Human Physiology Review

130 Questions | Total Attempts: 329

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Human Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Human Physiology


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is false regarding gas exchange in Alveoli
    • A. 

      Only 2 thin cells seperate the alveolar air form the blood

    • B. 

      An enormous surface area and rich blood supply allow for maximum exchange

    • C. 

      Gas exchange takes place by simple diffusion

    • D. 

      Gas exchange takes place by active transport

  • 2. 
    Surface tension forms because
    • A. 

      Oxygen is more dense than carbon dioxide, and the exchange at the alveoli leads to decreased pressure in the alveoli, and therefore surface tension.

    • B. 

      Oxygen molecules form a film on the inside of the alveolar sacs, and their repulsion to each other cause surface tension

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide molecules form a film on the outside of the alveolar sacs, and their attraction to each other cause surface tension.

    • D. 

      Water molecules form a film on the outside of the alveolar sacs, and their attraction to each other cause surface tension

  • 3. 
    The jelly-like fluid that is secreted by the alveolar cells to counteract the surface tension in the alveoli is called the
    • A. 

      Macrophage

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate Ion

    • C. 

      Surfactant

    • D. 

      Chlorine

  • 4. 
    The Pons
    • A. 

      Has an apnuestic center that promotes inspiration

    • B. 

      Controls the Medulla

    • C. 

      A and B

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Medulla
    • A. 

      It controls the hypothalamus

    • B. 

      It is controlled by the Pons

    • C. 

      It has inspiratory neurons that drive inspiration by stimulating the spinal motor neurons that innervate respiratory muscles

    • D. 

      It has expiratory neurons that inhibit the inspiratory neurons, allowing for expiration to occur.

  • 6. 
    Inspiratory Reserve Volume is
    • A. 

      The total volume of air your lungs can hold

    • B. 

      The volume of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing

    • C. 

      The amount of air able to be exhaled after a normal exhalation

    • D. 

      The amount of air able to be inhaled after a normal inhalation

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding the transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide in the body
    • A. 

      Veins have more oxygen than arteries

    • B. 

      Oxygen is bound to copper molecule in the Hemoglobin

    • C. 

      The binding or release of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide by Hemoglobin is due to the partial pressures (concentrations) of those gases

    • D. 

      The partial pressure of oxygen is high in the tissues

  • 8. 
    Hemoglobin binds to ____ total oxygen molecules. and oxygen binds directly to an ____ molecule
    • A. 

      4, iron

    • B. 

      8, iron

    • C. 

      4, carbon

    • D. 

      8, carbon

  • 9. 
    The Bohr Effect states
    • A. 

      As Ph increases, the affinity of Hemoglobin for oxygen decreases (Curve to Left)

    • B. 

      As Ph decreases, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen increases (Curve to Left)

    • C. 

      As pH decreases, the affinity of Hemoglobin for oxygen dereases (Curve to Right)

    • D. 

      As pH increases, the affinity of Hemoglobin for oxygen increases (Curve to Right)

  • 10. 
    Which is true regarding the Chloride shift
    • A. 

      Occurs in the lungs, where hemoglobin picks up CO2

    • B. 

      HCO3- diffuses from the RBC into the blood, and chlorine replaces it

    • C. 

      H+ ions bumps Oxygen off to Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      B and C

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding Respiratory Acidosis
    • A. 

      Is caused by Hypoventilation

    • B. 

      Is caused by Hyperventilation

    • C. 

      Not enough CO2 is breathed out

    • D. 

      Blood CO2 levels rise, and the amount of H+ ions in the blood increases

  • 12. 
    Which of the following affect the ease of ventilation (how easily one is able to bring air into and expel air out of the lungs, and how much and how long the air is held in the lungs.)
    • A. 

      Compliance

    • B. 

      Elasticity

    • C. 

      Surface tension

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 13. 
    The functional unit of the kidney is the
    • A. 

      Renal pyramid

    • B. 

      Renal artery

    • C. 

      Nephron

    • D. 

      Glomerulus

  • 14. 
    What determines the concentration of urine, in other words, what does the concentration of the filtrate match
    • A. 

      Interstitial osmotic concentration of liver tissue

    • B. 

      THe amount of salt in the blood of the glomerulus

    • C. 

      THe amount of salt in the brain

    • D. 

      Interstitial osmotic concentration of kidney tissues

  • 15. 
    In what order does the filtrate (urine) travel through the nephron tubules
    • A. 

      Collecting duct, Distal Tubule, Loop of henle, Proximal tubule

    • B. 

      Proximal tubule, Loop of henle, Distle tubule, Collecting duct

    • C. 

      Distal tubule, COllecting duct, Loop of henle, Proximal tubule

    • D. 

      Proximal tubule, distal tubule, collecting duct, loop of henle

  • 16. 
    The ______ arteriole supples the glomerulus and the _____ arteriole drains the glomerulus
    • A. 

      Afferent, efferent

    • B. 

      Efferent, afferent

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is true regarding the adjustment of urine as it travels through the nephron
    • A. 

      Water and salts are only re-absorbed into the blood stream, not secreted into the filtrate

    • B. 

      Water and salts are only secreted into the filtrate, not re-absorbed into the blood stream

    • C. 

      The concentration and contents of the urine is exactly the same and never changes in every part of the nephron tubules

    • D. 

      None of the above are true

  • 18. 
    The majority of the water and salts that initially enter the nephron tubules is reabsorbed in the ________________, which prevents us from dehydrating
    • A. 

      Proximal tubule

    • B. 

      Loop of Henle

    • C. 

      Distal tubule

    • D. 

      Collecting duct

  • 19. 
    The ascending Loop of Henle is one of the only membranes in our body that is impermeable to
    • A. 

      Salt

    • B. 

      Water

  • 20. 
    The Juxtaglomerular apparatus
    • A. 

      Is the site of K+ secretion

    • B. 

      Is the specialized region where the afferent arteriole comes in contact with the thick ascending limb of the loop of henle

    • C. 

      Releases Angiotensin 1

    • D. 

      Is the name of the cells that make up the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle that is in contact with the afferent arteriole

  • 21. 
    ADH
    • A. 

      Stimulates water reabsorbtion from urine

    • B. 

      Stimulates the insertion of aquaporins in the loop of henle

    • C. 

      Is released in response to overhydration

    • D. 

      Is released by the thyroid

  • 22. 
    Aldosterone
    • A. 

      Acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct

    • B. 

      Helps regulate Na+/K+ balance

    • C. 

      Is secreted by the adrenal gland

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is false regarding the Renin-ANgiostensin Aldosterone system
    • A. 

      Stimulated by reduced blood flow, reduced blood pressure and low Na+ levels

    • B. 

      Renin is released by the hypothalamus

    • C. 

      The activation results in the eventual release of aldosterone from the adrenal gland

    • D. 

      Teh net result is an increase in blood volume, blood pressure and blood flow

  • 24. 
    The glomerular filtration rate is driven by
    • A. 

      The size of the pores in fenestrated capillaries

    • B. 

      The length of the individual nephron where filtration takes place

    • C. 

      The size of the molecules in the blood that is being filtered

    • D. 

      Blood pressure in the glomerulus

  • 25. 
    ______ breaks down proteins, _______ breaks down lipids and _______ breaks down carbs
    • A. 

      Protease, Lipases, Amylases

    • B. 

      Amylases, Lipases, Proteases

    • C. 

      Lipase, Amylase, Proteases

  • 26. 
    The layer of digestive tract from inner-most to outer-most is.
    • A. 

      Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

    • B. 

      Muscularis, submucosa, mucosa, serosa

    • C. 

      Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

  • 27. 
    The mucosa is
    • A. 

      Is a thick, highly vascular layer of connective tissue

    • B. 

      Is highly folded with many villi and microvilli

    • C. 

      Is responsible for segmental contractions and peristaltic movement through the GI tract

    • D. 

      Consists of areolar connective tissue

  • 28. 
    The cells in the stomach that secrete HCL are
    • A. 

      Goblet cells

    • B. 

      Parietal cells

    • C. 

      Chief cells

    • D. 

      Serosal cells

  • 29. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding the digestive activites of the stomach
    • A. 

      It churns and mixes chyme, breaking food down into smaller more easily digestible pieces

    • B. 

      It contains goblets, parietals and chief cells that secrete substances to aid in the breakdown of food pieces

    • C. 

      Protein digestion starts in the stomach

    • D. 

      Carbohydrates and Lipids are digested in the stomachh

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding HCL production in the stomach
    • A. 

      It is secreted by Serosal cells

    • B. 

      It is secreted by the mitochondria

    • C. 

      THe H+ ions come from the dissociation of H2CO3

    • D. 

      The HCL makes the gastric juice basic

  • 31. 
    Enzymes that cleave proteins in the middle of the polypeptide chain are called
    • A. 

      Exopeptidases

    • B. 

      Endopeptidases

    • C. 

      Oligopeptidases

    • D. 

      Pancreatic peptidases

  • 32. 
    The large intestine
    • A. 

      Is where the majority of digestion takes place

    • B. 

      Is a site for the absorption of water

    • C. 

      Is where lipid digestion begins

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 33. 
    Which organ makes bile
    • A. 

      Gallbladder

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Pancreas

  • 34. 
    Bile aids in te digestion of
    • A. 

      Lipids

    • B. 

      Proteins

    • C. 

      Carbohydrates

  • 35. 
    Which accessory digestive organ releases a juice containing water, bicarbonate ions and digestive enzymes
    • A. 

      Mouth

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Stomach

    • D. 

      Liver

  • 36. 
    Hormones that have opposing actions are
    • A. 

      Permissive

    • B. 

      Antagonistic

    • C. 

      Synergistic

    • D. 

      Mutualistic

  • 37. 
    Desensitization (down-regulation)
    • A. 

      Occurs wen a hormone induces more of its own receptors

    • B. 

      Results in a greater response of the target cell

    • C. 

      Occurs after long exposure to high levels of hormones, lowering the response to the hormone

    • D. 

      Describe the half-life of a hormone

  • 38. 
    Nuclear hormone receptors are transcription factors, which means
    • A. 

      The hormone binds to a cell surface receptor, activating a 2nd messenger system

    • B. 

      The hormone binds to a cell surface receptor, activating transcription

    • C. 

      The hormone binds to a nuclear receptor, activating a 2nd messenger system

    • D. 

      The hormone binds to a nuclear receptor, activating transcription

  • 39. 
    The pituitary gland
    • A. 

      Contains two lobes that communicate with each other through a capillary bed

    • B. 

      Controls the hypothalamus and regulates hormonal release by the hypothalamus

    • C. 

      Anterior lobe produces its own hormones and posterior lobe stores hormones made in the hypothalamus

    • D. 

      It is not able to make its own hormones, it only stores hormones made by the hypothalamus

  • 40. 
    Which is necessary for the production of T4 by the thyroid gland
    • A. 

      Na+

    • B. 

      Iodide

    • C. 

      K+

  • 41. 
    A person with the following symptoms (weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, low metabolic rate) most likely has
    • A. 

      Too little thyroid hormone (hypothyrodism)

    • B. 

      Too much thyroid hormone (hyperthyroidism)

    • C. 

      Too little parathyroid hormone (hypo)

    • D. 

      Too much parathyroid hormone (hyper)

  • 42. 
    Which hormone regulates Calcium
    • A. 

      Parathyroid hormone

    • B. 

      Prolactin Hormone

    • C. 

      Leutinizing Hormone

    • D. 

      ACTH

  • 43. 
    Which secretes Melatonin
    • A. 

      Pineal gland

    • B. 

      Posterior pituitary

    • C. 

      Anterior pituitary

    • D. 

      Adrenal medulla

  • 44. 
    Which secretes epinephrine
    • A. 

      Adrenal medulla

    • B. 

      Adrenal cortex

    • C. 

      Pineal gland

    • D. 

      Thymus gland

  • 45. 
    Homeostasis is best defined as 
    • A. 

      The maintenance of a static internal environment regulated by negative feedback

    • B. 

      The maintenance of dynamic internal environment regulated by negative feedback

    • C. 

      The maintenance of dynamic internal environment regulated by positive feedback

    • D. 

      The maintenance of dynamic internal environment regulated by positive feedback

  • 46. 
    A negative feedback loop consists of, in order the following parts
    • A. 

      Sensor, effector, integrating center

    • B. 

      Effector, sensor, integrating center

    • C. 

      Integrating center, sensor, effector

    • D. 

      Sensor, integrating center, effector

  • 47. 
    Positive feedback 
    • A. 

      Amplifies or increases changes in conditions

    • B. 

      Is more rare than negative feedback

    • C. 

      Is responsible for continual uterine muscle contractions during labor

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 48. 
    Buffers are
    • A. 

      Enzymes that speed up reactions

    • B. 

      Molecules that resist changes in pH

    • C. 

      Enzymes that amplify changes in pH

    • D. 

      Molecules that slow down reactions

  • 49. 
    PH is a measure of
    • A. 

      Hydroxide ion (OH-) concentration

    • B. 

      Hydrogen ion (H+) concentration

    • C. 

      Water concentration

    • D. 

      Enzyme concentration

  • 50. 
    The majority of the water in our bodies is found
    • A. 

      Inside cells (intracellular compartment)

    • B. 

      Outside cells (extracellular compartment)

  • 51. 
    Diffusion is best defined as
    • A. 

      Active transport of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration

    • B. 

      Passive movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to high concentration

    • C. 

      Passive movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration

    • D. 

      Active transport of molecules from an area of low concentration to high concentration

  • 52. 
    Osmosis is best defined as
    • A. 

      The active transport of water against its concentration gradient

    • B. 

      The diffusion of water down its concentration gradient

    • C. 

      The diffusion of water against its concentration gradient

    • D. 

      The active transport of water down its concentration gradient

  • 53. 
    Osmotic pressure
    • A. 

      Is the force that would have to be exerted to stop osmosis

    • B. 

      Indicates how strongly water wants to diffuse

    • C. 

      Is proportional to solute concentration

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 54. 
    Which of the following solutions has the highest osmotic pressure
    • A. 

      As 1 molar solution of glucose

    • B. 

      As 2 molar solution of glucose

    • C. 

      As 3 molar solution of glucose

    • D. 

      As 4 molar solution of glucose

  • 55. 
    Which of the following is able to passively diffuse through the plasma membrane
    • A. 

      Small polar molecules

    • B. 

      Large polar molecules

    • C. 

      Non polar molecules

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 56. 
    Cells placed into a hypotonic solution will
    • A. 

      Swell

    • B. 

      Shrivel

    • C. 

      Remain the same size

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 57. 
    The Na+/K+ pump transports _______ out of the cell and ______ into the cell per cycle
    • A. 

      3Na+/2K+

    • B. 

      2K+/3Na+

    • C. 

      3K+/2Na+

    • D. 

      2Na+/3K+

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a NON polar chemical signal/message
    • A. 

      Ability to pass directly through the plasma membrane

    • B. 

      Binds directly to receptors in the nucleus of a cell

    • C. 

      Activate 2nd messenger cascade

    • D. 

      Action results in transcription of proteins

  • 59. 
    Which of the following IS a characteristic of an enzyme
    • A. 

      Increases the activation energy of a chemical reaction

    • B. 

      Decreases the rate of chemical reactions

    • C. 

      Majority are fatty acids

    • D. 

      Have highly ordered 3-D structure essential to their function

  • 60. 
    Enzyme activity (or rate) is affected by which of the following
    • A. 

      Chlorine concentration

    • B. 

      Activation energy

    • C. 

      Substrate concentration

    • D. 

      Enzyme concentration

    • E. 

      C and D

  • 61. 
    A molecule that binds to the active site of an enzyme, thereby inhibiting its function, is called an
    • A. 

      Molecular inhibitor

    • B. 

      Competitive inhibitor

    • C. 

      Steroid inhibitor

    • D. 

      Non-competitive inhibitor

  • 62. 
    The rate of diffusion of a compound depends on
    • A. 

      The magnitude of the concentration gradient

    • B. 

      Permeability of the membrane to the compound

    • C. 

      Surface area of the membrane

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 63. 
    In carrier mediated transport, protein carriers exhibit all of the following except
    • A. 

      Primary active transport

    • B. 

      Facilitated diffusion

    • C. 

      Secondary active transport

    • D. 

      Osmosis

  • 64. 
    Secondary active transport
    • A. 

      Is a form of simple active transport using K+ ions

    • B. 

      Is a form of complex active transport of Na+ ions

    • C. 

      Involves an initial simple active transport of Na+ ions against their concentration gradient

    • D. 

      Involves an initial active transport of Na+ ions down their concentration gradient

  • 65. 
    Symport
    • A. 

      Is secondary active transport where a molecule moves in the same direction as Na+

    • B. 

      Is secondary active transport where a molecule moves in the opposite direction of Na+

  • 66. 
    If the enzyme concentration is fixed
    • A. 

      The addition of substrate will increase the rate of product formation exponentially and indefinitely

    • B. 

      The addition of substrate will decrease the rate of product formation exponentially and indefinitely

    • C. 

      The addition of substrate will increase the rate of product formation exponentially until the saturation point is reached

    • D. 

      The addition of substrate will decrease the rate of product formation exponentially until the saturation point is reached

  • 67. 
    Cofactors 
    • A. 

      Bind to enzymes, changing their conformation, making it harder for substrates to bind

    • B. 

      Are necessary for some enzymes to be able to bind their substrate properly

    • C. 

      Have no effect on an enzyme's ability to bind substrates

  • 68. 
    Many enzymes are activated or de-activated by the addition or removal of
    • A. 

      Phosphorus

    • B. 

      Sodium

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Chlorine

  • 69. 
    Acids
    • A. 

      Donates protons

    • B. 

      Accepts protons

  • 70. 
    The nucleus of an atom contains which of the following
    • A. 

      Prtons

    • B. 

      Neutrons

    • C. 

      Electrons

    • D. 

      A and b

    • E. 

      A and c

  • 71. 
    The atomic number of an element represents
    • A. 

      The mass of an element

    • B. 

      The number of neutrons

    • C. 

      The number of electrons

    • D. 

      The number of protons

  • 72. 
    Ionic bonds
    • A. 

      Occur when valence electrons are transferred from one atom to another

    • B. 

      Form charged ions (anions and cations)

    • C. 

      Are weaker than polar covalent bonds

    • D. 

      All of the above are true

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is NOT an organelle
    • A. 

      Lysosome

    • B. 

      Mitochondria

    • C. 

      Cytosol

  • 74. 
    Mitochondria
    • A. 

      Produce energy

    • B. 

      Make proteins

    • C. 

      Digest cellular components

    • D. 

      Make carbs

  • 75. 
    The plasma membrane of a cell is
    • A. 

      Not selectively permeable

    • B. 

      Is formed by a single layer of phospholipid

    • C. 

      Has very little structural support from proteins.

    • D. 

      Has a slightly negatively charged surface, which prevents charged molecules from passing directly through the membrane

  • 76. 
    The backbone of all organic molecules in our body is
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Carbon

    • C. 

      Nitrogen

    • D. 

      Calcium

  • 77. 
    Isotopes are two forms of the same elemtn that have
    • A. 

      A different number of protons

    • B. 

      A different number of neutrons

    • C. 

      A different number of electrons

    • D. 

      A different number of valence electrons

  • 78. 
    A bond between two elements whose electrons are equally shared is called a 
    • A. 

      Ionic bond

    • B. 

      Nonpolar covalent bond

    • C. 

      Polar covalent bond

    • D. 

      Hydrogen bond

  • 79. 
    A saturated fat has a fatty acid chain in which
    • A. 

      There are zero double bonds between carbon molecules

    • B. 

      There are one or more double bonds between carbon molecules

  • 80. 
    Phospholipids are found in
    • A. 

      DNA

    • B. 

      RNA

    • C. 

      Cell membranes (plasma membrane)

    • D. 

      Proteins

  • 81. 
    Amino acids are joined together by which type of bond
    • A. 

      Ionic

    • B. 

      Covalent

    • C. 

      Hydrogen

    • D. 

      Peptide

  • 82. 
    Glycoproteins ( a molecule that consists of a carbohydrate and a protein) are made/joined together in the
    • A. 

      Golgi apparatus

    • B. 

      Smooth edoplasmic reticulum

    • C. 

      Rough endoplasmic reticulum

    • D. 

      Nucleus

  • 83. 
    A molal solution is one in which
    • A. 

      One mole of a substance is dissolved in 1 total liter of water

    • B. 

      One mole of a substance is dissolved in 1kg of water

  • 84. 
    Which of the following is not a junctional complex found between two adjacent epithelial cells
    • A. 

      Tight junction

    • B. 

      Gap junction

    • C. 

      Adherens junction

    • D. 

      Desmosome

  • 85. 
    In endocrine cell signaling 
    • A. 

      Cells secrete chemical regulators that travel through the bloodstream

    • B. 

      Cells secrete regulatory molecules that diffuse to nearby target cells

    • C. 

      A neuron sends a neurotransmitter to a neighboring cell via a synapse

  • 86. 
    G-proteins
    • A. 

      Are part of 2nd messenger pathways in many cells

    • B. 

      Contain 3 subunits whose components dissociate when a cell surface receptor is activated

    • C. 

      Has an alpha subunit that dissociated and can activate an enzyme or open/close an ion channel

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 87. 
    Substrates bind to enzymes at the
    • A. 

      Active site

    • B. 

      Inhibitive site

    • C. 

      Inactive site

  • 88. 
    The law of mass action states
    • A. 

      A chemical reaction occurs when there are only reactants present

    • B. 

      A chemical reaction occurs only when products are present

    • C. 

      The direction of a reaction is from the side of equation where the concentration is higher to the side where the concentration is lower

    • D. 

      The direction of a reaction is from the side of equation where the concentration is lower to the side where the concentration is higher

  • 89. 
    In a metabolic pathway, end product inhibition
    • A. 

      Occurs when 1 product in a divergent pathway inhibits activity of the branch-point enzyme

    • B. 

      Occurs when 1 product in a divergent pathway activates activity of the branch point enzyme

    • C. 

      Is similar to positive feedback

    • D. 

      Has nothing to do with metabolic pathway

  • 90. 
    What is the precursor for all steroid hormones
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Amino acids

    • C. 

      Cholesterol

  • 91. 
    _____________ receptors produce Action Potentials at constant intervals for as long as the stimulus is applied
    • A. 

      Phasic

    • B. 

      Tonic

    • C. 

      Cutaneous

    • D. 

      Special sense

  • 92. 
    Lateral inhibition is
    • A. 

      The minimum distance at which 2 points of touch can be perceived as seperate

    • B. 

      The transduction of environmental information into Action Potentials

    • C. 

      The inhibition of lateral neurons by more central neurons

    • D. 

      The maximum distance at which 2 points of touch can be perceived as seperate

  • 93. 
    Salty and sour tastanst
    • A. 

      Have receptors on the cell surface of taste buds

    • B. 

      Activate g-protein second messenger pathways

    • C. 

      Pass directly through channels into the taste bud

    • D. 

      Activate Ca+ second messenger pathways

  • 94. 
    In terms of equilibrium, the semicircular canals are responsible for
    • A. 

      Angular acceleration

    • B. 

      Horizontal acceleration

    • C. 

      Vertical acceleration

    • D. 

      Linear acceleration

  • 95. 
    Which of the following is NOT a cutaneous touch receptor
    • A. 

      Pacinian corpuscle

    • B. 

      Kinocilium

    • C. 

      Merkels disk

    • D. 

      Meissner's corpuscle

  • 96. 
    THe receptors for equilibrium in the ear are hair cells called
    • A. 

      Stereocilia/kinocilia

    • B. 

      Ciliated disks

    • C. 

      Otoliths

    • D. 

      Flagellum

  • 97. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding DARK conditions
    • A. 

      Rods and Cones release inhibitory neurotransmitters that hyperpolarize bipolar cells

    • B. 

      Na+ channels remian open, allowing for an influx Na+ that keeps rod or cone cell depolarized

    • C. 

      The bleaching reaction does NOT occur

    • D. 

      GMP is bound to the Na+ channels

  • 98. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding cone cells
    • A. 

      Cones are used for black and white vision

    • B. 

      3 types of cone cells (blue, green, red) are responsible for color vision

    • C. 

      Cones are most active when it is dark

    • D. 

      Cones are used for night vision

  • 99. 
    In nearsightedness (myopia)
    • A. 

      The image is focused in front of the retina because the eyeball is too long

    • B. 

      The image is focused behind the retina because the eyeball is too short

    • C. 

      The image is perfectly focused on the retina

  • 100. 
    The functional unit of skeletal muscle is
    • A. 

      Myosin

    • B. 

      Actin

    • C. 

      Sarcomere

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding the troponin-tropomyosin system
    • A. 

      Troponin binds to calcium

    • B. 

      Tropomyosin blocks ATP binding sites on actin

    • C. 

      Allows for the formation of cross bridges when in resting state

    • D. 

      Troponin binds to ATP

  • 102. 
    In muscles, calcium is stored in the
    • A. 

      Transverse Tubules (T-tubules)

    • B. 

      Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

    • C. 

      Neuro-muscular junction (NMJ)

    • D. 

      Motor unit

  • 103. 
    A _____________ consists of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates 
    • A. 

      Neuro-muscular junction (NMJ)

    • B. 

      Transverse Tubule (T tubule)

    • C. 

      Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR)

    • D. 

      Motor unit

  • 104. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding Type 1 (slow twitch) fibers
    • A. 

      They use mostly anaerobic respiration

    • B. 

      The fatigue very slowly

    • C. 

      They contain lots of myoglobin for oxygen storage

    • D. 

      They have a rich capillary supply

  • 105. 
    In smooth muscle, myosin becomes activated and forms a cross birdge with actin when
    • A. 

      Calcium binds to myosin

    • B. 

      Calcium is removed from myosin

    • C. 

      Phosphorus binds to myosin

    • D. 

      Phosphorus is removed from myosin

  • 106. 
    Which of the following causes the power stroke of the actin/myosin cross bridge
    • A. 

      ATP binding to myosin, allowing for the flexion of the myosin head

    • B. 

      ADP released from myosin, allowing for the flexion of the myosin head

    • C. 

      Calcium released from myosin, allowing for the flexion of the myosin head

    • D. 

      Clacium binding to myosin, allowing for the flexion of the myosin head

  • 107. 
    A smooth sutained muscle contraction is known as
    • A. 

      Twitch

    • B. 

      Tetanus

    • C. 

      Summation

    • D. 

      Incomplete tetanus

  • 108. 
    Which of the following is directly related to the tension (force) that a muscle can achieve, and therefore the force that can be generated by the muscle. 
    • A. 

      Amount of ATP

    • B. 

      Amount of calcium

    • C. 

      Initial overlap between Actin and Myosin filaments

    • D. 

      Initial overlap of troponin

  • 109. 
    Muscle fatigue is due to
    • A. 

      Too much Calcium being released

    • B. 

      Too much oxygen

    • C. 

      Accumulation of extracellular K+

    • D. 

      Too much ATP

  • 110. 
    The purpose of the T Tubules in skeletal muscle is to
    • A. 

      Store calcium

    • B. 

      Conduct or transmit action potentials deep into the muscle fiber

    • C. 

      Release acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

    • D. 

      Stores ATP

  • 111. 
    Which of the following is NOT a leukocyte
    • A. 

      Basophil

    • B. 

      Red Blood cell

    • C. 

      Monocyte

    • D. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 112. 
    Blood Platelets
    • A. 

      Cant bind to intact endothelium

    • B. 

      Release molecules that stimulate vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Are part of the platelet plug

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 113. 
    The pulmonary circulation
    • A. 

      Is the path of blood from the heart to the body

    • B. 

      Is the path of blood from the heart to the liver

    • C. 

      Is the path of blood from the heart to the lungs

    • D. 

      Is the path of blood from the heart to the kidney

  • 114. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding the pacemaker activity of the heart
    • A. 

      The SA node is the pacemaker

    • B. 

      The spontaneous depolarization is caused by an influx of Na+ ions

    • C. 

      The influx of K+ ions occur through the HCN channel

    • D. 

      Once threshold is reached, voltage gated calcium channels open, allowing for contraction

  • 115. 
    An ECG measures
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Strength of cardiac muscle contraction

    • C. 

      Electrical activity of the heart

    • D. 

      Refractory periods of the heart

  • 116. 
    The Lymphatic System
    • A. 

      Transports interstitial fluid back to the blood

    • B. 

      Transports absorbed fat from the small intestine to the blood

    • C. 

      Aids in Immune Defense

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 117. 
    Epinephrine and Nor-Epinephrine regulate cardiac rate by
    • A. 

      Opening K+ channels, thereby slowing heart rate

    • B. 

      Closing HCN channels, thereby slowing heart rate

    • C. 

      Closing K+ channels, thereby increasing heart rate

    • D. 

      Opening HCN channels, thereby increasing heart rate

  • 118. 
    The frank starling Law of the heart states
    • A. 

      The amount of blood that returns to the heart is directly related to Cardiac rate

    • B. 

      The amount of blood that returns to the heart is directly related to the strength of contraction

    • C. 

      The amount of blood that returns to the heart is directly related to the number of HCN channels that open

    • D. 

      The amount of blood that returns to the heart is directly related to the number of Na+ channels that open

  • 119. 
    In terms of Capillary exchange: Filtration will occur when
    • A. 

      Blood pressure is greater than interstitial Osmotic Pressure

    • B. 

      Blood pressure is less that Interstitial Osmotic Pressure

    • C. 

      Blood pressure is equal to the interstitial osmotic pressure

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 120. 
    _______ blood pressure is low because of a large total cross sectional area over a many branches
    • A. 

      Artery

    • B. 

      Vein

    • C. 

      Capillary

  • 121. 
    Systolic pressure is 
    • A. 

      The maximum pressure during the resting state of the heart, and it is measured with the final korotkoff sound

    • B. 

      The maximum pressure during the resting state of the heart and it is measured with the first korotkoff sound

    • C. 

      The maximum pressure immediately after the ventricles contract, and it is measured with the final korotkoff sound

    • D. 

      The maximum pressure immediately after the ventricles contract, and it is measured with the first korotkoff sound

  • 122. 
    Blood pressure is conrtrolled/regulated by which of the following
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Baroreceptors

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 123. 
    Blood flows from the atria to the ventricles through the
    • A. 

      AV valves

    • B. 

      SA node

    • C. 

      Semilunar Valves

    • D. 

      Myocardium

  • 124. 
    ___________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricles at end of diastole
    • A. 

      Stroke Volume

    • B. 

      End-Diastolic Volume

    • C. 

      End systolic volume

    • D. 

      Cardiac Output

  • 125. 
    The opening of the valves in the heart (AV and semilunar) is due mainly to
    • A. 

      Pressure differences in the heart chambers

    • B. 

      Heart rate

    • C. 

      Cardiac output

    • D. 

      Total peripheral resistance

  • 126. 
    Veins
    • A. 

      Have a lot of elastin, making them very elastic

    • B. 

      Have high blood pressure

    • C. 

      Contain a very small amount of the total blood volume iin the body and low pressure

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 127. 
    Which of the following affect cardiac output
    • A. 

      Stroke volume

    • B. 

      Contraction strength

    • C. 

      End diastolic volume

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 128. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding blood flow
    • A. 

      Vasodilation decreases resistance and increases blood flow

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction increases resistance and decreases blood flow

    • C. 

      Blood flows from regions of higher pressure to lower pressure

    • D. 

      As the total peripheral resistance increases, blood flow increases

  • 129. 
    Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) represents
    • A. 

      Systolic - Diastolic Pressure

    • B. 

      Diastolic Pressure + 1/3 Pulse Pressure

    • C. 

      Systolic Pressure + 1/3 Pulse Pressure

    • D. 

      Pulse Pressure + 1/3 Diastolic Pressure

  • 130. 
    The activation of more and more motor units by the brain to increase the force generated by a muscle is called
    • A. 

      Recruitment

    • B. 

      Sliding filament theory

    • C. 

      Neuro-muscular junction potentiation

    • D. 

      Non-graded contractions