering data to evaluate the results.

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  • 50. 

    Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

    • A.

      Availability Management

    • B.

      Demand Management

    • C.

      Financial Management

    • D.

      Service Level Management

    Correct Answer
    B. Demand Management
    Explanation
    Demand Management is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA). Demand Management involves understanding and predicting customer demand for services or products. By analyzing the patterns of business activity, organizations can identify trends and patterns in customer demand, allowing them to effectively plan and allocate resources to meet that demand. This analysis helps in forecasting future demand, optimizing inventory levels, and ensuring that the organization can meet customer expectations and deliver services efficiently.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    KarenBoreland

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