Honors Chemistry Exam Prep Term 2 Final Exam

116 Questions

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Chemistry Quizzes & Trivia

Exam Prep.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A chemical can be defined as
    • A. 

      A toxic substance

    • B. 

      An unnatural additive placed in food

    • C. 

      Any substance that has a definite composition

    • D. 

      Any substance that is not alive

  • 2. 
    Inorganice chemistry is the study of
    • A. 

      Non-carbon related compounds

    • B. 

      The chemistry of living things

    • C. 

      Mathematical modeling

    • D. 

      The identification of the composition of materials

  • 3. 
    Organic chemistry is the study of
    • A. 

      Properties, changes, and relationships between energy and matter

    • B. 

      The chemistry of living things

    • C. 

      Crystals and minerals

    • D. 

      Carbon-containing compounds

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      Melting point

    • B. 

      Boiling point

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Density

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Amount of energy

    • B. 

      Density

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Mass

  • 6. 
    The two most important properties of all matter are
    • A. 

      The ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge

    • B. 

      Taking up space and having mass

    • C. 

      Being brittle and hard

    • D. 

      Being malleable and ductile

  • 7. 
    A measure of the quantity of matter is
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Mass

  • 8. 
    Under ordinary conditions of temperature and pressure, the particles in a gas are
    • A. 

      Closely packed

    • B. 

      Very far from one another

    • C. 

      Held in fixed positions

    • D. 

      Unevenly distributed

  • 9. 
    Plasma is the fourth state of matter. In the Plasma state..
    • A. 

      Atoms gain electrons

    • B. 

      Atoms lose electrons

    • C. 

      Atoms form molecules

    • D. 

      Atomic nuclei break down

  • 10. 
    If a mixture is uniform in a composition, it is said to be
    • A. 

      Homogeneous

    • B. 

      Chemically bonded

    • C. 

      Heterogeneous

    • D. 

      A compound

  • 11. 
    A homogeneous mixture is also called
    • A. 

      Chemically bonded

    • B. 

      A compound

    • C. 

      A solution

    • D. 

      A solute

  • 12. 
    If a mixture is not unifom throughout, it is called
    • A. 

      Homogeneous

    • B. 

      Heterogeneous

    • C. 

      Chemically bonded

    • D. 

      A solution

  • 13. 
    The unit m^3 measures
    • A. 

      Length

    • B. 

      Area

    • C. 

      Volume

    • D. 

      Time

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Larger objects are more dense

    • B. 

      Density does not depend on temperature

    • C. 

      Density is a physical property

    • D. 

      The density of an object depends on the force of gravity

  • 15. 
    The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm^3. What is the volume of a diamond with a mass of 0.25 g?
    • A. 

      0.071cm^3

    • B. 

      0.875cm^3

    • C. 

      3.75cm^3

    • D. 

      14 cm^3

  • 16. 
    A measurement that closely agrees with an accepted value is best described as
    • A. 

      Precise

    • B. 

      Reproducible

    • C. 

      Significant

    • D. 

      Accurate

  • 17. 
    A numerical result is said to have good precision if
    • A. 

      It agrees closely with an accepted value

    • B. 

      Repeated measurements agree closely

    • C. 

      It has a small number of significant figures

    • D. 

      It is a large whole number

  • 18. 
    The measurement 0.035550 g rounded of to two significant figures would be
    • A. 

      0.03 g

    • B. 

      0.35 g

    • C. 

      0.036 g

    • D. 

      3.5 X 10^2 g

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      0.0037 mL

    • B. 

      60.0 mL

    • C. 

      400. mL

    • D. 

      506 mL

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      6.5 X 10^-6 cm

    • B. 

      6.5 X 10^-5 cm

    • C. 

      6.5 X 10^-6 cm

    • D. 

      6.4 X 10^-4 cm

  • 21. 
    When 1.92 X 10^-6 kg is divided by 6.8 X 10^2 mL, the quotient equals
    • A. 

      2.8 X 10^-4 kg/mL

    • B. 

      2.8 X 10^-5 kg/mL

    • C. 

      2.8 X 10^-8 kg/mL

    • D. 

      2.8 X 10^-9 kg/mL

  • 22. 
    Dalton incorporated the law of conservation of mass into his atomic theory by asserting that
    • A. 

      Atoms are indivisible

    • B. 

      Atoms of different elements have different properties

    • C. 

      Matter is composed of atoms

    • D. 

      Atoms can be destroyed in chemical reactions

  • 23. 
    If two or more compounds are composed of the same two elements, the ratio of the masses of one element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element is a simple whole number. This is a statement of the law
    • A. 

      Conservation of mass

    • B. 

      Mass action

    • C. 

      Multiple proportions

    • D. 

      Definite composition

  • 24. 
    • A. 

      Atoms of the same element may have different masses

    • B. 

      Atoms may be divided in ordinary chemical reactions

    • C. 

      Atoms can never combine with any other atoms

    • D. 

      Cathode rays are composed of protons

  • 25. 
    Experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the
    • A. 

      Proton

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Neutron

    • D. 

      Electron

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Rutherford

    • B. 

      Dalton

    • C. 

      Chadwick

    • D. 

      Bohr

  • 27. 
    A nuclear particle that has about the same mass a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Nuclide

    • B. 

      Neutron

    • C. 

      Electron

    • D. 

      Isotope

  • 28. 
    Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
    • A. 

      Principal chemical properties

    • B. 

      Masses

    • C. 

      Numbers of protons

    • D. 

      Numbers of electrons

  • 29. 
    As the mass number of an element's isotopes of an element increases, the number of protons 
    • A. 

      Decreases

    • B. 

      Increases

    • C. 

      Remains the same

    • D. 

      Doubles each time the mass number increases

  • 30. 
    The relative atomic mass of an atom can be found by comparing the mass of the atom to the mass of
    • A. 

      One-atom of carbon-12

    • B. 

      On atom of hydrogen-1

    • C. 

      Radioactive isotopes

    • D. 

      Artificial isotopes

  • 31. 
    The average atomic mass of an element is the average of the atomic masses of its
    • A. 

      Naturally occurring isotopes

    • B. 

      Two most abundant isotopes

    • C. 

      Radioactive isotopes

    • D. 

      Artificial isotopes

  • 32. 
    The mass of 2.0 mol of oxygen atoms (atomic mass 16.00 amu) is
    • A. 

      16 g

    • B. 

      32 g

    • C. 

      48 g

    • D. 

      64 g

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      0.1001 mol

    • B. 

      0.1504 mol

    • C. 

      0.2500 mol

    • D. 

      0.4000 mol

  • 34. 
    A sample of tin (atomic mass 118.71 amu) contains 3.01 X 10^23 atoms. The mass of the sample is
    • A. 

      3.01 g

    • B. 

      59.3 g

    • C. 

      72.6 g

    • D. 

      11 g

  • 35. 
    Because c, the speed of electromagnetic radiation is constant the wavelength of the radiation is
    • A. 

      Proportional to its frequency

    • B. 

      Equal to its frequency

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to its frequency

    • D. 

      Double its frequency

  • 36. 
    The frequency of electromagneticradiation is measured in waves/second, or
    • A. 

      Nanometers

    • B. 

      Quanta

    • C. 

      Hertz

    • D. 

      Joules

  • 37. 
    According to the particle model of light, certain kinds of light cannot eject electrons from metals because
    • A. 

      The mass of the light is too low

    • B. 

      The frequency of the light is too high

    • C. 

      The energy of the light is too low

    • D. 

      The wavelength of the light is too short

  • 38. 
    Max Planck proposed that a hot object radiated energy in small, specific amounts called
    • A. 

      Quanta

    • B. 

      Waves

    • C. 

      Hertz

    • D. 

      Electrons

  • 39. 
    The energy of a photon is related to its
    • A. 

      Mass

    • B. 

      Speed

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Size

  • 40. 
    The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the
    • A. 

      Interference effect

    • B. 

      Photoelectric effect

    • C. 

      Quantum effect

    • D. 

      Dual effect

  • 41. 
    For an electron in an atom to change from the grround state to an excited state,
    • A. 

      Energy must be released

    • B. 

      Energy must be absorbed

    • C. 

      Radiation must be emitted

    • D. 

      The electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.

  • 42. 
    According to the Bohr model of the atom, the single electron of a hydrogen atom circles the nucleus
    • A. 

      In specific allowed orbits

    • B. 

      In one fixed orbit at all times

    • C. 

      At any of an infinite number of distances depending on its energy

    • D. 

      Counterclockwise

  • 43. 
    The change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always requires
    • A. 

      Absorption of energy

    • B. 

      Emission of electromagnetic radiation

    • C. 

      Release of visible light

    • D. 

      An increase in electron energy

  • 44. 
    The equation E= hv helped Louis de Broglie determine
    • A. 

      How protons and neutrons behave in the nucleus

    • B. 

      How electron wave frequencies correspond to specific energies

    • C. 

      Whether electrons behave as particles

    • D. 

      Whether electrons exist in a limited number of orbits with different energies

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      The Bohr model

    • B. 

      The de Broglie model

    • C. 

      Rutherford's model

    • D. 

      Planck's theory

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      The Bohr model

    • B. 

      The quantum model

    • C. 

      Rutherford's model

    • D. 

      Planck's theory

  • 47. 
    The size and shape of an electron cloud are most closely related to the electron's
    • A. 

      Charge

    • B. 

      Mass

    • C. 

      Spin

    • D. 

      Energy

  • 48. 
    All of the following describe the Heisenberg uncertainty principle except
    • A. 

      It states that it is impossible to determine simultaneously both the position and velocity of an electron or any other particle

    • B. 

      It is one of the fundamental principles of our present understanding of light and matter

    • C. 

      It helped lay the foundation for the modern quantum theory

    • D. 

      It helps to locate an electron in an atom

  • 49. 
    All of the following describe the Schrodinger wave equation except
    • A. 

      It is an equation that treats electrons in atoms as waves

    • B. 

      Only waves of specific energies and frequencies provide solutions to the equation

    • C. 

      It helped lay foundation for the modern quantum theory

    • D. 

      It is similar to Bohr's theory

  • 50. 
    The quantum number that indicates the position of an orbital about the three axes in space is the
    • A. 

      Principal quantum number

    • B. 

      Angular momentum quantum number

    • C. 

      Magnetic quantum number

    • D. 

      Spin quantum number

  • 51. 
    The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital is
    • A. 

      Hund's rule

    • B. 

      The Aufbau principle

    • C. 

      Bohr's law

    • D. 

      The Pauli exclusion principle

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Hund's rule

    • B. 

      The Pauli exclusion principle

    • C. 

      The Aufbau principle

    • D. 

      The quantum rule

  • 53. 
    Two electrons in the 1s orbital must have different spin quantum numbers to satisfy
    • A. 

      Quantum rule

    • B. 

      The magnetic rule

    • C. 

      The Pauli exclusion principle

    • D. 

      The Aufbau principle

  • 54. 
    The Aufbau principle states that an electron
    • A. 

      Can have only one spin number

    • B. 

      Occupies the lowest available energy level

    • C. 

      Must be paired with another electron

    • D. 

      Must enter an s orbital

  • 55. 
    Mendeleev noticed that properties of elements usually repeated at regular intervals when the elements were arranged in order of increasing
    • A. 

      Atomic number

    • B. 

      Density

    • C. 

      Reactivity

    • D. 

      Atomic mass

  • 56. 
    Moseley's work led to the realization that elements with simiar properties occurred at regular intervals when the elements were arranged in order of increasing
    • A. 

      Atomic mass

    • B. 

      Density

    • C. 

      Radioactivity

    • D. 

      Atomic number

  • 57. 
    If n stands for the highest occupied energy level, the outer configuration for all Group 1 elements is
    • A. 

      Ns^1

    • B. 

      2n

    • C. 

      N-s

    • D. 

      Np^1

  • 58. 
    In nature, the alkali metals occur as
    • A. 

      Elements

    • B. 

      Compounds

    • C. 

      Complex ions

    • D. 

      Gases

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      A + e- + energy --> A-

    • B. 

      A + e- --> A- - energy

    • C. 

      A + e- --> A- + energy

    • D. 

      A- + energy --> A + e-

  • 60. 
    The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
    • A. 

      Electron affinity

    • B. 

      Electron energy

    • C. 

      Electronegativity

    • D. 

      Ionization energy

  • 61. 
    A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons from another atom in the compound is called
    • A. 

      Electron affinity

    • B. 

      Electron configuration

    • C. 

      Electronegativity

    • D. 

      Ionization potential

  • 62. 
    When an eelectron is acquired by a neutral atom, the energy change is called
    • A. 

      Electron affinity

    • B. 

      Electronegativity

    • C. 

      Ionization energy

    • D. 

      Electron configuration

  • 63. 
    In a row in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius generally
    • A. 

      Decreases

    • B. 

      Remains constant

    • C. 

      Increases

    • D. 

      Becomes immeasurable

  • 64. 
    Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Remains approximately constant

    • C. 

      Decreases regularly

    • D. 

      Varies unpredictably

  • 65. 
    Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
    • A. 

      Gradually decrease

    • B. 

      Gradually decrease, then sharply increase

    • C. 

      Gradually increase

    • D. 

      Gradually increase, then sharply decrease

  • 66. 
    The ionization energies for removing successive electrons from sodium are 496 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol, 6912 kJ/mol, and 9544 kJ/mol. The great jump in ionization energy after the first electron is removed indicates that
    • A. 

      Sodium has four or five electrons

    • B. 

      The atomic radius has increased

    • C. 

      A d electron has been removed

    • D. 

      The noble gas configuration has been reached

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      The nuclear charge increases

    • B. 

      The number of neutrons increases

    • C. 

      The number of occupied energy levels increases

    • D. 

      A new octet forms

  • 68. 
    For each successive electron removed from an atom, the ionization energy
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Remains the same

    • D. 

      Shows no pattern

  • 69. 
    Across a period, ionization energies of d-block elements generally
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Decrease

    • C. 

      Remain constant

    • D. 

      Drop to zero

  • 70. 
    A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms together is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Dipole

    • B. 

      Lewis structure

    • C. 

      Chemical bond

    • D. 

      London force

  • 71. 
    The eletronastic attraction between positively charged nuclei and negatively charged electrons permits two atoms to be held together by a(n)
    • A. 

      Chemical bond

    • B. 

      London force

    • C. 

      Neutron

    • D. 

      Ion

  • 72. 
    As independent particles, most atoms are
    • A. 

      At relatively high potential energy

    • B. 

      At relatively low potential energy

    • C. 

      Very stable

    • D. 

      Part of a chemical bond

  • 73. 
    Atoms naturally move
    • A. 

      Toward high potential energy

    • B. 

      Toward low potential energy

    • C. 

      Toward less stability

    • D. 

      Away from each other

  • 74. 
    If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is
    • A. 

      Non-polar covalent

    • B. 

      Polar covalent

    • C. 

      Dipole covalent

    • D. 

      Coordinate covalent

  • 75. 
    When atoms share electrons, the eletrical attraction of an atom for the shared electrons is called the atom's
    • A. 

      Electron affinity

    • B. 

      Electronegativity

    • C. 

      Resonance

    • D. 

      Hybridization

  • 76. 
    If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
    • A. 

      Non-polar

    • B. 

      Polar

    • C. 

      Ionic

    • D. 

      Dipolar

  • 77. 
    The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the greater the percentage of _______ in
    • A. 

      Ionic character

    • B. 

      Covalent character

    • C. 

      Metallic character

    • D. 

      Electron sharing

  • 78. 
    A bond that is less than 5% ionic is considered
    • A. 

      Polar covalent

    • B. 

      Ionic

    • C. 

      Non-polar covalent

    • D. 

      Metallic

  • 79. 
    The B-F bond in BFv3 (electronegtivity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is 
    • A. 

      Polar covalent

    • B. 

      Ionic

    • C. 

      Non-polar covalent

    • D. 

      Metallic

  • 80. 
    The percentage ionic character and the type of bondin Brv2 (electronegativity for Br is 2.8) is
    • A. 

      0% non-polar

    • B. 

      100% polar covalent

    • C. 

      0% pure ionic

    • D. 

      100% pure ionic

  • 81. 
    A neutral group of atoms held together by covalent bonds is a
    • A. 

      Molecular formula

    • B. 

      Chemical formula

    • C. 

      Polyatomic ion

    • D. 

      Molecule

  • 82. 
    When a stable covalent bond forms, the potential energy of the atoms
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

    • C. 

      Remains constant

    • D. 

      Becomes zero

  • 83. 
    Bond length is the average distance between two bonded atoms
    • A. 

      At which potential energy is at a minimum

    • B. 

      At which kinetic energy is at a maximum

    • C. 

      At which potential energy is at a maximum

    • D. 

      And equal to one-half the diameter of the electron cloud

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      -1

    • B. 

      0

    • C. 

      +1

    • D. 

      +2

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      +1

    • C. 

      +2

    • D. 

      +3

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      +1

    • C. 

      +2

    • D. 

      +4

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      -2

    • B. 

      0

    • C. 

      +4

    • D. 

      +6

  • 88. 
    The molar mass of an element is the mass of one
    • A. 

      Atom of the element

    • B. 

      Crystal of the element

    • C. 

      Gram of the element

    • D. 

      Mole of the element

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Molecular mass

    • B. 

      Formula mass

    • C. 

      Atomic mass

    • D. 

      Actual mass

  • 90. 
    The molar mass of H2O is 18.02 g/mol. How many grams of H2O are present in 0.20 mol?
    • A. 

      0.2 g

    • B. 

      3.6 g

    • C. 

      35.9 g

    • D. 

      89.9 g

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      24.0 g

    • B. 

      43.2 g

    • C. 

      180.16 g

    • D. 

      750. g

  • 92. 
    The empirical formula for a compound shows the symbols of the elements with subscripts indicating the
    • A. 

      Actual numbers of atoms in a molecule

    • B. 

      Number of moles of the compound in 100 g

    • C. 

      Smallest whole-number ratio of the atoms

    • D. 

      Atomic masses of each element

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      P3O7

    • B. 

      PO3

    • C. 

      P2O3

    • D. 

      P2O5

  • 94. 
    To find the molecular formula from the empirical formula, one must determine the compound's
    • A. 

      Density

    • B. 

      Formula mass

    • C. 

      Structural formula

    • D. 

      Crystal lattice

  • 95. 
    A compound's empirical formula is CH. If the formula mass is 26 amu, what is the molcular formula?
    • A. 

      C2H2

    • B. 

      CH3

    • C. 

      CH4

    • D. 

      C4H

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      CHCl

    • B. 

      CH2Cl

    • C. 

      CH3Cl

    • D. 

      CH2Cl2

  • 97. 
    In a chemical reaction
    • A. 

      The mass of the reactants equals the mass of the products

    • B. 

      The mass of the products is greater than the mass of reactants

    • C. 

      The number of atoms in the reactants and products must change

    • D. 

      Energy as heat must be added to the reactants

  • 98. 
    The equation AX ---> A + X is the general equation for a
    • A. 

      Synthesis reaction

    • B. 

      Decomposition reaction

    • C. 

      Single-displacement reaction

    • D. 

      Double-displacement reaction

  • 99. 
    The equation AX + BY ---> AY + BX is the general equation for a
    • A. 

      Synthesis reaction

    • B. 

      Decomposition reaction

    • C. 

      Single-displacement reaction

    • D. 

      Double-displacement reaction

  • 100. 
    The equation A + X --> AX is the general equation for a
    • A. 

      Combustion reaction

    • B. 

      Ionic reaction

    • C. 

      Synthesis reaction

    • D. 

      Double-displacement reaction

  • 101. 
    The equation A + BX --> AX + B
    • A. 

      Double-displacement reaction

    • B. 

      Decomposition reaction

    • C. 

      Single-displacement reaction

    • D. 

      Combustion reaction

  • 102. 
    When a bianary compound decomposes, what is produced?
    • A. 

      An oxide

    • B. 

      An acid

    • C. 

      A tertiary compound

    • D. 

      Two elements

  • 103. 
    When a bianary compound decomposes, what is produced?
    • A. 

      An oxide

    • B. 

      An acid

    • C. 

      A tertiary compound

    • D. 

      Two elements

  • 104. 
    Many metal hydroxides decompose when heated to yield metal oxides and
    • A. 

      Metal hydrides

    • B. 

      Water

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • D. 

      An acid

  • 105. 
    When a metal chlorate is heated, it decomposes to yield a metal chloride and
    • A. 

      A metal oxide

    • B. 

      A metal hydroxide

    • C. 

      Hydrogen

    • D. 

      Oxygen

  • 106. 
    When a slightly soluble solid compound is produced in a double-replacement reaction, a
    • A. 

      Gas bubbles off

    • B. 

      Precipitate is formed

    • C. 

      Combustion reaction takes place

    • D. 

      Halogen is produced

  • 107. 
    An insoluble gas that forms in a double-replacmeent reaction in aqueous solution
    • A. 

      Bubbles out of solution

    • B. 

      Forms a precipitate

    • C. 

      Disassociates into ions

    • D. 

      Reacts with the water

  • 108. 
    Active metals react with certain acids, such as hydrochloric acid, to yield a metal compound and
    • A. 

      Oxygen

    • B. 

      Hydrogen

    • C. 

      Chlorine

    • D. 

      Sodium

  • 109. 
    If chlorine gas is produced by halogen replacement, the other halogen in the reaction must be
    • A. 

      Bromine

    • B. 

      Iodine

    • C. 

      Astatine

    • D. 

      Fluorine

  • 110. 
    • A. 

      Al + Cu2S --> Al2S + Cu

    • B. 

      2Al + 3CuSO4 --> Al2(So4)3 + 3Cu

    • C. 

      Al + CuSO4 --> AlSo4 + Cu

    • D. 

      2Al + Cu2SO4 --> Al2SO4 + 2Cu

  • 111. 
    If a certain metal is placed in an ionic solution containing another metal and no reaction occurs, then the metal originally in the solution is
    • A. 

      A halogen

    • B. 

      Higher on the activity series

    • C. 

      Not on the activity series

    • D. 

      Nonreactive

  • 112. 
    Predict what happens when zinc is added to water
    • A. 

      No reaction occurs

    • B. 

      Steam is produced

    • C. 

      Zinc oxide forms

    • D. 

      Hydrogen is released

  • 113. 
    Predict what happens when lead is added to nitric acid
    • A. 

      No reaction occurs

    • B. 

      Oxygen is released

    • C. 

      Lead oxide forms

    • D. 

      Hydrogen is released

  • 114. 
    According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles of matter
    • A. 

      Are in constant motion

    • B. 

      Have different shapes

    • C. 

      Have different colors

    • D. 

      Are always fluid

  • 115. 
    According to the kinetic-molecular theory, gases condense into liquids because of
    • A. 

      Gravity

    • B. 

      Atmospheric pressure

    • C. 

      Forces between molecules

    • D. 

      Elastic collisions

  • 116. 
    The kinetic-molecular theiry explains the behavior of
    • A. 

      Gases only

    • B. 

      Solids and liquids only

    • C. 

      Liquids and gases only

    • D. 

      Solids, liquids, and gases