Fleet Marine Force FMF - Practice Test

139 Questions | Total Attempts: 855

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FMF Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is ORM?
    • A. 

      Is a decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase our ability to make informed decisions and minimize risks to acceptable levels.

    • B. 

      Is a decision making tool used by commanders to increase their ability to make informed decisions and minimize risks to acceptable levels.

    • C. 

      Is a decision making tool used by people at all levels to increase our ability to make informed decisions and eliminate risks completely.

  • 2. 
    Are technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use.
    • A. 

      MSDS

    • B. 

      Hazardous Waste

    • C. 

      Hazardous Material

    • D. 

      Chemical Items Declaration

  • 3. 
    The first Marine landing took place during the Revolutionary War. Marines invaded New Providence Island in the Bahamas and seized guns and supplies. The uniform of the day had a stiff leather stock that was worn around the neck, thus the nickname "Leatherneck" became. What year did all of this take place?
    • A. 

      1775

    • B. 

      1805

    • C. 

      1776

    • D. 

      1774

  • 4. 
    Marines stormed the Barbary pirates' stronghold at Burma on the "Shores of Tripoli." Marines raised the "Stars and Stripes" for the first time in the Eastern Hemisphere. What year did all of this take place?
    • A. 

      1776

    • B. 

      1775

    • C. 

      1905

    • D. 

      1805

  • 5. 
    Under who's command did the Marines storm the United States aresenal at Harper's Ferry to put down an attempted slave revolt lead by abolitionist John Brown?
    • A. 

      Captain Samuel Nicholas, U.S. Marine Corps

    • B. 

      Colonel Robert E. Lee, U.S. Army

    • C. 

      Brigadier General Jacob Zeilin, U.S. Marine Corps

    • D. 

      Major Alfred Cunningham, U.S. Marine Corps

  • 6. 
    In 1913 the Marine Corps established its aviation unit. Who was the first pilot?
    • A. 

      Major Alfred A. Cunningham

    • B. 

      Major Gregory R. Boyington

    • C. 

      Colonel Robert E. Lee

    • D. 

      Captain Samuel Nicholas

  • 7. 
    The French Fourragere was awarded to Marines who participated in eight distinct operations in France in what year?
    • A. 

      1917

    • B. 

      1933

    • C. 

      1913

    • D. 

      1900

  • 8. 
    In what year did Marines land in the Dominican Republic to evacuate and protect U.S. citizens?
    • A. 

      1965

    • B. 

      1982

    • C. 

      1991

    • D. 

      1917

  • 9. 
    Marines deployed to where in 1982 as part of a multinational peacekeeping force in an effort to restore peace and order to this war-torn country.
    • A. 

      Kuwait

    • B. 

      Hue City

    • C. 

      Nicaragua

    • D. 

      Lebanon

  • 10. 
    On what date did a suicide truck bomb attack the HQs building killing 241 Americans and wounding 70 others and what date did the last unit withdraw from Lebanon?
    • A. 

      23 October 1983; June 1984

    • B. 

      23 October 1983; July 1984

    • C. 

      25 October 1983; July 1984

    • D. 

      25 October 1983; June 1984

  • 11. 
    What date did 1st MARDIV land on the beaches of Guadalcanal in the Solomon Islands and launched the first United States land offensive of WWII?
    • A. 

      7 August 1942

    • B. 

      7 August 1943

    • C. 

      23 July 1942

    • D. 

      10 Dec 1945

  • 12. 
    During the Battle of Guadalcanal, amphibious landings followed on the remaining Solomon Islands. What were the names?
    • A. 

      Bougainville

    • B. 

      Choiseul (Feint)

    • C. 

      New Georgia

    • D. 

      Tarawa Atoll

    • E. 

      Betio Island

    • F. 

      Iwo Jima

  • 13. 
    This battle took place because of the need for airfields by the Air Force and advanced bases for the Navy.
    • A. 

      The Battle of Mariana Islands

    • B. 

      The Battle of Iwo Jima

    • C. 

      The Battle of Guadalcanal

    • D. 

      The Battle of Chosin Reservior

  • 14. 
    Led a combined invasion force of Marines and soldiers that totaled over 136,000. It was the greatest number of troops up to that time to operate in the field under Marine command.
    • A. 

      Brigadier General Jacob Zeilin

    • B. 

      Major Gregory R. Boyington

    • C. 

      Colonel Robert E. Lee

    • D. 

      Lieutenant General Holland M. Smith

  • 15. 
    The Battle of Iwo Jima took place on what date?
    • A. 

      13 Aug 1918

    • B. 

      10 November 1775

    • C. 

      7 August 1942

    • D. 

      19 February 1945

  • 16. 
    How many casualties were there at the Battle of Iwo Jima?
    • A. 

      23,300

    • B. 

      24,000

    • C. 

      24,500

    • D. 

      22,000

  • 17. 
    During the Battle of Chosin Reservior, how many enemy divisions did the Marines smash on their march from Chosin Reservior?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 18. 
    Brevet Brigadier General who became Commandant in 1820 and held his command for 39 years until his death in 1859.
    • A. 

      Archibald Henderson

    • B. 

      Jacob Zeilin

    • C. 

      John Quick

    • D. 

      Louis B. Puller

  • 19. 
    Remembered for his performance at Cuzco Well, Guantanamo Bay, Cuba where he won the Medal of Honor for semaphoring an emergency lift of the naval bombardment while under Spanish and American shellfire.
    • A. 

      Sergeant Major John Quick

    • B. 

      Sergeant Major Dan Daly

    • C. 

      Lieutenant General Chest B. Puller

    • D. 

      Corporal Ira Hayes

  • 20. 
    Is recognized for earning two Medal of Honors: 1 Chinese Boxer Rebellion and 2 First Caco War in Haiti.
    • A. 

      John Quick

    • B. 

      Dan Daly

    • C. 

      John Bradley

    • D. 

      Ira Hayes

  • 21. 
    On what date did Opha Mae Johnson become the first enlisted women in the Marine Corps?
    • A. 

      23 May 1920

    • B. 

      13 January 1920

    • C. 

      15 August 1918

    • D. 

      13 August 1918

  • 22. 
    Salute the OD and request "Permission to go ashore." Go to the brow, turn aft, and salute the National Ensign.
    • A. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0800 and sunset

    • B. 

      Board and depart a naval ship between sunset and 0800

    • C. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0500 and sunset

    • D. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0500 and sunset

  • 23. 
    Salute the OD and request "Permission to go ashore." Go to the brow, turn aft, and salute the National Ensign. Follow the above procedures but do not turn aft and do not salute the National Ensign.
    • A. 

      Board and depart a naval ship between sunset and 0800

    • B. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0800 and sunset

    • C. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0500 and sunset

    • D. 

      Departing a naval ship between 0500 and sunset

  • 24. 
    The Marine Corps security forces (MCSC) have approximately how many Marines who protect key naval installations and facilities worldwide?
    • A. 

      3,600

    • B. 

      3,400

    • C. 

      3,200

    • D. 

      1,200

  • 25. 
    Is the Marine Corps principle organization for the conduct of all missions across the range of military operations.
    • A. 

      MEF

    • B. 

      MAGTF

    • C. 

      MEU

    • D. 

      MEB

  • 26. 
    Is task organized to provide the full range of CSS functions and capabilities needed to support the continued readiness and sustainability of the MAGTF as a whole.
    • A. 

      LCE

    • B. 

      CE

    • C. 

      MAGTF

    • D. 

      MLG

  • 27. 
    Based in southern California and Arizona.
    • A. 

      I MEF

    • B. 

      II MEF

    • C. 

      III MEF

    • D. 

      IV MEF Reserve

  • 28. 
    Based in Japan and Hawaii.
    • A. 

      I MEF

    • B. 

      II MEF

    • C. 

      III MEF

    • D. 

      IV MEF Reserve

  • 29. 
    What is the Ground Combat Element of a MEU (SOC)?
    • A. 

      Is a infantry platoon reinforced

    • B. 

      Is a reinforced infantry regiment

    • C. 

      Is composed of at least a platoon-sized element.

    • D. 

      An infantry battalion reinforced with artillery, reconnaissance, engineer, armor, assault amphibian units, and other detachments as required.

  • 30. 
    Residing within I MEF are the...
    • A. 

      11th, 13th, and 15th MEUs (SOC)

    • B. 

      22nd, 24th, 26th MEUs (SOC)

    • C. 

      31st MEUs (SOC)

    • D. 

      10th, 12th, 14th MEUs (SOC)

  • 31. 
    Residing within II MEF are the...
    • A. 

      11th, 13th, and 15th MEUs (SOC)

    • B. 

      22nd, 24th, 26th MEUs (SOC)

    • C. 

      31st MEUs (SOC)

    • D. 

      10th, 12th, 14th MEUs (SOC)

  • 32. 
    Delegation of reporting senior authority is an actual transfer of that authority, and not merely an authorization to sign "by direction."
    • A. 

      Delegated Reporting Seniors

    • B. 

      Immediate Superiors in Command (ISICs)

    • C. 

      Raters and Senior Raters

    • D. 

      Reporting Senior

  • 33. 
    For the majority of sailors and officers, most of the trait grades should be in the ?.? to ?.? range?
    • A. 

      2.0 to 4.0

    • B. 

      2.0 to 3.0

    • C. 

      2.5 to 4.0

    • D. 

      3.0 to 4.0

  • 34. 
    Adverse or downgraded fitness and evaluation reports may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the proper disposition of misconduct under the UCMJ.
    • A. 

      Misconduct Reporting

    • B. 

      Improper Disposition

    • C. 

      Adverse Evaluation/Fitness Report

    • D. 

      PG 13

  • 35. 
    An informal way to correspond within an activity or between DON activities.
    • A. 

      Mail-Guard

    • B. 

      Standard Letter

    • C. 

      Endorsement

    • D. 

      Memorandum

  • 36. 
    What is Page 2 of your enlisted service record?
    • A. 

      NAVPERS 1070/602, DEPENDENCY APPLICATION/RECORD OF EMERGENY DATA AND DD 93, RECORD OF EMERGENCY DATA

    • B. 

      NAVPERS 1070/604, ENLISTED QUALIFICATIONS HISTORY

    • C. 

      NAVPERS 1070/605, HISTORY OF ASSIGNMENTS

    • D. 

      NAVPERS 1070/613, ADMINISTRATIVE REMARKS

  • 37. 
    Is a chronological record of duty assignments and is maintained throughout member's active and inactive duty career.
    • A. 

      NAVPERS 1070/602, DEPENDENCY APPLICATION/RECORD OF EMERGENY DATA AND DD 93, RECORD OF EMERGENCY DATA

    • B. 

      NAVPERS 1070/604, ENLISTED QUALIFICATIONS HISTORY

    • C. 

      NAVPERS 1070/605, HISTORY OF ASSIGNMENTS

    • D. 

      NAVPERS 1070/613, ADMINISTRATIVE REMARKS

  • 38. 
    You have how many days to appeal a NJP
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      2

  • 39. 
    What Marine Corps Order deals with hazing?
    • A. 

      MCO 1700.28

    • B. 

      MCO 1700.29

    • C. 

      MCO 4400

    • D. 

      MCO 1820.22

  • 40. 
    The EDVR is updated how often?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Daily

    • D. 

      Bi-Weekly

  • 41. 
    Contains information that has been extracted from the account because it requires special attention or action by the activity.
    • A. 

      EDVR Section 1-4

    • B. 

      EDVR Section 1-3

    • C. 

      EDVR Section 1-2

    • D. 

      EDVR Section 11-12

  • 42. 
    Is based on psychological factors such as needs, desires, and impulses that cause a person to act. For a Marine, commitment and pride in the unit and Corps is generally the basis for combat motivation.
    • A. 

      Motivation

    • B. 

      Proficiency

    • C. 

      Discipline

    • D. 

      Esprit de corps

  • 43. 
    What does the "I" stand for in BAMCIS?
    • A. 

      Supervise

    • B. 

      Substitute

    • C. 

      Subtract

    • D. 

      Subordinate

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      I am an American, fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.

    • B. 

      I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

    • C. 

      If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

    • D. 

      If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners.

  • 45. 
    What is Article III of the Code of Conduct?
    • A. 

      I am an American, fighting in the armed forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.

    • B. 

      I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

    • C. 

      If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

    • D. 

      If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners.

  • 46. 
    The right to send and receive mail is a right of a POW?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    What information are you required to give your captors if you become a POW?
    • A. 

      Name

    • B. 

      Rank

    • C. 

      SSN

    • D. 

      DOB

    • E. 

      Unit

  • 48. 
    What is the first rule in the nine general first aid rules?
    • A. 

      Take a moment to get organized.

    • B. 

      Get all of your supplies ready.

    • C. 

      Search the area for scene safety.

    • D. 

      Make your preliminary exam on the patient.

  • 49. 
    Ideally, the ABCDE steps, status, and transport decision should be completed within how many minutes of your arrival on the scene?
    • A. 

      10 mins

    • B. 

      15 mins

    • C. 

      5 mins

    • D. 

      8 mins

  • 50. 
    How many principal pressure points are on each side of the body?
    • A. 

      12, Total of 24

    • B. 

      11, Total of 22

    • C. 

      13, Total of 26

    • D. 

      10, Total of 20

  • 51. 
    For a thigh fracture, the splints should be fastened in how many places?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 52. 
    Signs an symptoms of ____________ are similar to those of shock; the victim will appear ashen gray, the skin cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils may be dilated.
    • A. 

      Heat Cramps

    • B. 

      Heat Exhaustion

    • C. 

      Heat Stroke

    • D. 

      Heat Case

  • 53. 
    For a victim who is suffering from Heat Exhaustion, and is conscious, you should give how many teaspoons of salt dissolved in how many liters of cool water?
    • A. 

      1; 1

    • B. 

      1; 2

    • C. 

      0.5;1

    • D. 

      2/1

  • 54. 
    Heat Stroke has a __% mortality rate?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      30

  • 55. 
    You should discontinue cooling a patient of a heat case when the rectal temperature reaches how many degrees Fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      102

    • B. 

      103

    • C. 

      101

    • D. 

      99

  • 56. 
    General cooling of the whole body is what?
    • A. 

      Hypothermia

    • B. 

      Hypocold

    • C. 

      Hypoglycemic

    • D. 

      Immersion Foot

  • 57. 
    What is the first symptom of hypothermia?
    • A. 

      Unconsciousness

    • B. 

      Drowsiness

    • C. 

      Listlessness

    • D. 

      Shivering

  • 58. 
    The most effective method of warming a patient with hypothermia is immersion in a tube of warm water. How warm should the tube be?
    • A. 

      100 to 105 Degrees Fahrenheit or 38 to 41 Degrees Celsius.

    • B. 

      101 to 106 Degrees Fahrenheit or 39 to 42 Degrees Celsius.

    • C. 

      102 to 107 Degrees Fahrenheit or 40 to 43 Degrees Celsius.

    • D. 

      99 to 104 Degrees Fahrenheit or 37 to 40 Degrees Celsius.

  • 59. 
    Check the ways to purify water under field conditions.
    • A. 

      Iodine Tablets

    • B. 

      Calcium Hypochlorite

    • C. 

      Boiling

    • D. 

      Steaming

    • E. 

      Hydrogen Peroxide

  • 60. 
    What is the size of a Straddle Trench?
    • A. 

      4 X 2 X 1 feet

    • B. 

      3 X 1 1/2 X 1 feet

    • C. 

      4 X 2 1/2 X 1 feet

    • D. 

      4 X 2 1/2 X 2 feet

  • 61. 
    The straddle trench is used for _ to _ day bivouac sites.
    • A. 

      1 to 3

    • B. 

      1 to 2

    • C. 

      1 to 4

    • D. 

      1

  • 62. 
    "To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce" is which General Order
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 63. 
    You may use Deadly Force to "Defend property not involving national security bu inherently dangerous to others."
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Is the unlawful use or threatened use of violence to force or to intimidate governments or societies to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives.
    • A. 

      Terrorism

    • B. 

      Socialism

    • C. 

      Idealism

    • D. 

      Islamicism

  • 65. 
    One of the motivations for terrorists is material gain.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 66. 
    Designed to standardize security measures so that inter-service coordination and support of anti-terrorism activities are simplified.
    • A. 

      TERRORCON

    • B. 

      ANTI-TERRORIST

    • C. 

      THREATCON

    • D. 

      ALPHACON

  • 67. 
    An unauthorized disclosure of classified information to one or more persons who do not possess a current valid security clearance.
    • A. 

      Access

    • B. 

      Classification

    • C. 

      Compromise

    • D. 

      Information

  • 68. 
    What is the maximum transmission range for PA (Power Amplifier)?
    • A. 

      10 KM - 40 KM

    • B. 

      5 KM - 10 KM

    • C. 

      20 KM - 40 KM

    • D. 

      30 KM - 50 KM

  • 69. 
    For  a stay-down clamp the distance from the tip cap to the ground must be more than _feet.
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 70. 
    Pressing FREQ when loading single channel frequencies will show what?
    • A. 

      00000

    • B. 

      000000

    • C. 

      -----

    • D. 

      ------

  • 71. 
    Pressing CLR when loading single channel frequencies will show what?
    • A. 

      00000

    • B. 

      000000

    • C. 

      -----

    • D. 

      ------

  • 72. 
    The maximum effective range of a M9 service pistol is?
    • A. 

      50 meters

    • B. 

      50 yards

    • C. 

      1800 meters

    • D. 

      1800 yards

  • 73. 
    What is Condition 2 of the M9 service pistol?
    • A. 

      Magazine inserted, round in chamber, slide forward, hammer in the forward position and decocking/safety lever is on.

    • B. 

      Does not apply to the M9 Pistol.

    • C. 

      The chamber is empty, a magazine is inserted, the slide forward, and the safety is on.

    • D. 

      Magazine removed, the chamber is empty, the slide is forward, and the safety is on.

  • 74. 
    What is the maximum range of the M16A4 service rifle?
    • A. 

      3600 meters

    • B. 

      3500 meters

    • C. 

      3200 meters

    • D. 

      550 meters

  • 75. 
    What is the weight (w/30 round magazine) of the M16M4 service rifle?
    • A. 

      7.12 pds

    • B. 

      8.16 pds

    • C. 

      5.56 pds

    • D. 

      8.13 pds

  • 76. 
    Is a lightweight, Single shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder fired weapon that can be attached to which weapons?
    • A. 

      M16A1

    • B. 

      M16A2

    • C. 

      M16M4

    • D. 

      M16A4

  • 77. 
    The Vehicle or weapon point target range of a M203 grenade launcher is?
    • A. 

      150 Meters (492 Feet)

    • B. 

      1500 Meters

    • C. 

      500 meters/594 meters area target

    • D. 

      100 Meters (328 Feet)

  • 78. 
    What is the total system weight (Gun and Tripod complete) of the M2 50 CAL machine gun?
    • A. 

      45.6 pounds

    • B. 

      25.6 pounds

    • C. 

      128 pounds

    • D. 

      60 pounds

  • 79. 
    What is the total system weight (Gun and Tripod complete) of the M240G machine gun?
    • A. 

      45.6 pounds

    • B. 

      25.6 pounds

    • C. 

      128 pounds

    • D. 

      60 pounds

  • 80. 
    What is the total weights of the MK19 machine gun?
    • A. 

      140.6 pounds

    • B. 

      45.6 pounds

    • C. 

      128 pounds

    • D. 

      138.5 pounds

  • 81. 
    Raise either arm to the vertical position. Drop the arm to the rear, describing complete circles in a vertical plane parallel to the body. The signal may be used to indicate either a troop or vehicular column.
    • A. 

      Column Formation

    • B. 

      Echelon left/right

    • C. 

      Skirmishers left/right

    • D. 

      Platoon

  • 82. 
    Raise both arms lateral until horizontal, arms and hands extended, palms down. If it is necessary to indicate a direction, move in the desired direction at the same time. Indicate right or left by moving the appropriate hand up and down.
    • A. 

      Skirmishers left/right

    • B. 

      Echelon left/right

    • C. 

      Wedge formation

    • D. 

      Fire team

  • 83. 
    Extend the hand and arm toward the squad leader, palm of the hand down; distinctly move the hand up and down several times from the wrist, holding the arm steady.
    • A. 

      Squad

    • B. 

      Platoon

    • C. 

      Fire Team

    • D. 

      Platoon

  • 84. 
    Extend both arms forward, palms of the hands down toward the leaders (or units) for whom the signal is intended, and describe large vertical circles with hands.
    • A. 

      Platoon

    • B. 

      Squad

    • C. 

      Fire Team

    • D. 

      Echelon

  • 85. 
    Start the signal with both arms extended sideward, palms forward, and bring palms together in front of the body momentarily. When repetition of this signal is necessary, the arms are returned to the starting position by movement along the front of the body.
    • A. 

      Open Up/extend

    • B. 

      Close Up

    • C. 

      Halt/Stop

    • D. 

      Disperse

  • 86. 
    Extend the arm sideward at an angle of 45 degrees above the horizontal, palm down, and lower it to side. Both arms may be used in giving this signal. Repeat until understood.
    • A. 

      Dismount/Take Cover

    • B. 

      Down

    • C. 

      Hasty Ambush Left/Right

    • D. 

      Fire Team

  • 87. 
    Raise fist to shoulder level and thrust it several times in the desired direction.
    • A. 

      Hasty Ambush Left/Right

    • B. 

      Dismount/Take Cover

    • C. 

      Duck

    • D. 

      Conceal

  • 88. 
    When constructing a fighting position, what does the S and the acronym SAFE stand for?
    • A. 

      Security

    • B. 

      Stop

    • C. 

      Stall

    • D. 

      Situate

  • 89. 
    Mutual assistance and reassurance is an advantage of what type of fighting hole?
    • A. 

      Two-Man

    • B. 

      Three-Man

    • C. 

      Four-Man

    • D. 

      Fire Team

  • 90. 
    Cover all metal areas with tape Tape up all loose straps Tape anything that could enhance noise The listed steps above are to do what?
    • A. 

      Silence Gear

    • B. 

      Waterproof Gear

    • C. 

      Protect Gear from the Elements

    • D. 

      Conceal Gear

  • 91. 
    Is used when -Cover and/or concealment are available. -Greater speed of movement is required.
    • A. 

      High Crawl

    • B. 

      Low Crawl

    • C. 

      Back Crawl

    • D. 

      Speed Drag

  • 92. 
    You should start a "Rush" movement from what position?
    • A. 

      Prone

    • B. 

      Fowler's

    • C. 

      Semi Fowler's

    • D. 

      Standing

  • 93. 
    Priorityy 1 - Urgent is assigned to emergency cases that should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of how many hours?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 94. 
    During peacetime Line 6 when requesting a CASEVAC is changed from Security of Pickup Site to what?
    • A. 

      Number and Type of Wound, Injury, or Illness

    • B. 

      Number of Patients by Types

    • C. 

      NBC Contamination

    • D. 

      Terrain Description

  • 95. 
    During peacetime Line 9 when requesting a CASEVAC is changed from NBC Contamination to what?
    • A. 

      Number and Type of Wound, Injury, or Illness

    • B. 

      Number of Patients by Types

    • C. 

      NBC Contamination

    • D. 

      Terrain Description

  • 96. 
    What is Line 3 of the CASEVAC request?
    • A. 

      Number of patients by precedence

    • B. 

      Radio Frequency, Call Sign, and Suffix

    • C. 

      Special Equipment Required

    • D. 

      Number of patients by types

  • 97. 
    Line 8 of the Casevac request is what?
    • A. 

      Patient Nationality and Status

    • B. 

      Method of Marking Pickup Site

    • C. 

      NBC Contamination

    • D. 

      Terrain Description

  • 98. 
    The mission of this aircraft is "Fire support and security for forward and rear area forces. It is capable of operating in day, night and limited visibility.
    • A. 

      AH-1W Cobra

    • B. 

      CH-46E Sea Knight

    • C. 

      CH-53D Sea Stallion

    • D. 

      UH-1N Huey

  • 99. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "Medium life assault support helicopter".
    • A. 

      CH-46E Sea Knight

    • B. 

      AH-1W Cobra

    • C. 

      UH-1N Huey

    • D. 

      MV-22B Osprey

  • 100. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "Transportation of equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault and during subsequent operations ashore.
    • A. 

      CH-53D Sea Stallion

    • B. 

      CH-46E Sea Knight

    • C. 

      AH-1W Cobra

    • D. 

      MV-22B Osprey

  • 101. 
    How many engines does the CH-53D Sea Stallion have?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 102. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "Transportation of heavy equipment and supplies during the ship-to-shore movement of an amphibious assault and during subsequent operations ashore.
    • A. 

      CH-53D Sea Stallion

    • B. 

      CH-46E Sea Knight

    • C. 

      CH-53E Super Sea Stallion

    • D. 

      MV-22B Osprey

  • 103. 
    This aircraft is the Marine Corps heavy lift helicopter designed from the transportation of material and supplies.
    • A. 

      CH-53D Sea Stallion

    • B. 

      CH-46E Sea Knight

    • C. 

      CH-53E Super Sea Stallion

    • D. 

      MV-22B Osprey

  • 104. 
    How many engines does the CH-53E Super Sea Stallion have?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 105. 
    The primary function of the UH-1N Huey is?
    • A. 

      Attack Helicopter

    • B. 

      Medium Lift assault support helicopter

    • C. 

      Amphibious assault transport of troops, equipment and supplies from assault ships and land bases.

    • D. 

      Utility helicopter

  • 106. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "Airborne Electronic Warfare (EW) support to FMF to include electronic attack (EA), tactical electronic support (ES), electronic protection (EP) and high speed anti-radiation missile (Harm).
    • A. 

      EA-6B Prowler

    • B. 

      AV-8B Harrier II

    • C. 

      AH-1W Cobra

    • D. 

      F-18A/B/C Hornet

  • 107. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "In-flight refueling; tactical transport." It is a multi-role, multi-mission tactical tanker/transport which provides the support required by MAGTFs.
    • A. 

      EA-6B Prowler

    • B. 

      AV-8B Harrier II

    • C. 

      KC130F/R/T Hercules

    • D. 

      F-18A/B/C Hornet

  • 108. 
    The primary function of this aircraft is "Intercept and destroy enemy aircraft under all-weather conditions and attack and destroy surface targets.
    • A. 

      EA-6B Prowler

    • B. 

      AV-8B Harrier II

    • C. 

      AH-1W Cobra

    • D. 

      F-18A/B/C Hornet

  • 109. 
    The largest amphibious ships in the world.
    • A. 

      LHA

    • B. 

      LHD

    • C. 

      LPD

    • D. 

      LSD

  • 110. 
    How many LCACs can an LHD carry?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 111. 
    How many LCACs can an LHA carry?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 112. 
    LHDs can carry how many more helicopters than its predecessor the LHA?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 113. 
    These ships are operated by the Military Sealift Command
    • A. 

      LCAC

    • B. 

      LHD

    • C. 

      LPD

    • D. 

      T-AH

  • 114. 
    These agents produce their effect by interfering with normal transmission of nerve impulses in the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system.
    • A. 

      Nerve

    • B. 

      Blister

    • C. 

      Incapacitating

    • D. 

      Chocking

  • 115. 
    They attack the eyes and respiratory tract as well as the skin.
    • A. 

      Nerve

    • B. 

      Blister

    • C. 

      Incapacitating

    • D. 

      Chocking

  • 116. 
    An individual, squad, section, platoon, company, or other unit which is part of a larger unit.
    • A. 

      Battalion

    • B. 

      Force

    • C. 

      Regiment

    • D. 

      Element

  • 117. 
    A line of Marines or vehicles placed side by side.
    • A. 

      Line

    • B. 

      Rank

    • C. 

      Column

    • D. 

      File

  • 118. 
    The rise and fall in pitch and tone in the voice.
    • A. 

      Voice Control

    • B. 

      Distinctness

    • C. 

      Inflection

    • D. 

      Cadence

  • 119. 
    All commands can be pronounced correctly without loss of effect.
    • A. 

      Voice Control

    • B. 

      Distinctness

    • C. 

      Inflection

    • D. 

      Cadence

  • 120. 
    When speaking in regards to commands means a uniform and rhythmic flow of words.
    • A. 

      Voice Control

    • B. 

      Distinctness

    • C. 

      Inflection

    • D. 

      Cadence

  • 121. 
    How many personnel make up the Navy-Marine Corps color guard?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 122. 
    Re-enlistments are presented first, second, or third when performed in a ceremony?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Neither of the above

  • 123. 
    A Sheet Name is located where on a map?
    • A. 

      The Center of the Upper Margin and either the right or left side of the lower margin.

    • B. 

      The Center of the Upper Margin.

    • C. 

      Either the right or left side of the lower margin.

    • D. 

      The Center of the Lower Margin

  • 124. 
    Are used to convert map distance to ground distance.
    • A. 

      Bar Scales

    • B. 

      Scale

    • C. 

      Declination Diagram

    • D. 

      Elevation Scale

  • 125. 
    A six digit grid coordinate will locate a point on a map within how many meters?
    • A. 

      1000

    • B. 

      100

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      20

  • 126. 
    Can be found at night by locating the North Star. Is usually represented on the declination diagram by a line ending with a star.
    • A. 

      North

    • B. 

      True North

    • C. 

      Magnetic North

    • D. 

      Grid North

  • 127. 
    May be symbolized on the declination diagram by the letters GN.
    • A. 

      North

    • B. 

      True North

    • C. 

      Magnetic North

    • D. 

      Grid North

  • 128. 
    Is normally represented as an hourglass or by figure-eight shaped contour lines.
    • A. 

      Hill

    • B. 

      Ridge

    • C. 

      Saddle

    • D. 

      Finger/Spur

  • 129. 
    Short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge or hill.
    • A. 

      Ridge

    • B. 

      Saddle

    • C. 

      Finger/Spur

    • D. 

      Draw

  • 130. 
    Is a short, continuous sloping line of low ground, normally cut into the side of a ridge or hill.
    • A. 

      Draw

    • B. 

      Saddle

    • C. 

      Ridge

    • D. 

      Finger/Spur

  • 131. 
    Is an accurate technique of determining your location when you are on or near a linear feature that you can identify both on the ground and on the map.
    • A. 

      Location By One Point Resection

    • B. 

      Location By Inspection

    • C. 

      Location By Two Point Resection

    • D. 

      Location By Prominence