Gtf E Learning May

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| Attempts: 100
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  • 1/36 Questions

    In GERD Esomeprazole

    • Reduces nighttime heartburn
    • Reflux eosphagitis
    • Lower Esophageal Sphincter disease
    • Both A & B
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About This Quiz


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Gtf E Learning May - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Esomeprazole is effective in

    • Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

    • Gastric Ulcer

    • Oesophageal Ulcer

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Esomeprazole is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). It works by reducing the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a condition where stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing symptoms such as hoarseness, coughing, and throat irritation. Gastric ulcer refers to a sore or lesion that forms in the lining of the stomach, while esophageal ulcer refers to a similar condition in the lining of the esophagus. Esomeprazole is effective in treating all of these conditions by reducing the production of stomach acid, providing relief from symptoms, and promoting healing of the ulcers.

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  • 3. 

    Dyspepsia is characterised by

    • Epigastric pain

    • Burning,Nausea

    • Stomach bloating

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Dyspepsia is a medical condition that is characterized by various symptoms, including epigastric pain, burning sensation, nausea, and stomach bloating. The statement "All the above" is the correct answer because it encompasses all the listed symptoms and accurately describes the characteristics of dyspepsia.

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  • 4. 

    Levosulpiride is

    • More effective than Metaclopramide

    • Antifibrotic activity

    • Regenerates partially damaged hepatocytes

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Levosulpiride is a medication that is more effective than Metoclopramide, as it has been found to have better results in treating certain conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease and functional dyspepsia. Additionally, Levosulpiride has antifibrotic activity, meaning it can help prevent or reduce the formation of fibrous tissue in organs. Lastly, Levosulpiride has the ability to regenerate partially damaged hepatocytes, which are liver cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that Levosulpiride possesses all of the mentioned properties.

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  • 5. 

    Functional dyspepsia is

    • Upset stomach or pain in the upper part

    • Alcoholic Cirrhosis

    • DASH

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Upset stomach or pain in the upper part
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Upset stomach or pain in the upper part." Functional dyspepsia refers to a condition characterized by chronic or recurrent pain or discomfort in the upper abdomen, often accompanied by symptoms like bloating, early satiety, and nausea. It is a common disorder that affects the digestive system and can cause significant discomfort and distress to individuals. Alcoholic cirrhosis and DASH are not related to functional dyspepsia.

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  • 6. 

    NASH is

    • Non Acoholic Fatty Liver Disease

    • Non Alcoholic Steatohepatitis

    • No hypotension

    • Safe in pregnancy

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Alcoholic Steatohepatitis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Non Alcoholic Steatohepatitis. Non Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease characterized by inflammation and liver cell damage. It is a more severe form of fatty liver disease and can progress to liver cirrhosis or liver cancer. Unlike Non Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD), which refers to the accumulation of fat in the liver without inflammation or liver cell damage, NASH involves inflammation and liver cell injury. It is important to differentiate between NAFLD and NASH as the latter requires more aggressive management and monitoring.

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  • 7. 

    Drotaverine is

    • Selective inhibitor of PDE 4

    • Inhibits smooth muscles

    • An effective anti emetic

    • UK MHRA recommended

    Correct Answer
    A. Selective inhibitor of PDE 4
    Explanation
    Drotaverine is a selective inhibitor of PDE 4. This means that it specifically targets and inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase 4, which is involved in the breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). By inhibiting PDE 4, drotaverine can increase the levels of cAMP, leading to relaxation of smooth muscles. This property makes drotaverine effective in treating conditions such as spasms and pain in the gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract, and other smooth muscle-related disorders. The fact that the UK MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency) has recommended drotaverine further supports its efficacy and safety.

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  • 8. 

    Aceclofenac in Dolowin Plus is

    • Metallo-proteinase inhibitor

    • Stimulates cartilage matrix synthesis

    • Phenylacetic aid derivative

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Aceclofenac in Dolowin Plus is a phenylacetic acid derivative that acts as a metallo-proteinase inhibitor and stimulates cartilage matrix synthesis.

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  • 9. 

    Silymarin is

    • Able to neutralise toxicity of Amanita,Ethanol, Paracetamol

    • A flavonolignan

    • Useful in Acute viral Hepatitis,injury caused by ischaemia, radiation, iron overload

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Silymarin is a flavonolignan that has the ability to neutralize the toxicity of Amanita, ethanol, and paracetamol. It is also useful in treating acute viral hepatitis and injuries caused by ischaemia, radiation, and iron overload. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."

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  • 10. 

    FBP is

    • Fluid Bed Processor

    • Flared BP

    • Flushing of Blood Process

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluid Bed Processor
    Explanation
    FBP stands for Fluid Bed Processor. This is a commonly used term in the pharmaceutical industry to refer to a type of equipment used for various processes such as drying, granulation, and coating of solid materials. The other options mentioned in the question, Flared BP and Flushing of Blood Process, are not relevant or commonly used terms in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is Fluid Bed Processor.

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  • 11. 

    Advantage of FBP is

    • Uniform coating of particles

    • Uniformity of dosing

    • Less batch to batch variation,Less batch to batch variation

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The advantage of FBP (Fluidized Bed Processor) is that it provides a uniform coating of particles, ensuring a consistent and even distribution of the coating material. This leads to uniformity of dosing, meaning that each dose contains the same amount of the active ingredient. Additionally, FBP helps to reduce batch to batch variation, ensuring that each batch produced is consistent and meets the required specifications. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."

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  • 12. 

    Caripill contains glycosides

    • 40%

    • 50%

    • 75%

    • 80%

    Correct Answer
    A. 40%
    Explanation
    Caripill contains glycosides, which are a type of natural compound found in plants. These compounds have various medicinal properties and are often used in herbal remedies. In this case, Caripill is likely a medication or supplement that contains glycosides as its active ingredient. The correct answer of 40% indicates that Caripill contains a relatively low concentration of glycosides compared to the other options provided.

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  • 13. 

    Diagnostic tool used for detecting asthma are

    • Peak Flow Meter

    • Spirometer

    • Pulse Oximeter

    • Both options A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both options A & B
    Explanation
    Both options A and B are correct because both the peak flow meter and spirometer are diagnostic tools used for detecting asthma. The peak flow meter is a handheld device that measures how fast air can be pushed out of the lungs, providing information about the severity of asthma symptoms. On the other hand, a spirometer is a device that measures lung function by assessing the volume and flow of air inhaled and exhaled. Both of these tools are commonly used in clinical settings to diagnose and monitor asthma. The pulse oximeter, however, is not specifically used for detecting asthma and is therefore not included in the correct answer.

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  • 14. 

    Dolo drops is free from

    • Propylene Glycol

    • Paracetamol

    • Alcohol

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Propylene Glycol
    Explanation
    Dolo drops are free from Propylene Glycol. Propylene Glycol is a common ingredient found in many medications and personal care products, but it can cause skin irritation and allergic reactions in some individuals. Therefore, the absence of Propylene Glycol in Dolo drops makes it a safer option for those who may be sensitive to this ingredient.

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  • 15. 

    Cefixime mode of action

    • Inhibits Cell Wall Synthesis

    • Inhibts the DNA Gyrase

    • Acts on 30 S Ribosomes

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibits Cell Wall Synthesis
    Explanation
    Cefixime inhibits cell wall synthesis. This means that it prevents the bacteria from building a strong and protective cell wall, which is essential for their survival. Without a functional cell wall, the bacteria become more vulnerable and are unable to maintain their shape and integrity. This ultimately leads to the destruction of the bacterial cells and their inability to reproduce and cause infection.

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  • 16. 

    Typhoid Fever is caused by which of the following microbes

    • Salmonella paratyphi

    • Salmonella Typhi

    • E-Coli

    • Both option A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both option A & B
    Explanation
    Typhoid Fever is caused by both Salmonella paratyphi and Salmonella Typhi. These two types of bacteria are responsible for causing the illness. E-Coli is not associated with Typhoid Fever.

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  • 17. 

    ESBL Enzymes share the ability to

    • Hydrolyze third-generation cephalosporins including Penicillin

    • Open the Beta-lactam ring, inactivating the antibiotic

    • Close the Beta Lactam ring

    • Both option A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both option A & B
    Explanation
    ESBL enzymes have the ability to hydrolyze third-generation cephalosporins, including Penicillin. Additionally, they can open the Beta-lactam ring, which inactivates the antibiotic. Therefore, the correct answer is both option A and B.

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  • 18. 

    Levofloxacin acts by

    • Inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase

    • & Topoisomerase IV

    • Inhibiting bacterial Cell wall

    • Both option A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both option A & B
    Explanation
    Levofloxacin acts by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, which are enzymes involved in the replication and repair of bacterial DNA. By inhibiting these enzymes, levofloxacin prevents the bacteria from replicating and ultimately leads to their death. This mechanism of action makes levofloxacin effective against a wide range of bacterial infections.

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  • 19. 

    What is Lacto bacillus?

    • Probiotic

    • Prebiotic

    • Antibiotics

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Probiotic
    Explanation
    Lactobacillus is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the human digestive system. It is considered a probiotic because it provides health benefits when consumed in adequate amounts. Probiotics are live microorganisms that can improve the balance of bacteria in the gut, promote digestion, and boost the immune system. They are often found in fermented foods and dietary supplements. Therefore, the correct answer is "Probiotic."

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  • 20. 

    What are indications of Microdox-LBX

    • Acne

    • PID

    • Chlamydia Infections

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Microdox-LBX is indicated for the treatment of acne, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and chlamydia infections. It is effective in managing the symptoms and reducing the severity of acne. Additionally, it is prescribed for the treatment of PID, which is an infection of the female reproductive organs. Lastly, Microdox-LBX is also used to treat chlamydia infections, which are sexually transmitted bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above" as it includes all the indications for Microdox-LBX.

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  • 21. 

    Pharmacological actions of NSAIDs

    • Anti-inflammatory actions

    • Analgesic effects

    • Anti-Pyretic effect

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above" because NSAIDs have multiple pharmacological actions. They possess anti-inflammatory actions, meaning they reduce inflammation in the body. They also have analgesic effects, which means they relieve pain. Additionally, NSAIDs have an anti-pyretic effect, meaning they can reduce fever. Therefore, all of the given options are correct and accurately describe the pharmacological actions of NSAIDs.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the Sentence is True for Drotaverine

    • Drotaverine acts at the cellular level unlike Dicyclomine which is centrally acting

    • Drotaverine is devoid of anticholinergic side effect

    • Twice daily dosing

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The statement "All the above" is the correct answer because all three statements mentioned in the question are true for Drotaverine. Firstly, Drotaverine acts at the cellular level, unlike Dicyclomine which acts centrally. Secondly, Drotaverine is devoid of anticholinergic side effects. Lastly, Drotaverine is recommended to be taken twice daily. Therefore, all the statements mentioned are true for Drotaverine.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the sentence is true for Alprozolam and Propranolol

    •     Alprazolam is the trusted Anxiolytic which acts centrally in the brain and channelizes the flow of GABA.

    •     Propranolol is the trusted Beta-adrenergic anxiolytic which acts peripherally by blocking beta receptors

    • Combination of alprazolam and propranolol exhibits a synergistic action and provides better control of anxiety symptoms

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The statement "All the above" is the correct answer because it encompasses all the previous statements and states that all of them are true. Alprazolam is indeed a trusted anxiolytic that acts centrally in the brain and regulates the flow of GABA. Propranolol is also a trusted beta-adrenergic anxiolytic that acts peripherally by blocking beta receptors. Additionally, the combination of alprazolam and propranolol does exhibit a synergistic action and provides better control of anxiety symptoms. Therefore, all of the statements mentioned in the options are true.

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  • 24. 

    Sertraline

    • Inhibit the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and thus acts as antidepressant.

    • Sertraline is a SSRI – Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

    • Beta blocker

    • Both options A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both options A & B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Both options A & B. Sertraline is a medication that inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin, making it an antidepressant. It is also classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Additionally, the answer states that it is a beta blocker, which is another class of medications used to treat various conditions, such as high blood pressure and heart disease. Therefore, both options A (inhibiting the neuronal reuptake of serotonin) and B (being a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) are correct explanations for sertraline.

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  • 25. 

    Etizolam

    • Is a Short acting drug

    • Ultra Short acting drug

    • Medium acting drug

    • Long acting drug

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a Short acting drug
    Explanation
    Etizolam is classified as a short-acting drug because it has a relatively quick onset of action and a short duration of effect. This means that it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream and produces its therapeutic effects within a short period of time. However, these effects do not last for an extended duration, and the drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body relatively quickly. As a result, individuals taking Etizolam may need to take multiple doses throughout the day to maintain its desired effects.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the sentence is true in Ebast

    • Potent Histamine H1 receptor antagonist

    • Long acting and non-sedating anti-allergic

    • Doesn’t impair psychomotor function

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "All the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned - Potent Histamine H1 receptor antagonist, Long acting and non-sedating anti-allergic, and Doesn't impair psychomotor function - are true for Ebast.

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  • 27. 

    Ebast work on

    • Medical phase

    • Early Phase

    • Last Phase

    • Option B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Option B and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option B and C because the question is asking which options fall under the category of "Early Phase" and "Last Phase" in medical work. Option B and C, which are "Early Phase" and "Last Phase" respectively, are the only options that fit this criteria.

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  • 28. 

    Airflow obstruction can be caused by

    • Acute bronchoconstriction

    • Airway edema

    • Chronic mucous plug formation

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Airflow obstruction can be caused by acute bronchoconstriction, which is the sudden constriction of the airways, leading to difficulty in breathing. Airway edema, which is the swelling of the airways, can also cause airflow obstruction by narrowing the passage for air to flow through. Additionally, chronic mucous plug formation, where excessive mucus accumulates in the airways, can obstruct airflow. Therefore, all of the above conditions can contribute to airflow obstruction.

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  • 29. 

    What are the major advantage of NaFeEDTA

    • Prevents Fe from binding with the phytic acid

    • No metallic taste

    • Arrives in the duodenum and small intestine, where the absorption of iron and minerals takes place.

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The major advantage of NaFeEDTA is that it prevents Fe from binding with phytic acid, which can hinder the absorption of iron and minerals. Additionally, it does not have a metallic taste, making it more palatable for consumption. Furthermore, NaFeEDTA arrives in the duodenum and small intestine, where the absorption of iron and minerals occurs, increasing its effectiveness. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct and highlight the major advantages of NaFeEDTA.

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  • 30. 

    Silymarin Properties

    • Antioxidant properties

    • Regenerates Partially damaged liver cells

    • Anti inflammatory effect

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the above." Silymarin has antioxidant properties, which means it can help protect the liver from damage caused by free radicals. It also has the ability to regenerate partially damaged liver cells, promoting liver health and function. Additionally, silymarin has anti-inflammatory effects, which can help reduce inflammation in the liver and protect against further damage. Therefore, all of the given properties are true for silymarin.

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  • 31. 

    Bio availability of Sodium Feredetate over Ferrous sulphate is

    • 10- 12 times greater

    • 2- 4 times greater

    • 15-20 times greater

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 2- 4 times greater
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-4 times greater. This means that the bioavailability of Sodium Feredetate is 2-4 times higher than that of Ferrous sulphate. Bioavailability refers to the proportion of a drug or substance that enters the bloodstream and is available for the body to use. In this case, Sodium Feredetate is more readily absorbed and utilized by the body compared to Ferrous sulphate, making it a more effective option.

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  • 32. 

    Dosage of Caripill in Dengue induced Thrombocytopenia

    • One tablet to be taken 5 times daily for 3 days

    • One tablet to be taken 3 times daily for 10 days

    • One tablet to be taken 3 times daily for 5 days

    • One tablet for 5 days

    Correct Answer
    A. One tablet to be taken 3 times daily for 5 days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "One tablet to be taken 3 times daily for 5 days." This dosage regimen is appropriate for Caripill in Dengue induced Thrombocytopenia. Taking one tablet three times a day ensures regular intake of the medication, while the duration of 5 days allows for sufficient treatment time.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the statement is true for Gramocef-OF

    • No metallic taste

    • DCGI approved combination

    • Antioxidant properties

    • Antiiflammatory effect

    Correct Answer
    A. DCGI approved combination
    Explanation
    The statement "DCGI approved combination" is true for Gramocef-OF. This means that the combination of drugs used in Gramocef-OF has been approved by the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI), indicating that it has met the necessary quality and safety standards.

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  • 34. 

    Cetrizine and Levecetrizine occupied how much percentage of brain H1 receptor

    • 10-15 %

    • 15-20%

    • 30-50%

    • 70-90%

    Correct Answer
    A. 30-50%
    Explanation
    Cetrizine and Levecetrizine occupy approximately 30-50% of the brain H1 receptor. This means that these medications bind to and block a significant portion of the H1 receptors in the brain, which are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. By occupying these receptors, Cetrizine and Levecetrizine can effectively reduce symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and runny nose caused by allergies.

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  • 35. 

    Acceclofenac Properties

    • Aceclofenac blocks prostaglandin secretion

    • Inhibits IL-1β and TNF at the site of inflammation

    • Stimulates the synthesis of the matrix of the human articular cartilages

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Aceclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation in conditions such as osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. It works by blocking the secretion of prostaglandins, which are substances that contribute to pain and inflammation. Additionally, aceclofenac inhibits the production of IL-1β and TNF, which are pro-inflammatory cytokines involved in the inflammatory response. Lastly, it stimulates the synthesis of the matrix of human articular cartilages, which helps to maintain the integrity and function of the joints. Therefore, all of the given statements are correct.

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  • 36. 

    Domperidone is

    • Prokinetic group of drugs

    • Dopamine antagonist

    • Stimulate the motility of the gastrointestinal tract

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Domperidone is a medication that belongs to the prokinetic group of drugs. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which in turn stimulates the motility of the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, all the statements provided in the options are correct. Domperidone functions as a prokinetic drug, acts as a dopamine antagonist, and stimulates the movement of the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 07, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Michaeldexterbir

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