High Pressure Boiler Quiz Questions And Answers

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High Pressure Boiler Quiz Questions And Answers - Quiz

Are you ready for these high-pressure boiler quiz questions and answers? Play this quiz, then. Many different industries use high-pressure boilers for central heating systems and many other applications. The water in boilers is used to produce steam which generates energy for other processes. High-pressure boilers require specialized care to operate. Do you think you have what it takes to operate them and understand their use? Take up this test to find out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The steam space of a boiler must be large enough to?

    • A.

      Accommodate all the steam riser tubes

    • B.

      Separate the water from the steam

    • C.

      Accommodate a steam separator

    • D.

      Keep the steam pressure down

    Correct Answer
    B. Separate the water from the steam
    Explanation
    The steam space of a boiler must be large enough to separate the water from the steam. This is important because as water is heated and converted into steam, any remaining water droplets must be separated from the steam to ensure that only dry steam is delivered to the intended destination. If water is not properly separated, it can cause damage to equipment or reduce the efficiency of the system. Therefore, a sufficient steam space is necessary to allow for effective separation of water from steam.

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  • 2. 

    All parts of the boiler exposed to fire or flue gases must be covered by?

    • A.

      Blanket insulation

    • B.

      Metal cladding

    • C.

      Refractory

    • D.

      Water

    Correct Answer
    D. Water
    Explanation
    The correct answer is water because water is used as a cooling medium in boilers to absorb heat from the fire or flue gases. It helps in preventing overheating of the boiler components and maintains their temperature within safe limits. Water also helps in transferring heat from the boiler to the steam, which is then used for various purposes. Therefore, all parts of the boiler exposed to fire or flue gases must be covered by water to ensure efficient and safe operation.

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  • 3. 

    A steam boiler should be compact in design in order to:

    • A.

      Allow a larger steam generating capacity

    • B.

      Reduce the size of the feedwater supply line

    • C.

      Reduce the size of the stack

    • D.

      Reduce building costs

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduce building costs
    Explanation
    A compact design of a steam boiler would help reduce building costs because it would require less space for installation. By reducing the overall size of the boiler, less material and labor would be needed for construction, resulting in lower building costs. Additionally, a smaller boiler would require less space for ventilation and maintenance, further contributing to cost savings.

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  • 4. 

    Power boilers usually require ______ blowdown valves.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    Power boilers usually require 2 blowdown valves.

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  • 5. 

    High-pressure boilers operate at pressures above:

    • A.

      145.03 PSI

    • B.

      72.51 PSI

    • C.

      362.5 PSI

    • D.

      14.69 PSI

    Correct Answer
    D. 14.69 PSI
    Explanation
    High-pressure boilers operate at pressures above 14.69 PSI. This means that the pressure inside the boiler is higher than 14.69 pounds per square inch. The other options listed, 145.03 PSI, 72.51 PSI, and 362.5 PSI, are all higher pressures and therefore not correct. The correct answer indicates the specific pressure threshold that qualifies a boiler as high-pressure.

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  • 6. 

    What is a major disadvantage of a firebox boiler?

    • A.

      The first cost is relatively high

    • B.

      Cleaning and inspection can be difficult

    • C.

      It is not very compact

    • D.

      It has a low heat transfer efficiency

    Correct Answer
    B. Cleaning and inspection can be difficult
    Explanation
    A major disadvantage of a firebox boiler is that cleaning and inspection can be difficult. This means that maintaining and ensuring the proper functioning of the boiler can be a challenging task. The design of the firebox boiler may make it harder to access and clean certain areas, leading to potential issues with efficiency and performance. Regular cleaning and inspection are crucial to prevent build-up of debris and ensure safe operation, so the difficulty in performing these tasks can be a significant drawback of this type of boiler.

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  • 7. 

    For what use was the wetback scotch back boiler primarily designed for?

    • A.

      Very high capacity electric generation

    • B.

      Marine service

    • C.

      Building heating service

    • D.

      Railway service

    Correct Answer
    B. Marine service
    Explanation
    The wetback scotch back boiler was primarily designed for marine service. This means that it was specifically intended to be used in ships and other vessels for heating purposes. Marine service boilers are designed to withstand the unique challenges and conditions of being on a ship, such as the constant movement, limited space, and the need for efficient heating. Therefore, the wetback scotch back boiler would be suitable for providing heating in marine environments.

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  • 8. 

    What type of boiler is built and ready for installation?

    • A.

      Locomotive boiler

    • B.

      Scotch marine boiler

    • C.

      HRT BOILER

    • D.

      Packaged boiler

    Correct Answer
    D. Packaged boiler
    Explanation
    A packaged boiler is a type of boiler that is built and ready for installation. It is a self-contained unit that includes all the necessary components such as the boiler, burner, controls, and accessories. The packaged boiler is designed to be easily transported and installed at the desired location. This type of boiler is commonly used in industrial and commercial settings where quick and efficient installation is required.

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  • 9. 

    Hot water supply boilers are not considered to be heating boilers unless the operating temperature exceeds:

    • A.

      122 deg f

    • B.

      392 deg f

    • C.

      347 deg f

    • D.

      200 deg f

    Correct Answer
    D. 200 deg f
    Explanation
    Hot water supply boilers are not considered to be heating boilers unless the operating temperature exceeds 200°F. This means that hot water supply boilers are typically used for providing hot water for domestic use, such as showers and faucets, rather than for heating purposes. If the operating temperature exceeds 200°F, it indicates that the boiler is being used to provide heat for a building or space.

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  • 10. 

    What is increased to augment the heat transfer capability in a fire tube boiler?

    • A.

      Diameter of tubes

    • B.

      Number of tube passes

    • C.

      Thinner-walled tubes

    • D.

      Boiler feed water temp.

    Correct Answer
    B. Number of tube passes
    Explanation
    Increasing the number of tube passes in a fire tube boiler enhances the heat transfer capability. This is because each pass allows the flue gases to pass over the tubes multiple times, increasing the contact time and improving heat transfer efficiency. With more tube passes, there is a larger surface area available for heat exchange, resulting in better heat transfer from the flue gases to the water. Therefore, increasing the number of tube passes is a viable method to augment the heat transfer capability in a fire tube boiler.

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  • 11. 

    High-pressure water tubes:

    • A.

      Are always smaller than firetubes

    • B.

      Can be of various straight or bent configurations

    • C.

      Are always straight

    • D.

      Require pumps for circulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Can be of various straight or bent configurations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "can be of various straight or bent configurations." This means that high-pressure water tubes can have different shapes, either straight or bent. This flexibility allows for customization and adaptation to different system requirements.

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  • 12. 

    The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached radially on the outside of the what?

    • A.

      Firebox

    • B.

      Economizer

    • C.

      Air preheater

    • D.

      Drum

    Correct Answer
    D. Drum
    Explanation
    The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached radially on the outside of the drum. This design offers several advantages. Firstly, it allows for a larger heating surface area, which increases the boiler's efficiency. Additionally, the bent tubes help to enhance heat transfer by creating turbulence within the flue gases. This design also allows for better circulation of water within the boiler, promoting more effective heat transfer. Overall, attaching the tubes radially on the outside of the drum in a bent tube boiler design optimizes the boiler's performance.

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  • 13. 

    Since furnace pressure is often positive in a positive in a packaged water tube boiler, to prevent flue gas leakage:

    • A.

      An induced draft fan is incorporated

    • B.

      An economizer is used

    • C.

      Smokestacks are made taller

    • D.

      A steel casing forms a seal for the furnace

    Correct Answer
    D. A steel casing forms a seal for the furnace
    Explanation
    In a positive pressure furnace, there is a risk of flue gas leakage. To prevent this, a steel casing is used to form a seal for the furnace. This casing ensures that the flue gases are contained within the furnace and do not leak out. It helps maintain the pressure inside the furnace and prevents any potential hazards or inefficiencies that could arise from flue gas leakage.

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  • 14. 

    A problem with a D-type water tube packaged boiler is?

    • A.

      Ceiling height requirements

    • B.

      Excessive vibration

    • C.

      Refractory maintenance for the external furnace

    • D.

      Poor water circulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Excessive vibration
    Explanation
    Excessive vibration in a D-type water tube packaged boiler can be a problem. This can lead to various issues such as damage to the boiler components, increased wear and tear, and potential safety hazards. Excessive vibration can be caused by factors such as improper installation, unbalanced loads, or mechanical issues within the boiler. It is important to address this problem to ensure the smooth and efficient operation of the boiler.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not an advantage for the low-pressure water tube and tubular type boilers?

    • A.

      The very short warm-up period required

    • B.

      Bent or coil tube design avoids thermal stress

    • C.

      Rapid response to fluctuating loads

    • D.

      Lower initial costs

    Correct Answer
    D. Lower initial costs
    Explanation
    The given answer states that "lower initial costs" is not an advantage for low-pressure water tube and tubular type boilers. This implies that these types of boilers do not have the benefit of lower initial costs compared to other types of boilers.

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  • 16. 

    The main disadvantage of an electric boiler is that:

    • A.

      They are not very compact

    • B.

      Vibrator requires special footings

    • C.

      Input energy cost is high

    • D.

      Energy transfer efficiency is low

    Correct Answer
    C. Input energy cost is high
    Explanation
    The main disadvantage of an electric boiler is that the input energy cost is high. This means that it can be expensive to operate and maintain an electric boiler compared to other types of boilers. The high cost of energy input can make it less economical and less attractive for some users, especially for those who are looking for more cost-effective heating options.

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  • 17. 

    The operating voltage for an electrode-type boiler can be as high as _____ volts.

    • A.

      25,000

    • B.

      16,000

    • C.

      1000

    • D.

      50,000

    Correct Answer
    B. 16,000
    Explanation
    The operating voltage for an electrode-type boiler can be as high as 16,000 volts.

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  • 18. 

    The amount of steam produced by an electrode-type boiler depends on the?

    • A.

      The voltage supplied to the elements

    • B.

      Level of water in the basket

    • C.

      Number of heating elements engaged

    • D.

      Number of baffles

    Correct Answer
    B. Level of water in the basket
    Explanation
    The level of water in the basket affects the amount of steam produced by an electrode-type boiler. This is because the heating elements in the boiler are submerged in water, and the level of water determines the amount of surface area in contact with the elements. More water in the basket means more surface area for heat transfer, resulting in a higher production of steam.

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  • 19. 

    A ______ is not required on an electrode-type electric boiler.

    • A.

      Thermostat

    • B.

      Water pump

    • C.

      Basket

    • D.

      Low water cutoff

    Correct Answer
    D. Low water cutoff
    Explanation
    A low water cutoff is not required on an electrode-type electric boiler because this type of boiler does not rely on water levels to regulate its operation. Instead, it uses electrodes to heat the water directly, eliminating the need for a low water cutoff device that would shut off the boiler if the water level drops too low.

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  • 20. 

    An immersion electric boiler capacity can be as high as:

    • A.

      1300 hp

    • B.

      1700 hp

    • C.

      6700 hp

    • D.

      2700 hp

    Correct Answer
    D. 2700 hp
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2700 hp. An immersion electric boiler is a type of boiler that uses electric heating elements to heat water or generate steam. The capacity of an immersion electric boiler refers to the maximum power output it can provide, which is measured in horsepower (hp). A higher horsepower indicates a greater capacity to generate heat or steam. Therefore, the immersion electric boiler with a capacity of 2700 hp can provide the highest power output among the options given.

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  • 21. 

    Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by turning on and off the:

    • A.

      Feedwater pump

    • B.

      Fuel supply

    • C.

      Number of heating elements

    • D.

      Power supply

    Correct Answer
    C. Number of heating elements
    Explanation
    The control of the immersion heater boiler is done by turning on and off the number of heating elements. By controlling the number of heating elements that are active, the boiler can regulate the amount of heat being generated. This allows for precise control over the temperature of the water in the boiler. By turning on more heating elements, the water can be heated more quickly, while turning off some elements can reduce the heating rate. This control mechanism ensures that the boiler operates efficiently and maintains the desired water temperature.

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  • 22. 

    The reason for the use of steam is to allow the maximum quantity of heat to be put into well with the _______quantity of injected fluid.

    • A.

      Minimum

    • B.

      Maximum

    • C.

      Most

    • D.

      Super

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum
    Explanation
    Steam is used in this context because it allows the minimum quantity of injected fluid to carry the maximum amount of heat. By using steam, which has a high heat capacity, a smaller amount of fluid can be injected while still transferring a significant amount of heat. This is beneficial in terms of efficiency and cost-effectiveness, as it minimizes the amount of fluid required while maximizing the heat transfer.

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  • 23. 

    Combustion air is fed at three elevations of the furnace primary secondary and __________

    • A.

      Upper

    • B.

      Lower

    • C.

      Tertiary

    • D.

      After

    Correct Answer
    C. Tertiary
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "tertiary". In a furnace, combustion air is fed at three elevations: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The primary air is supplied at the bottom of the furnace to support the initial combustion process. The secondary air is introduced above the primary air to ensure complete combustion. Lastly, the tertiary air is fed at the top of the furnace to help with the burnout of any remaining combustible gases and particles.

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  • 24. 

    If the black liquior is too __________ it could result in an explosion.

    • A.

      Strong

    • B.

      Thin

    • C.

      Weak

    • D.

      Thick

    Correct Answer
    C. Weak
    Explanation
    If the black liquor, which is a byproduct of the paper-making process, is too weak, it means that it has a low concentration of chemicals and solids. This can lead to a buildup of gases, such as methane, which are highly flammable. If ignited, these gases can cause an explosion. Therefore, a weak black liquor is potentially dangerous in terms of explosion risk.

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  • 25. 

    The vibration also serves to aid combustion by _________ out the bed fo burning biomass.

    • A.

      Shacking

    • B.

      Leveling

    • C.

      Turning

    • D.

      Moving

    Correct Answer
    B. Leveling
    Explanation
    The vibration in this context helps with leveling out the bed of burning biomass. By shaking or vibrating the biomass, it helps to distribute it evenly and ensure that it is level. This is important for efficient combustion, as an uneven bed can lead to uneven burning and reduced combustion efficiency.

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  • 26. 

    Convectors use ______ to increase heat transfer?

    • A.

      Metal fins

    • B.

      A fan

    • C.

      Larger surfaces

    • D.

      Glycol-mixed water

    Correct Answer
    A. Metal fins
    Explanation
    Convectors use metal fins to increase heat transfer. Metal fins are attached to the surface of the convector, which increases the surface area available for heat exchange. This allows for more efficient transfer of heat from the convector to the surrounding air. The metal fins help to distribute the heat evenly and quickly, improving the overall effectiveness of the convector in heating a space.

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  • 27. 

    When are is forced through a heating coil, where the fan and coil are within the same unit, the unit is known as?

    • A.

      A unit heater

    • B.

      And injector

    • C.

      A diverter

    • D.

      A convertor

    Correct Answer
    A. A unit heater
    Explanation
    A unit heater is a device that consists of a heating coil and a fan within the same unit. When air is forced through the heating coil, it gets heated and then distributed into the surrounding space by the fan. This type of unit is commonly used for heating large areas such as warehouses, garages, or industrial buildings. It is an efficient and effective way to provide heat in a controlled manner.

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  • 28. 

    A radiator trap is a device used to?

    • A.

      Allow only air to leave the rediator

    • B.

      Vent steam from the radiator

    • C.

      Depressurize the radiator

    • D.

      Allow only water to leave the radiator

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow only water to leave the radiator
    Explanation
    A radiator trap is a device used to allow only water to leave the radiator. This means that it prevents any air, steam, or other substances from escaping the radiator, ensuring that only water is released. This is important because water is the desired substance to be removed from the radiator in order to regulate its temperature and prevent overheating. By allowing only water to leave, the radiator trap helps maintain the efficiency and functionality of the radiator.

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  • 29. 

    The exhauster on an air separation tank consists of a series of _________ through which water is forced by a pump.

    • A.

      Rings

    • B.

      Nozzles

    • C.

      Venturi tubes

    • D.

      Valves

    Correct Answer
    B. Nozzles
    Explanation
    The exhauster on an air separation tank consists of a series of nozzles through which water is forced by a pump. Nozzles are typically used in exhausters to create a high-velocity jet of water, which helps to create suction and effectively remove air or gases from the tank. The forceful flow of water through the nozzles creates a vacuum effect, allowing for efficient separation of air from the tank.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following pieces of equipment is not a source of heat?

    • A.

      Air vent

    • B.

      Convector

    • C.

      Unit ventilator

    • D.

      Radiator

    Correct Answer
    A. Air vent
    Explanation
    An air vent is not a source of heat because its primary function is to allow air to flow in and out of a space for ventilation purposes. Unlike a convector, unit ventilator, or radiator, an air vent does not produce or distribute heat. Instead, it allows for the circulation of air to maintain proper air quality and temperature control in a room or building.

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  • 31. 

    In a gravity return system, the boiler should be placed?

    • A.

      Well above the highest radiator

    • B.

      Well below the lowest radiator

    • C.

      On an elevatd platform

    • D.

      At the same level as the radiators

    Correct Answer
    B. Well below the lowest radiator
    Explanation
    In a gravity return system, the boiler should be placed well below the lowest radiator. This is because in a gravity return system, the heated water naturally rises to the radiators and then cools down and falls back to the boiler through gravity. By placing the boiler below the lowest radiator, it ensures that the cooled water can easily flow back to the boiler without any obstructions or resistance. Placing the boiler above the radiators would create a challenge for the cooled water to flow back, as it would need to overcome gravity.

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  • 32. 

    A pressure balancing device that prevents the boiler pressure from forcing the water in the boiler into the return line is called a?

    • A.

      Pressure equalizer

    • B.

      Bleed valve

    • C.

      Hartford loop

    • D.

      Pressure control valve

    Correct Answer
    C. Hartford loop
    Explanation
    A Hartford loop is a pressure balancing device that is used to prevent the boiler pressure from forcing the water in the boiler into the return line. It is a piping arrangement that creates a loop in the piping system, which allows for the accumulation and release of steam and condensate. This loop helps to prevent water hammer and ensures that the pressure in the boiler remains balanced, preventing any damage to the system. Therefore, the correct answer is the Hartford loop.

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  • 33. 

    If the water level falls to low during the operation of a steam heating boiler the operator should?

    • A.

      Lower the flame and add water to bering it up to a safe level

    • B.

      Add more water immediately

    • C.

      Operate a safety valve

    • D.

      Shut the boiler down

    Correct Answer
    D. Shut the boiler down
    Explanation
    If the water level falls too low during the operation of a steam heating boiler, it is crucial to shut the boiler down. This is because a low water level can lead to overheating and potentially cause damage to the boiler. By shutting it down, the operator can prevent any further issues and ensure the safety of the boiler.

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  • 34. 

    Steam in a two-pipe vacuum return system is supplied at a maximum pressure of?

    • A.

      10 psi

    • B.

      7 psi

    • C.

      50 psi

    • D.

      15 psi

    Correct Answer
    D. 15 psi
    Explanation
    In a two-pipe vacuum return system, steam is supplied at a maximum pressure of 15 psi. This pressure is necessary to ensure proper functioning and efficiency of the system. It allows for the steam to flow through the pipes and reach the desired locations, such as radiators or other heating elements, effectively. A lower pressure may not provide enough force to push the steam through the system, while a higher pressure could cause damage or leaks in the pipes. Therefore, 15 psi is the appropriate maximum pressure for this type of system.

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  • 35. 

    A vacuum pump maintains a vacuum _______ psi higher in the condensate return system.

    • A.

      0.43 to 0.72

    • B.

      1.01 to 1.45

    • C.

      1.74 to 2.32

    • D.

      2.9 to 3.62

    Correct Answer
    B. 1.01 to 1.45
    Explanation
    A vacuum pump maintains a vacuum pressure that is 1.01 to 1.45 psi higher in the condensate return system.

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  • 36. 

    Causes of insufficient steam supply to the heating units can be attributed to?

    • A.

      Improper pitch

    • B.

      Defective radiator valve

    • C.

      Clogging of connections and valve

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because insufficient steam supply to the heating units can be caused by improper pitch, which refers to the incorrect slope of the pipes that prevents proper steam flow. It can also be caused by defective radiator valves that fail to regulate the steam flow effectively. Additionally, clogging of connections and valves can restrict the steam flow, leading to insufficient supply. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to insufficient steam supply to the heating units.

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  • 37. 

    The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree Fahrenheit without changing its state without changing its state of the substance is defined as?

    • A.

      Sensible heat

    • B.

      Specific heat

    • C.

      Super heat

    • D.

      Saturated

    Correct Answer
    B. Specific heat
    Explanation
    Specific heat is the correct answer because it refers to the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by one degree Fahrenheit without changing its state. It is a characteristic property of a substance and helps in determining how much heat energy is needed to change the temperature of a given amount of the substance. Sensible heat refers to the heat energy that causes a change in temperature, while superheat and saturated are terms used in thermodynamics to describe the state of a substance.

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  • 38. 

    _______ heat causes a change in the temp. of a substance without changing its state.

    • A.

      Saturated

    • B.

      Superheat

    • C.

      Specific

    • D.

      Sensible

    Correct Answer
    D. Sensible
    Explanation
    Sensible heat refers to the heat that causes a change in the temperature of a substance without changing its state. This means that the substance remains in the same physical state (solid, liquid, or gas) but its temperature increases or decreases. In contrast, latent heat causes a change in the state of a substance, such as melting or boiling. Therefore, the term "sensible" accurately describes heat that affects the temperature of a substance without changing its state.

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  • 39. 

    The first law of thermodynamics states that heat and work are?

    • A.

      Incompatible

    • B.

      Inconvertible

    • C.

      Mutually comvertible

    • D.

      The same process

    Correct Answer
    C. Mutually comvertible
    Explanation
    The first law of thermodynamics states that heat and work are mutually convertible. This means that energy can be transferred between a system and its surroundings in the form of either heat or work. The law implies that the total energy of a closed system remains constant, and any change in energy is due to the transfer of heat or work. Heat can be converted into work, and vice versa, as long as the total energy remains conserved.

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  • 40. 

    The second law of thermodynamics states if is required to transfer heat from a cold substance to a hotter substance as in refrigeration then _______ must be supplied.

    • A.

      Pressure

    • B.

      External heat

    • C.

      External work

    • D.

      R134-A

    Correct Answer
    C. External work
    Explanation
    The second law of thermodynamics states that in order to transfer heat from a cold substance to a hotter substance, external work must be supplied. This means that energy needs to be expended in the form of work to overcome the natural flow of heat from a hotter region to a colder region. This work can be done by a compressor or a pump in a refrigeration system, for example, to create the necessary pressure difference and move the heat against its natural direction.

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  • 41. 

    A bimetal thermometer consists of:

    • A.

      A filament that is compared to the object being measured

    • B.

      Two dissimilar metals ridigly fixed together

    • C.

      Two dissimilar wires connected together

    • D.

      Two copper wires connected together

    Correct Answer
    C. Two dissimilar wires connected together
    Explanation
    A bimetal thermometer consists of two dissimilar wires connected together. This design allows for the measurement of temperature by utilizing the different expansion rates of the two metals. When the temperature changes, the two metals expand or contract at different rates, causing the bimetal strip to bend. This bending motion is then converted into a temperature reading on the thermometer scale. Therefore, the correct answer is two dissimilar wires connected together.

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  • 42. 

    To avoid condensation loss in steam?

    • A.

      Steam is heated to saturation temp.

    • B.

      Wet steam is used

    • C.

      Steam pressure is increased

    • D.

      Super heated steam is used

    Correct Answer
    D. Super heated steam is used
    Explanation
    Superheated steam is used to avoid condensation loss because it has a higher temperature than saturated steam. When steam is superheated, it does not contain any moisture and is in a gaseous state. This prevents any condensation from occurring, which can lead to loss of heat energy and reduced efficiency in steam systems. Therefore, using superheated steam helps to maintain the desired temperature and prevent any loss of heat during the transfer process.

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  • 43. 

    A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's post-accident recovery is his?

    • A.

      Pre accident saftey record

    • B.

      Attitude before and after the accident

    • C.

      The style off the job

    • D.

      Support recieved from the immediate family

    Correct Answer
    B. Attitude before and after the accident
    Explanation
    The worker's attitude before and after the accident can greatly influence their post-accident recovery. A positive attitude can contribute to a faster and more successful recovery, as it can lead to increased motivation, resilience, and willingness to participate in rehabilitation efforts. Conversely, a negative attitude may hinder recovery by causing the worker to become discouraged, unmotivated, or resistant to treatment. Therefore, the worker's attitude plays a crucial role in determining the outcome of their recovery process.

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  • 44. 

    During worker rehabilitation, the supervisor should?

    • A.

      Have as little contact as possible with injured worker

    • B.

      Not imform the worker of investigation process

    • C.

      Assist the worker seeking and obtaining support services

    • D.

      Let the worker know the investigators are finding fault

    Correct Answer
    C. Assist the worker seeking and obtaining support services
    Explanation
    The supervisor should assist the worker in seeking and obtaining support services during worker rehabilitation. This is important because support services can help the injured worker in their recovery process and provide necessary assistance and resources. By guiding the worker towards these services, the supervisor can contribute to their overall rehabilitation and ensure they receive the necessary support during this time.

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  • 45. 

    Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be borne by?

    • A.

      Management only

    • B.

      Employees only

    • C.

      Owners only

    • D.

      All persons in the workplace

    Correct Answer
    D. All persons in the workplace
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all persons in the workplace" because health and safety are a collective responsibility that should be shared by everyone in the workplace, including management, employees, and owners. It is not solely the responsibility of one group or individual. All individuals should actively contribute to creating a safe and healthy work environment by following safety protocols, reporting hazards, and taking necessary precautions to prevent accidents or injuries.

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  • 46. 

    The first step an employer should take to reduce the negative effects of workplace injuries is to?

    • A.

      Employ an on site nurse

    • B.

      Ensure supervisors know how to contact emergency assistance

    • C.

      Have an effective health and saftey program in place

    • D.

      Establish a number of trained first aid personnnel

    Correct Answer
    C. Have an effective health and saftey program in place
    Explanation
    Having an effective health and safety program in place is the first step an employer should take to reduce the negative effects of workplace injuries. This program ensures that proper safety protocols and measures are implemented to prevent accidents and injuries. It includes regular safety training for employees, hazard assessments, and the implementation of safety policies and procedures. By having a comprehensive health and safety program, employers can proactively address potential risks and create a safer work environment for their employees.

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  • 47. 

    The highest proportion of injuries are reported by employees in the age group of?

    • A.

      26 to 35 years

    • B.

      16 to 25 years

    • C.

      36 to 45 years

    • D.

      46 to 55 years

    Correct Answer
    B. 16 to 25 years
    Explanation
    Employees in the age group of 16 to 25 years have the highest proportion of injuries reported. This could be because younger employees may have less experience and may be more prone to accidents or injuries due to their lack of familiarity with workplace hazards and safety protocols. Additionally, this age group may also engage in more physically demanding tasks or be more prone to taking risks, which could contribute to a higher rate of injuries.

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  • 48. 

    When contractors are involved at the sited of an incident the contractor with the most control is called this?

    • A.

      Principle contractor

    • B.

      General contractor

    • C.

      Sub contractor

    • D.

      Building contractor

    Correct Answer
    A. Principle contractor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is principle contractor. In incidents where contractors are present, the principle contractor is the one who has the highest level of control and responsibility. They oversee and coordinate the work of other contractors on site, ensuring that safety measures are followed and the project is completed efficiently. This role involves managing the overall construction process and ensuring compliance with regulations and standards.

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  • 49. 

    Shatter-resistant glass or plastic applies to?

    • A.

      Face shields

    • B.

      Saftey glasses

    • C.

      Welding glasses

    • D.

      Welding helmet lenses

    Correct Answer
    B. Saftey glasses
    Explanation
    Shatter-resistant glass or plastic applies to safety glasses because safety glasses are designed to protect the eyes from potential hazards and injuries. Shatter-resistant materials ensure that the glasses do not break easily upon impact, reducing the risk of glass or plastic shards causing further harm to the wearer. This feature is particularly important in environments where there is a high risk of objects flying or falling, such as construction sites or manufacturing plants.

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Zohra Sattar |PhD, Chemistry |
Chemistry Expert
Dr. Zohra Sattar Waxali earned her doctorate in chemistry and biochemistry from Northwestern University, specializing in the metallomes of cardiac cells and stem cells, and their impact on biological function. Her research encompasses the development of arsenoplatin chemotherapeutics, stapled peptide estrogen receptor inhibitors, and antimicrobial natural products. With her expertise, Dr. Waxali ensures the accuracy and relevance of our chemistry quizzes, contributing to a comprehensive understanding of chemical principles and advancements in the field.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 02, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Zohra Sattar
  • Feb 15, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Deno70
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