Immunology Self Test

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Immunology Self Test - Quiz

Straight from the slides


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Natural active immunity

    • A.

      Is IgG passed from mother to child

    • B.

      Is efficient at fighting infection on the first exposure

    • C.

      Tricks the body into thinking it is being invaded, so the body generates a memory of the event

    • D.

      Requires about two weeks for the cellular immune response to be activated

    • E.

      Requires large amounts of antigen to be injected into the mucosa

    Correct Answer
    D. Requires about two weeks for the cellular immune response to be activated
  • 2. 

    Which is not a killed whole organism vaccine?

    • A.

      Polio

    • B.

      MMR

    • C.

      Influenza

    • D.

      Rabies

    • E.

      Typhoid

    Correct Answer
    B. MMR
  • 3. 

    Which vaccines use microbes that were cultured in a way that made them lose their virulence?

    • A.

      Whole organism vaccines

    • B.

      RDNA technology vaccines

    • C.

      Attenuated vaccines

    • D.

      Trojan horse vaccines

    • E.

      Live vaccines

    Correct Answer
    C. Attenuated vaccines
  • 4. 

    Which attenuated vaccines are currently in development? (two answers)

    • A.

      AIDS

    • B.

      Salmonella

    • C.

      Cholera

    • D.

      SARS

    • E.

      Leishmania

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Salmonella
    E. Leishmania
  • 5. 

    Which is not an attenuated vaccine? (two answers)

    • A.

      Leprosy

    • B.

      MMR

    • C.

      Cholera

    • D.

      FluMist

    • E.

      Polio

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Leprosy
    E. Polio
  • 6. 

    Which are disadvantages of live vaccines? (two answers

    • A.

      Organisms can multiply and produce infection, not disease

    • B.

      They can be transmitted to others

    • C.

      Immunity requires fewer shots

    • D.

      They can mutate back to the original strain

    • E.

      They offer long-term protection

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. They can be transmitted to others
    D. They can mutate back to the original strain
  • 7. 

    Which is false?

    • A.

      Pasteur discovered microbes grown in unusual hosts lost their strength..

    • B.

      A Trojan horse vaccine uses a live pathogenic carrier to contain an antigenic determinant.

    • C.

      The host for pertussis vaccine is a hamster.

    • D.

      Adenovirus is often used as a Trojan horse.

    • E.

      Oc=ver-expressed proteins are used as vaccines in rDNA technology.

    Correct Answer
    B. A Trojan horse vaccine uses a live pathogenic carrier to contain an antigenic determinant.
  • 8. 

    Trojan horse vaccines in development include: (three answers)

    • A.

      Salmonella

    • B.

      Tuberculosis

    • C.

      Leprosy

    • D.

      AIDS

    • E.

      Haemophilis

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. Leprosy
    D. AIDS
  • 9. 

    Which cancer is not associated with a oncogenic microbe?

    • A.

      Pancreatic cancer

    • B.

      Liver cancer

    • C.

      Cervical cancer

    • D.

      Stomach cancer

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreatic cancer
  • 10. 

    Which vaccines use fragments or proteins of virulent microbes?

    • A.

      Killed

    • B.

      Attenuated

    • C.

      Toxoid

    • D.

      Subunit

    • E.

      Capsular

    Correct Answer
    D. Subunit
  • 11. 

    Which of the following is an example of a toxoid vaccine?

    • A.

      Bubonic plague

    • B.

      Dipththeria

    • C.

      Haemophilus influenzae type B

    • D.

      Hepatitis B

    • E.

      MMR

    Correct Answer
    B. Dipththeria
  • 12. 

    Which of the following is a capsular vaccine? (two answers)

    • A.

      HPV

    • B.

      Pneumococcus

    • C.

      Polio

    • D.

      Meningococcus

    • E.

      Pertussis

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Pneumococcus
    D. Meningococcus
  • 13. 

    Which is false about Type I (allergic) hypersensitivity?

    • A.

      It is believed to be a T cell -mediated disease

    • B.

      It is believed to represent a faulty response to parasites

    • C.

      IgE binds to mast cells and basophils

    • D.

      IgE is made that is specific to an allergen

    • E.

      Mast cells in tissue and basophils in blood stream are thought to be counterparts of each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is believed to be a T cell -mediated disease
  • 14. 

    Which is true?

    • A.

      The highest rates of asthma are in Peru, Chile, South Africa, and New Zealand

    • B.

      The incidence of asthma is rising 20 to 50 percent every 5 years

    • C.

      Treatment costs include $8.1 billion in direct cost and $4.6 billion in lost earnings

    • D.

      150 million suffer from asthma worldwide

    • E.

      IgE does not cause non-allergic rhinitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Treatment costs include $8.1 billion in direct cost and $4.6 billion in lost earnings
  • 15. 

    Which does not happen following an exposure to an allergen?

    • A.

      Cross-linking of IgE

    • B.

      Rise in cAMP

    • C.

      Calcium influx

    • D.

      Migration of granules

    • E.

      Exocytosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Rise in cAMP
  • 16. 

    Which is not an effective of histamine?

    • A.

      Bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasodilation

    • C.

      Mucus secretion

    • D.

      Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    C. Mucus secretion
  • 17. 

    Which is not an effect of leukotrienes?

    • A.

      Bronchoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasodilation

    • C.

      Mucus secretion

    • D.

      Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilation
  • 18. 

    Which is false concerning tests for type 1 hypersensitivity?

    • A.

      An ELISA analysis tests for total IgE

    • B.

      An mRAST is a radiometric test for allergen specific IgE

    • C.

      A wheal over 15mm in a skin test is +4

    • D.

      Symptoms occur within ten minutes of a skin test

    • E.

      A wheal and flare reaction is the goal of the skin test

    Correct Answer
    D. Symptoms occur within ten minutes of a skin test
  • 19. 

    Which of the following measures forced expiratory volume in one second?

    • A.

      Handheld peak flow meter

    • B.

      Plethysmograph

    • C.

      Spirometer

    • D.

      Graduated cylinder

    Correct Answer
    C. Spirometer
  • 20. 

    Which is not an example of an antihistamine?

    • A.

      Singulair

    • B.

      Claritin

    • C.

      Allegra

    • D.

      Zyrtec

    • E.

      Benadryl

    Correct Answer
    A. Singulair
  • 21. 

    Which is an example of an anti-leukotriene?

    • A.

      Advair

    • B.

      Singulair

    • C.

      Flovent

    • D.

      Ventolin

    • E.

      Zyrtec

    Correct Answer
    B. Singulair
  • 22. 

    Which is an example of a control inhaler? (two answers

    • A.

      Ventolin

    • B.

      Proventil

    • C.

      Flovent

    • D.

      Advair

    • E.

      Intal

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Flovent
    D. Advair
  • 23. 

    Which is false about Type IV hypersensitivity?

    • A.

      The reaction is often in the shape of the offending object.

    • B.

      It is an inflammatory allergy as opposed to a necrotic allergy.

    • C.

      Onset is generally 12-48 hours after exposure

    • D.

      T cells and macrophages are involved

    • E.

      Allergen sensitized cytotoxic CD8 T cells alter epithelia

    Correct Answer
    B. It is an inflammatory allergy as opposed to a necrotic allergy.
  • 24. 

    Which is true about contact sensitivity?

    • A.

      People with contact sensitivity are most likely to be male and Asian.

    • B.

      60,000 Americans develop reactions to poison ivy or poison oak annually.

    • C.

      90% of workers compensation claims are for contact sensitivity reactions

    • D.

      15% of children show a reaction to one or more allergens on a skin test

    Correct Answer
    C. 90% of workers compensation claims are for contact sensitivity reactions
  • 25. 

    Which is false about contact sensitivity?

    • A.

      Nickel is the most frequent contact allergen in females over 8 years old.

    • B.

      Reactions to rubber products are usually caused by chemicals added in the manufacturing process,not to the rubber itself.

    • C.

      An immunity to poison ivy, nickel or rubber can be built by preparing a tincture and placing it under the tongue daily.

    • D.

      Poison ivy reaction is to an oil in the plant called urushiol.

    • E.

      Prolonged use of corticosteroid cream, which is used for allergies, can cause a reaction itself.

    Correct Answer
    C. An immunity to poison ivy, nickel or rubber can be built by preparing a tincture and placing it under the tongue daily.
  • 26. 

    How is contact sensitivity diagnosed?

    • A.

      Patch testing

    • B.

      A red rash is acute, a scaling rash is chronic

    • C.

      Case history of symptom type and onset

    • D.

      Location

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 27. 

    Autoimmune diseases

    • A.

      Affect females and males equally

    • B.

      Affect mostly children and teenagers

    • C.

      Are lifelong and progressive

    • D.

      Involve humoral and/or cellular immune mechanisms

    • E.

      Are non-progressive

    Correct Answer
    C. Are lifelong and progressive
  • 28. 

    The most prevalent autoimmune disorder in tne United States is:

    • A.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • B.

      Guillain-Barre

    • C.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • D.

      Grave's disease

    • E.

      Sjogren's syndrome

    Correct Answer
    D. Grave's disease
  • 29. 

    1 in 100,000 Americans have:

    • A.

      Grave's disease

    • B.

      Guillain-Bare

    • C.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • D.

      Hashimoto's thyroiditis

    • E.

      Pernicious anemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Guillain-Bare
  • 30. 

    Which of the following is false?

    • A.

      T cells that react with antigens are normally removed, made unresponsive or converted to a tolerogenic T helper cell

    • B.

      Antigens are usually sequestered

    • C.

      Epstein-Barr virus is linked to multiple sclerosis

    • D.

      Influenza and polio are related to Guellain-Barre

    • E.

      Signs include elevated IgG levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Epstein-Barr virus is linked to multiple sclerosis
  • 31. 

    Treatment for myasthenia gravis might include:

    • A.

      Metabolic control

    • B.

      Plasmapheresis

    • C.

      Synthetic thyroid hormones

    • D.

      Thymectomy

    • E.

      NSAIDS

    Correct Answer
    D. Thymectomy
  • 32. 

    Which of the following have associated weight loss? (three answers)

    • A.

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B.

      Hashimoto's thyroiditis

    • C.

      Grave's disease

    • D.

      Pernicious anemia

    • E.

      Myasthenia gravis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    C. Grave's disease
    D. Pernicious anemia
  • 33. 

    Which results from underproduction of thyroxine?

    • A.

      Grave's disease

    • B.

      Hashimoto's thyroiditis

    • C.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • D.

      Sjogren's syndrome

    • E.

      Pernicious anemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
  • 34. 

    What percentage of Sjogren's syndrome patients also suffer from rheumatoid arthritis?

    • A.

      10:%

    • B.

      25%

    • C.

      50%

    • D.

      75%

    • E.

      100%

    Correct Answer
    C. 50%
  • 35. 

    Which is associated with a butterfly rash on nose and cheeks?

    • A.

      Type I diabetes

    • B.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • C.

      Pernicious anemia

    • D.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • E.

      Guiellain-Barre

    Correct Answer
    B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • 36. 

    Half of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus patients have __ involvement; the other half have ___ involvement.

    • A.

      Lung...musculoskeletal

    • B.

      Renal...cardiovascular

    • C.

      Central nervous system...lung

    • D.

      Renal...central nervous system

    • E.

      Musculoskeletal...cardiovascular

    Correct Answer
    D. Renal...central nervous system
  • 37. 

    Sjogren's syndrome

    • A.

      Results from faulty absorption fo vitamin B12

    • B.

      Affects endocrine glands, especially lacrimal and salivary

    • C.

      Involves destruction of the islets of Langerhaans

    • D.

      Involves an enlargd thymus in 60-80% of patients

    • E.

      Involves demyelination of nerve tissue and peripheral nerve monocyte tissue infiltrate

    Correct Answer
    B. Affects endocrine glands, especially lacrimal and salivary
  • 38. 

    Increased incidence of stomach cancer is seen in patients with:

    • A.

      Pernicious/megaloblastic anemia

    • B.

      Type I diabetes

    • C.

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • D.

      Grave's disease

    • E.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pernicious/megaloblastic anemia
  • 39. 

    This disease is often comorbid with thyroid problems

    • A.

      Type I diabetes

    • B.

      Sjogren's syndrome

    • C.

      Pernicious anemia

    • D.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus

    • E.

      Guellain Barre

    Correct Answer
    C. Pernicious anemia
  • 40. 

    Which is false about type I diabetes?

    • A.

      It affects 1:500 in the United States

    • B.

      It usually shows up in middle age (40-50 years)

    • C.

      Symptoms are ketoacidosis, cardiovascular disease and kidney problems

    • D.

      It involves destruction of the islets of Langerhaans

    • E.

      It is treated with insulin injections

    Correct Answer
    B. It usually shows up in middle age (40-50 years)
  • 41. 

    Ptosis is a sign of which of the following diseases?

    • A.

      Grave's disease

    • B.

      Hashimoto's thyroiditis

    • C.

      Guellain Barre

    • D.

      Myasthenia gravis

    • E.

      Type I diabetes

    Correct Answer
    D. Myasthenia gravis
  • 42. 

    Which is false about myasthenia gravis?

    • A.

      80-90% of patients have antibodies against acetylcholine receptor

    • B.

      It is caused by depletion of acetylcholine receptors at the myoneural junction

    • C.

      Symptoms include weight gain, slow pulse, and thinning of hair

    • D.

      It is treated by anticholinesterase

    • E.

      There is a genetic disposition in human leukocyte antigen DR3

    Correct Answer
    C. Symptoms include weight gain, slow pulse, and thinning of hair
  • 43. 

    Which is true of Guellain-Barre syndrome?

    • A.

      Normal function rarely returns to patients.

    • B.

      The cause is overmyelination of nerve tissue and peripheral nerve monocyte tissue infiltrate

    • C.

      It occurs following infectiious disease such as measles, hepatitis and polio, or after vaccination for influenza

    • D.

      It effects the endocrine glands, especially lacrimal and salivary

    • E.

      Symptoms include fatigue and weight loss

    Correct Answer
    C. It occurs following infectiious disease such as measles, hepatitis and polio, or after vaccination for influenza
  • 44. 

    Which is false?

    • A.

      Anergy = a lack of reaction by the body's defense mechanisms to foreign substances

    • B.

      People with autoimmune disorders have immune complexes in their serum

    • C.

      Autoimmune diseases are usually reversible

    • D.

      Autoantibodies often found, but are not unique

    • E.

      The second most common autoimmune disorder in the United States is Rheumatoid arthritis.

    Correct Answer
    C. Autoimmune diseases are usually reversible

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