Fundamentals Of Nursing III: Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication... (Practice Mode)-www.Rnpedia.Com

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Fundamentals Of Nursing III: Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication... (Practice Mode)-www.Rnpedia.Com - Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. No time Limit. Correct answer will be revealed after each question. Goodluck! Content Outline 1. Physical response to stress2. Psychological response to stress3. Spiritual response to stress4. Stress management5. Crisis and Crisis intervention6. Communication7. Recording8. Documentation9. Learning


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by

    • A.

      Vasoconstriction

    • B.

      Vasodilatation

    • C.

      Decreases force of contractility

    • D.

      Decreases cardiac output

    Correct Answer
    B. Vasodilatation
    Explanation
    The coronary vessels, which supply blood to the heart, respond to sympathetic stimulation by vasodilatation. This means that when the sympathetic nervous system is activated, the coronary vessels widen or dilate, allowing more blood to flow to the heart. This is important because during times of increased demand, such as during exercise or stress, the heart needs more oxygen and nutrients. By dilating the coronary vessels, the body ensures that the heart receives an adequate blood supply to meet its increased demands.

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  • 2. 

    What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?

    • A.

      Body will try to decrease the glucose level

    • B.

      There will be a halt in release of sex hormones

    • C.

      Client will appear restless

    • D.

      Blood pressure will increase

    Correct Answer
    D. Blood pressure will increase
    Explanation
    A patient with a blood sugar level of 50 mg/dl is experiencing hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level. In response to this, the body initiates a stress response to raise the blood sugar level back to a normal range. One of the physiological changes that occur during a stress response is an increase in blood pressure. This is because the body releases stress hormones, such as epinephrine and cortisol, which cause blood vessels to constrict and the heart to beat faster, leading to an increase in blood pressure.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are purpose of inflammation except

    • A.

      Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis

    • B.

      Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability

    • C.

      Protect the issue from injury by producing pain

    • D.

      Prepare for tissue repair

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Inflammation serves several purposes, including localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability, protecting the tissue from injury by producing pain, and preparing for tissue repair. However, increasing heat does not directly contribute to the abatement of phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and destroy foreign particles or pathogens. While inflammation can increase blood flow and bring immune cells to the site of infection or injury, heat itself does not directly affect the ability of phagocytes to engulf and destroy pathogens.

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  • 4. 

    The initial response of tissue after injury is

    • A.

      Immediate Vasodilation

    • B.

      Transient Vasoconstriction

    • C.

      Immediate Vasoconstriction

    • D.

      Transient Vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    After tissue injury, the initial response is immediate vasoconstriction. This is a protective mechanism that helps to minimize bleeding and prevent further damage. Vasoconstriction narrows the blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the injured area and thus limiting the extent of injury. This response is followed by a subsequent phase of vasodilation, which helps in the recruitment of immune cells and promotes tissue healing. However, the immediate response is vasoconstriction to prevent excessive bleeding.

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  • 5. 

    The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by

    • A.

      There will be sudden redness of the affected part

    • B.

      Heat will increase on the affected part

    • C.

      The affected part will loss its normal function

    • D.

      Exudates will flow from the injured site

    Correct Answer
    C. The affected part will loss its normal function
    Explanation
    The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is the loss of normal function in the affected part. This occurs as a result of the inflammatory response, which is the body's attempt to protect itself and promote healing. Inflammation causes swelling, pain, and changes in the affected area, leading to a loss of normal function. This can include limitations in movement, decreased strength or coordination, and impaired sensory perception. Loss of normal function is a common symptom of inflammation and is indicative of the body's ongoing response to injury or infection.

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  • 6. 

    What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?  

    • A.

      Serous

    • B.

      Serosanguinous

    • C.

      Purulent

    • D.

      Sanguinous

    Correct Answer
    C. Purulent
    Explanation
    When there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection, purulent exudates are expected. Purulent exudates are thick, yellowish or greenish in color, and contain a high concentration of white blood cells (pus). This type of exudate is typically seen in bacterial infections and indicates the presence of an active immune response against the invading microorganisms.

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  • 7. 

    The first manifestation of inflammation is

    • A.

      Redness on the affected area

    • B.

      Swelling of the affected area

    • C.

      Pain, which causes guarding of the area

    • D.

      Increase heat due to transient vasodilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Redness on the affected area
    Explanation
    The first manifestation of inflammation is redness on the affected area. Inflammation is a response by the body's immune system to injury or infection. When there is inflammation, blood vessels in the affected area dilate, allowing more blood to flow to the area. This increased blood flow causes redness and warmth. Additionally, the blood vessels become more permeable, allowing fluid and immune cells to enter the tissue, leading to swelling. Pain and guarding of the area may also occur as a result of inflammation. However, redness is typically the earliest and most noticeable sign of inflammation.

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  • 8. 

     The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that can differentiate into macrophages, which are specialized cells involved in the phagocytosis of pathogens, cellular debris, and foreign substances. In chronic tissue injury, monocytes migrate to the site of injury and differentiate into macrophages, helping to clear away damaged tissue and promote healing. Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are also types of white blood cells, but they have different functions and are not primarily responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophil

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    C. Eosinophil
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response against parasites and in allergic reactions. In cases of anaphylaxis, which is a severe allergic reaction, there is a release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. Eosinophils are attracted to these inflammatory signals and migrate to the affected tissues, where they release additional inflammatory substances. This leads to an increase in eosinophil numbers and activity, making eosinophils the WBC component that proliferates in cases of anaphylaxis.

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  • 10. 

    Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:

    • A.

      Neutrophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    • D.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are part of the body's immune response. They are the first cells to arrive at the site of injury or infection and play a crucial role in fighting off pathogens and promoting tissue repair. Neutrophils are highly mobile and can quickly migrate to the site of injury, where they release enzymes and chemicals to destroy pathogens and remove debris. Their rapid proliferation helps to contain and eliminate the source of infection or injury.

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  • 11. 

    Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:

    • A.

      Phagocytosis

    • B.

      Emigration

    • C.

      Pavementation

    • D.

      Chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    C. Pavementation
    Explanation
    Pavementation is the correct answer because it is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury. During pavementation, the injured blood vessels release chemicals that cause the nearby endothelial cells to become sticky. This stickiness allows white blood cells called neutrophils to adhere to the endothelial cells and migrate out of the blood vessels into the injured tissue. This process is crucial for initiating the inflammatory response and beginning the healing process.

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  • 12. 

      Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?

    • A.

      Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions

    • B.

      It is Diapedesis

    • C.

      We call that Emigration

    • D.

      I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later

    Correct Answer
    D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
  • 13. 

    This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    C. Third intention
    Explanation
    Third intention healing, also known as delayed primary closure, occurs when a wound is left open initially to allow for drainage and removal of infected material. After a period of time, usually several days, the wound is then closed surgically. This method is used when there is an infection present in the wound or when the wound is too contaminated to be closed immediately. Delaying closure allows for the infection to be controlled and for the wound to be cleaned before suturing it.

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  • 14. 

    Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    A. First intention
    Explanation
    First intention healing, also known as primary intention healing, occurs when a wound is carefully closed with surgical incisions and the edges of the wound are brought together using sutures or staples. This type of healing results in minimal scarring because the wound edges are in close apposition, allowing for a faster and more efficient healing process. The closed wound also reduces the risk of infection and promotes quicker tissue regeneration. Overall, first intention healing is the preferred method for wounds that can be easily closed and where minimal scarring is desired.

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  • 15. 

      Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is

    • A.

      First intention

    • B.

      Second intention

    • C.

      Third intention

    • D.

      Fourth intention

    Correct Answer
    B. Second intention
    Explanation
    Given the description of the injuries suffered by Miss Imelda, it is likely that the type of healing that will occur is second intention. Second intention healing occurs when there is a significant tissue loss or a wound that cannot be closed by primary intention (first intention) healing. In this case, the lacerations and tissue loss on Miss Imelda's arms and elbow indicate that the wound will need to heal from the bottom up, with granulation tissue filling in the gap and eventually forming a scar. This process is characteristic of second intention healing.

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  • 16. 

      Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is

    • A.

      Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • B.

      High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • C.

      High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    • D.

      Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods

    Correct Answer
    B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
    Explanation
    During the recovery stage, it is important for the body to receive adequate nutrition to support healing and regain strength. High protein and high calorie foods provide the necessary energy and nutrients for tissue repair and growth. Additionally, Vitamin A and C are essential for immune function and wound healing. Therefore, a diet that is high in protein, high in calories, and rich in Vitamin A and C would be most beneficial for Miss Imelda's recovery.

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  • 17. 

    Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is

    • A.

      It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues

    • B.

      It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissues

    • C.

      It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination

    • D.

      It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues
  • 18. 

    The primary cause of pain in inflammation is

    • A.

      Release of pain mediators

    • B.

      Injury to the nerve endings

    • C.

      Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids

    • D.

      Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient

    Correct Answer
    C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
    Explanation
    Inflammation causes the release of edema fluids, which can lead to the compression of local nerve endings. This compression applies pressure on the nerve endings, resulting in pain. Therefore, the primary cause of pain in inflammation is the compression of local nerve endings by the edema fluids.

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  • 19. 

     The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client? 1. Constipation 2. Urinary frequency 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Increased blood pressure

    • A.

      3,4

    • B.

      1,3,4

    • C.

      1,2,4

    • D.

      1,4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1,3,4
    Explanation
    The sympatho-adreno-medullary response is the body's physiological response to stress. It is characterized by the release of adrenaline and noradrenaline, which have various effects on the body. Constipation may occur as a result of increased sympathetic activity, which can slow down digestion. Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, can occur due to the release of adrenaline, which stimulates the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream. Increased blood pressure is also a common effect of the sympatho-adreno-medullary response, as adrenaline and noradrenaline cause vasoconstriction, narrowing the blood vessels and raising blood pressure. Therefore, the effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client include constipation, hyperglycemia, and increased blood pressure.

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  • 20. 

    The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?

    • A.

      Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M

    • B.

      Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M

    • C.

      Brush his teeth the morning before operation

    • D.

      Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M

    Correct Answer
    D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
  • 21. 

    The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?

    • A.

      Low BP

    • B.

      Decrease Urine output

    • C.

      Warm, flushed, dry skin

    • D.

      Low serum sodium levels

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease Urine output
    Explanation
    The activation of the adreno-cortical response typically leads to a decrease in urine output. This is because during times of stress or activation of the adreno-cortical response, the body conserves fluid by decreasing urine production. Therefore, a decrease in urine output would be an expected response in this situation.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?

    • A.

      Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally

    • B.

      Bases on friendship and mutual trust

    • C.

      Goals are set by the solely nurse

    • D.

      Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
    Explanation
    A therapeutic relationship is directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally. This means that the nurse focuses on addressing the client's physical and emotional needs and providing support and care in both areas. The nurse aims to promote the client's overall well-being by addressing their physical health concerns as well as their emotional and mental well-being. This approach recognizes the interconnectedness of physical and emotional health and aims to provide holistic care to the individual.

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  • 23. 

    According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution

    • A.

      Roy

    • B.

      Peplau

    • C.

      Rogers

    • D.

      Travelbee

    Correct Answer
    B. Peplau
    Explanation
    Peplau is the correct answer because she is a renowned nursing theorist who developed the theory of interpersonal relations. According to Peplau, the nurse-patient relationship progresses through four stages: Orientation, Identification, Exploitation, and Resolution. These stages describe the different levels of interaction and emotional connection between the nurse and the patient throughout the therapeutic process. Peplau's theory emphasizes the importance of the nurse's role in facilitating the patient's growth and promoting their well-being through effective communication and interpersonal skills.

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  • 24. 

    In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre Orientation
    Explanation
    In the pre-orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship, the nurse reviews the client's medical records to gather as much information as possible about the client. This allows the nurse to have a comprehensive understanding of the client's medical history, current condition, and any specific needs or considerations. By reviewing the medical records, the nurse can better prepare for the upcoming orientation phase and establish a solid foundation for the therapeutic relationship with the client.

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  • 25. 

    Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    B. Orientation
    Explanation
    Nurse Aida and Roger belong to the Orientation phase of the Nursing Process (NPR). This phase involves establishing a contract with the patient, discussing the frequency of meetings, and introducing the expected termination. Additionally, Nurse Aida starts taking baseline assessments and sets interventions and outcomes during this phase.

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  • 26. 

    Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?

    • A.

      Pre Orientation

    • B.

      Orientation

    • C.

      Working

    • D.

      Termination

    Correct Answer
    C. Working
    Explanation
    The situation described in the question suggests that Roger's behavior is disruptive and inappropriate. Nurse Aida's response of addressing the behavior and giving a directive indicates that they are in the working phase of the Nurse-Patient Relationship (NPR). In this phase, the nurse and patient work together to achieve the goals of the treatment plan. The nurse sets boundaries and expectations for behavior, and the patient is expected to follow them.

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  • 27. 

    Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Positive regard

    • C.

      Comfortable sense of self

    • D.

      Self awareness

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive regard
    Explanation
    In this scenario, Nurse Aida is demonstrating positive regard as a major ingredient of therapeutic communication. Despite the incident, she still considers Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. Positive regard involves showing respect, acceptance, and non-judgment towards the patient, which helps create a supportive and trusting relationship. By maintaining a positive regard for Roger, Nurse Aida is fostering a therapeutic environment that promotes open communication and patient-centered care.

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  • 28. 

    Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?

    • A.

      Empathy

    • B.

      Positive regard

    • C.

      Comfortable sense of self

    • D.

      Self awareness

    Correct Answer
    B. Positive regard
    Explanation
    Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking positive regard. Positive regard refers to the ability to view and treat others with respect, acceptance, and compassion. Nurse Irma's statement of referring to the patient as "psychotic" indicates a lack of positive regard, as it demonstrates a judgmental and stigmatizing attitude towards the patient. It is important for healthcare professionals to maintain positive regard towards all patients, regardless of their mental health condition, in order to provide effective and compassionate care.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following statement is not true about stress?

    • A.

      It is a nervous energy

    • B.

      It is an essential aspect of existence

    • C.

      It has been always a part of human experience

    • D.

      It is something each person has to cope

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a nervous energy
    Explanation
    The statement "It is a nervous energy" is not true about stress. Stress is not a form of nervous energy, but rather a physiological and psychological response to external pressures or demands. It is a natural reaction to challenging situations and can have both positive and negative effects on individuals.

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  • 30. 

    Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event. She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?

    • A.

      Martina is just stressed out

    • B.

      Martina is Anxious

    • C.

      Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS

    • D.

      Martina is in Crisis

    Correct Answer
    D. Martina is in Crisis
    Explanation
    Martina's devastation, depression, and constant crying indicate that she is experiencing a significant and overwhelming problem or difficulty. This suggests that she is in a crisis situation, where she is struggling to cope with the challenges she is facing.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?

    • A.

      It has physiologic component

    • B.

      It has psychologic component

    • C.

      The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity

    • D.

      The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity

    Correct Answer
    D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
    Explanation
    Anxiety is a psychological condition that is characterized by feelings of fear, unease, or worry. It can be caused by various factors, such as stress, trauma, or a chemical imbalance in the brain. The statement "The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity" is not true because anxiety can often be triggered by unrecognized or unknown factors. People may experience anxiety without being able to pinpoint a specific cause or source of their distress. Therefore, anxiety can arise from both recognized and unrecognized entities.

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  • 32. 

    Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Panic

    Correct Answer
    D. Panic
    Explanation
    Lorraine's disorganized and incomprehensible speech suggests that she is experiencing a high level of anxiety. Panic is characterized by extreme fear and a sense of losing control, which can lead to symptoms such as disorganized speech. Therefore, the features described in the question belong to the level of anxiety known as panic.

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  • 33. 

    Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Panic

    Correct Answer
    B. Moderate
    Explanation
    Elton is exemplifying a moderate anxiety level. This is indicated by his symptoms of sweating profusely, decreased awareness of his environment, and selective attentiveness. These symptoms suggest that he is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety, which is causing him to become highly focused on the exam questions.

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  • 34. 

    You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?

    • A.

      An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased

    • B.

      Dilated pupils

    • C.

      Unable to communicate

    • D.

      Palliative Coping Mechanism

    Correct Answer
    B. Dilated pupils
    Explanation
    In patients with anxiety, it is common to observe dilated pupils. This is because anxiety triggers the release of adrenaline, which causes the pupils to dilate. Dilated pupils allow more light to enter the eyes, enhancing visual perception and increasing the ability to focus and concentrate. Therefore, if a patient's chart indicates ANXIETY +3, it would be expected to see dilated pupils in this client.

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  • 35. 

    When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?

    • A.

      When anxiety is +1

    • B.

      When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness

    • C.

      When problem solving is not possible

    • D.

      When the client is immobile and disorganized

    Correct Answer
    B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
    Explanation
    The nurse should start giving XANAX when the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness. This indicates that the client's anxiety has escalated to a point where they are experiencing difficulty focusing and paying attention. XANAX is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety and can help to alleviate these symptoms.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?

    • A.

      Frequent hand movement

    • B.

      Somatization

    • C.

      The client asks a question

    • D.

      The client is acting out

    Correct Answer
    C. The client asks a question
    Explanation
    The client asking a question is not a sign or symptom of anxiety because it is a normal and common behavior in various situations. Anxiety is typically characterized by excessive worry, restlessness, irritability, difficulty concentrating, and physical symptoms such as increased heart rate and shortness of breath. Asking a question does not align with these typical anxiety symptoms.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?  

    • A.

      Offer choices

    • B.

      Provide a quiet and calm environment

    • C.

      Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments

    • D.

      Bring anxiety down to a controllable level

    Correct Answer
    A. Offer choices
    Explanation
    Offering choices to clients with anxiety may not be appropriate because it can overwhelm them and increase their anxiety. People with anxiety often struggle with decision-making and may feel overwhelmed by too many options. Providing a limited number of choices or offering guidance and support in decision-making may be more helpful for individuals with anxiety.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?

    • A.

      “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”

    • B.

      “It must be awful to feel anxious.”

    • C.

      “How does it feel to be anxious?”

    • D.

      “What makes you feel anxious?”

    Correct Answer
    D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
    Explanation
    This statement is considered not therapeutic because it focuses on the cause of the anxiety rather than the patient's feelings and experiences. It may come across as judgmental or dismissive, potentially making the patient feel defensive or misunderstood. A more therapeutic approach would be to explore the patient's emotions and provide support and empathy.

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  • 39. 

    Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?

    • A.

      Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing them

    • B.

      Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation

    • C.

      Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change

    • D.

      Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity

    Correct Answer
    B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that Marissa Salva uses Benson's relaxation technique by concentrating on her breathing without tensing her muscles. She then lets go and repeats a word or sound after each exhalation. This technique helps her to relax and achieve a state of calmness and mental clarity.

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  • 40. 

    What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?

    • A.

      Biofeedback

    • B.

      Massage

    • C.

      Autogenic training

    • D.

      Visualization and Imagery

    Correct Answer
    A. Biofeedback
    Explanation
    Lyza is using biofeedback as a relaxation technique. Biofeedback involves using electronic devices to monitor and provide feedback about physiological processes in the body, such as pulse rate, temperature, and muscle tension. By visualizing and assessing this information, Lyza can learn to control and regulate these bodily functions, leading to relaxation and stress reduction. Massage, autogenic training, and visualization and imagery are other relaxation techniques, but they do not involve the use of electronic devices for monitoring and feedback.

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  • 41. 

    This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis

    • A.

      Biofeedback

    • B.

      Meditation

    • C.

      Autogenic training

    • D.

      Visualization and Imagery

    Correct Answer
    C. Autogenic training
    Explanation
    Autogenic training is a technique that involves self-suggestion and self-hypnosis. It is a relaxation technique that aims to promote a state of deep relaxation and reduce stress. During autogenic training, individuals focus on specific sensations and imagery to induce a state of relaxation and calmness. This technique can help individuals gain control over their bodily functions, such as heart rate and blood pressure, through self-suggestion. Therefore, autogenic training aligns with the description provided in the question as a form of self-suggestion or self-hypnosis.

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  • 42. 

    Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?

    • A.

      Valium

    • B.

      Ativan

    • C.

      Milltown

    • D.

      Luvox

    Correct Answer
    D. Luvox
    Explanation
    Luvox is not an anxiolytic because it is classified as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression. Anxiolytics are medications specifically designed to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation. Valium, Ativan, and Milltown are all benzodiazepines, which are commonly prescribed anxiolytics.

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  • 43. 

    Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing? 1. Spiritual Pain 2. Spiritual Anxiety 3. Spiritual Guilt 4. Spiritual Despair

    • A.

      1,2

    • B.

      2,3

    • C.

      3,4

    • D.

      1,4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,3
    Explanation
    Kenneth is experiencing both spiritual anxiety and spiritual guilt. He feels that he has not met God's expectations and is fearful of God's punishment. This indicates a sense of guilt and anxiety about his spiritual standing and relationship with God.

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  • 44. 

    Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?

    • A.

      Spiritual Pan

    • B.

      Spiritual Alienation

    • C.

      Spiritual Guilt

    • D.

      Spiritual Despair

    Correct Answer
    B. Spiritual Alienation
    Explanation
    Grace is experiencing spiritual alienation. This is evident from the fact that she believes her relationship with God is broken and she is trying to go to church every day to ask for forgiveness. This suggests a sense of disconnection or separation from her spiritual beliefs and a feeling of being distant or estranged from God.

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  • 45. 

    Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?

    • A.

      Spiritual Anger

    • B.

      Spiritual Loss

    • C.

      Spiritual Despair

    • D.

      Spiritual Anxiety

    Correct Answer
    B. Spiritual Loss
    Explanation
    Remedios feeling "EMPTY" and believing that she has lost God's favor and love due to her sins indicates a sense of emptiness and absence of spiritual connection. This suggests that she is experiencing a spiritual loss, where she feels disconnected from her spiritual beliefs and experiences a void in her relationship with God.

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  • 46. 

    Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?

    • A.

      Offering general leads

    • B.

      Seeking clarification

    • C.

      Making observation

    • D.

      Encouraging description of perception

    Correct Answer
    C. Making observation
    Explanation
    Budek used the therapeutic technique of making observation. By stating "You appear restless," Budek is acknowledging and reflecting the client's behavior and internal state. This technique helps the client feel heard and understood, and it can also provide an opportunity for the client to further explore and express their feelings.

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  • 47. 

    Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the correct answer because Budek restates Rommel's statement in order to clarify and confirm his understanding. Restating is a therapeutic communication technique that involves repeating the client's words or thoughts to show active listening and to ensure accurate comprehension. In this situation, Budek restates Rommel's statement by asking, "You see dead people?" This allows Rommel to confirm or correct Budek's understanding, promoting effective communication and understanding between the two individuals.

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  • 48. 

    Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflecting
    Explanation
    Budek's response of "Do you think your crazy?" reflects back Rommel's question and mirrors it back to him, which is an example of reflecting in therapeutic communication. Reflecting involves paraphrasing or repeating the client's words or feelings to show understanding and encourage further exploration of their thoughts and emotions. In this case, Budek's response reflects Rommel's question and encourages him to further examine his own thoughts and feelings about being crazy.

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  • 49. 

    Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the therapeutic technique used in this situation. Restating involves repeating the client's words back to them in order to clarify and confirm understanding. In this case, Nurse Budek restates Myra's statement about thinking a lot about her ex-boyfriend to confirm that it is causing her difficulty sleeping. This technique helps the nurse show empathy and understanding, and encourages the client to further explore their thoughts and feelings.

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  • 50. 

    Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?

    • A.

      Reflecting

    • B.

      Restating

    • C.

      Exploring

    • D.

      Seeking clarification

    Correct Answer
    B. Restating
    Explanation
    Restating is the correct answer because Budek is repeating Myra's statement back to her in a slightly different form. Restating is a therapeutic communication technique that helps the speaker feel heard and understood, and it also allows the listener to clarify any misunderstandings. In this case, Budek is restating Myra's statement to show that he understands her difficulty with sleeping.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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