Fluid Therapy Vdpam 445 Test 1

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Fluid Therapy Vdpam 445 Test 1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following are examples of colloids?

    • A.

      Hetastarch

    • B.

      Oxyglobin

    • C.

      Normosol R

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    Hetastarch and Oxyglobin are examples of colloids because colloids are mixtures in which particles are dispersed throughout a medium, but do not settle out. Hetastarch is a colloid solution used as a plasma volume expander, while Oxyglobin is a colloid solution used as a blood substitute. Normosol R, on the other hand, is a balanced electrolyte solution and does not fit the definition of a colloid. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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  • 2. 

    What type of fluid would be the best choice for an RDA cow?

    • A.

      Normosol-R

    • B.

      Plasma-Lyte

    • C.

      LRS

    Correct Answer
    A. Normosol-R
    Explanation
    Normosol-R would be the best choice of fluid for an RDA cow. Normosol-R is a balanced electrolyte solution that is commonly used to replace lost fluids and electrolytes in animals. It contains a combination of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and lactate, which helps to maintain proper hydration and electrolyte balance in the body. This makes it an ideal choice for rehydrating and restoring electrolyte balance in a cow that may have experienced fluid loss due to illness or other factors. Plasma-Lyte and LRS are also commonly used fluids for fluid replacement, but Normosol-R is considered the best choice in this scenario.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following are maintenance fluids

    • A.

      Normosol-M

    • B.

      Plasmalyte

    • C.

      Plasmalyte M

    • D.

      Normosol R

    • E.

      A, B, and C

    • F.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    E. A, B, and C
    Explanation
    Normosol-M, Plasmalyte, and Plasmalyte M are all examples of maintenance fluids. These are intravenous solutions that are used to replace fluids and electrolytes in the body to maintain normal hydration and electrolyte balance. They are commonly used in medical settings for patients who cannot take fluids orally or require additional fluid support. Normosol R, on the other hand, is not a maintenance fluid but rather a solution used for resuscitation purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, and C.

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  • 4. 

    What is the normal concentration of Sodium, Potassium, and Chloride in the blood?

    • A.

      130, 4, 100

    • B.

      100, 10, 130

    • C.

      4, 130, 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 130, 4, 100
    Explanation
    The normal concentration of Sodium in the blood is 130, Potassium is 4, and Chloride is 100.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following drugs are not prohibited in food animals?

    • A.

      Clenbuterol

    • B.

      Neomycin sulfate

    • C.

      Diethylsterbesterol

    • D.

      Cephalosporin

    Correct Answer
    B. Neomycin sulfate
    Explanation
    Neomycin sulfate is not prohibited in food animals. This means that it is allowed to be used in food animals without any restrictions or regulations. Clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol, and cephalosporin, on the other hand, are all prohibited drugs in food animals. They are either banned or strictly regulated due to potential health risks or concerns about residue levels in animal products.

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  • 6. 

    What is the best ultrasound probe to use on an intercostal space?

    • A.

      Linear probe

    • B.

      Curvilinear probe

    • C.

      Sector scanner

    • D.

      Phased array

    Correct Answer
    D. Phased array
    Explanation
    A phased array ultrasound probe is the best option to use on an intercostal space. This type of probe uses multiple small transducers that can be electronically controlled to create a focused beam of ultrasound. This allows for better penetration and imaging of structures located deep within the body, such as the intercostal spaces. The phased array probe is also versatile and can be used for various applications, including cardiac imaging.

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  • 7. 

    What options do you have if an ultrasound image that is not bright enough?

    • A.

      Increase the gain and decrease the power

    • B.

      Decrease the gain and increase the power

    • C.

      Increase both gain and power

    • D.

      Decrease both gain and power

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase both gain and power
    Explanation
    If an ultrasound image is not bright enough, increasing both the gain and power can help improve the image quality. Gain refers to the amplification of the received ultrasound signal, while power controls the strength of the transmitted ultrasound signal. By increasing both gain and power, the ultrasound machine can enhance the signal strength and improve the brightness of the image.

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  • 8. 

    What should you do if an ultrasound image has poor penetration of the tissue?

    • A.

      Increase the frequency

    • B.

      Increase the gain

    • C.

      Decrease the gain

    • D.

      Increase the wavelength

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the frequency
    Explanation
    If an ultrasound image has poor penetration of the tissue, increasing the frequency can help improve the image quality. Higher frequency ultrasound waves have shorter wavelengths, which allows them to penetrate the tissue more effectively. By increasing the frequency, the ultrasound waves can better penetrate the tissue and provide clearer images.

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  • 9. 

    Which condition is periparturient?

    • A.

      Type 1 ketosis

    • B.

      Type 2 ketosis

    • C.

      Pregnancy toxemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 2 ketosis
    Explanation
    Periparturient refers to the period immediately before and after giving birth. Type 2 ketosis is a metabolic disorder that commonly occurs in dairy cows during this periparturient period. It is characterized by a negative energy balance and an inability to meet the increased energy demands for milk production. This condition can lead to a decrease in milk production, weight loss, and other health issues in the affected cows.

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  • 10. 

    Which condition typically has the best response to therapy?

    • A.

      Type 1 ketosis

    • B.

      Type 2 ketosis

    • C.

      Pregnancy toxemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1 ketosis
    Explanation
    Type 1 ketosis typically has the best response to therapy. This is because type 1 ketosis, also known as diabetic ketoacidosis, is caused by a lack of insulin in the body. Insulin therapy can effectively manage and control blood sugar levels in individuals with type 1 ketosis, leading to a better response to treatment. On the other hand, type 2 ketosis is associated with insulin resistance, making it more challenging to treat. Pregnancy toxemia, also known as gestational diabetes, can be managed with dietary changes and medication, but the response to therapy may vary depending on individual factors.

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  • 11. 

    What substance is the most reliable to test for to confirm ketosis?

    • A.

      Acetone

    • B.

      Acetoacetic acid

    • C.

      Beta hydroxybutyrate

    • D.

      NEFA

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta hydroxybutyrate
    Explanation
    Beta hydroxybutyrate is the most reliable substance to test for to confirm ketosis. Ketosis is a metabolic state where the body starts using ketones, specifically beta hydroxybutyrate, as an alternative fuel source instead of glucose. Measuring the levels of beta hydroxybutyrate in the blood, urine, or breath can provide a more accurate confirmation of ketosis compared to testing for other substances such as acetone, acetoacetic acid, or NEFA (non-esterified fatty acids).

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  • 12. 

    What are the correct steps to do a BHBA  herd level monitoring test to monitor for type 1 ketosis?

    • A.

      Test 10 cows 4-5 hours after eating, set cutoff at 14.4 mg/dl, 20% alarm level

    • B.

      Test 10 cows prior to eating, set cutoff at 14.4 mg/dl, 10% alarm level

    • C.

      Test 10 cows 4-5 hours after eating, set cutoff at 14.4 mg/dl, 10% alarm level

    • D.

      Test 10 cows 4-5 hours after eating, set cutoff at 1400 mg/dl, 10% alarm level

    Correct Answer
    C. Test 10 cows 4-5 hours after eating, set cutoff at 14.4 mg/dl, 10% alarm level
  • 13. 

    Which of the following treatments or preventions for ketosis do not directly impact gluconeogenesis?

    • A.

      Ionophores

    • B.

      B vitamins

    • C.

      Propylene glycol

    • D.

      Corticosteroids

    Correct Answer
    B. B vitamins
    Explanation
    B vitamins do not directly impact gluconeogenesis because they are not involved in the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway that primarily occurs in the liver and kidneys, where glucose is synthesized from molecules like amino acids, lactate, and glycerol. B vitamins, on the other hand, play a crucial role in energy metabolism by acting as coenzymes in various enzymatic reactions. They are involved in processes such as the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats to produce energy, but they do not directly affect the gluconeogenesis pathway.

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  • 14. 

    High glucose availability favors _____ of blood NEFAs in the liver, resulting in __________.

    • A.

      Oxidation,triglycerides

    • B.

      Esterification, triglycerides

    • C.

      Oxidation, ketone bodies

    • D.

      Esterification, ketone bodies

    Correct Answer
    B. Esterification, triglycerides
    Explanation
    High glucose availability favors esterification of blood NEFAs in the liver, resulting in the production of triglycerides. This means that when there is an abundance of glucose, the liver will prioritize converting the non-esterified fatty acids (NEFAs) into triglycerides through the process of esterification. Triglycerides are a storage form of fatty acids, and this process allows the liver to store excess glucose as fat for later use.

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  • 15. 

    NEFAs are normally elevated in late gestation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    NEFAs (Non-esterified fatty acids) are actually normally elevated during early and mid-gestation in pregnant animals. This is because they serve as an important energy source for the developing fetus. However, as the pregnancy progresses towards late gestation, NEFAs tend to decrease due to increased utilization by the fetus and increased insulin sensitivity. Therefore, the statement that NEFAs are normally elevated in late gestation is false.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is an appropriate protocol for NEFA herd level monitoring to prevent type 2 ketosis?

    • A.

      Test cows immediately prior to feeding, >14.4 mEq/L cutoff, freeze or cool samples.

    • B.

      Test cows 4-5 hours after feeding, >14.4 mEq/L cutoff, freeze or cool samples.

    • C.

      Test cows immediately prior to feeding, >0.4 mEq/L cutoff, freeze or cool samples.

    • D.

      Test cows immediately prior to feeding, >0.4 mEq/L cutoff, keep samples at room temperature.

    Correct Answer
    C. Test cows immediately prior to feeding, >0.4 mEq/L cutoff, freeze or cool samples.
    Explanation
    Testing cows immediately prior to feeding is appropriate for NEFA herd level monitoring because it allows for accurate measurement of NEFA levels before any dietary intake. A cutoff of >0.4 mEq/L is used to identify cows at risk for type 2 ketosis. Freezing or cooling samples helps preserve the integrity of the samples for accurate analysis.

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  • 17. 

    Which electrolyte abnormality results in hyperexcitability and agression?

    • A.

      Hypocalcemia

    • B.

      Hypophosphatemia

    • C.

      Hypokalemia

    • D.

      Hypomagnesemia

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypomagnesemia
    Explanation
    Hypomagnesemia is the correct answer because low levels of magnesium in the blood can lead to hyperexcitability and aggression. Magnesium plays a crucial role in regulating nerve and muscle function, and when levels are low, it can cause overstimulation of the nervous system, leading to increased excitability and aggression.

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  • 18. 

    Which electrolyte abnormality is not commonly associated with hypocalcemia?

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypophosphatemia

    • C.

      Hypomagnesemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypokalemia
    Explanation
    Hypokalemia is not commonly associated with hypocalcemia. While both conditions involve imbalances in electrolyte levels, hypokalemia refers to low levels of potassium in the blood, whereas hypocalcemia refers to low levels of calcium. Hypokalemia is more commonly associated with conditions such as excessive vomiting or diarrhea, certain medications, or kidney disorders. On the other hand, hypocalcemia is often caused by conditions such as vitamin D deficiency, kidney disease, or certain medications. Therefore, hypokalemia is not commonly associated with hypocalcemia.

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  • 19. 

    Which abnormality results in hyperthermia?

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypomagnesemia

    • C.

      Hypophosphatemia

    • D.

      Hypocalcemia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypomagnesemia
    Explanation
    Hypomagnesemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. Magnesium plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature, among other functions. When magnesium levels are low, it can disrupt the body's ability to regulate temperature, leading to hyperthermia or elevated body temperature. Therefore, hypomagnesemia can result in hyperthermia.

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  • 20. 

    The root problem leading to periparturient hypocalcemia is likely:

    • A.

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B.

      Hypomagnesemia

    • C.

      Hypophosphatemia

    • D.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Metabolic alkalosis
    Explanation
    Metabolic alkalosis is the likely root problem leading to periparturient hypocalcemia. Metabolic alkalosis is a condition characterized by increased pH and bicarbonate levels in the blood. This can lead to a decrease in ionized calcium levels, causing hypocalcemia. During the periparturient period, cows experience a high demand for calcium due to milk production, and metabolic alkalosis can disrupt the normal regulation of calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia.

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  • 21. 

    The reason low calcium diets are not ideal to prevent milk fever:

    • A.

      Hard to find feed that is low enough in calcium

    • B.

      It does not change the shape of the PTH receptor, as changing the acid/base balance does

    • C.

      It does not address concurrent hypomagnesemic interference with PTH receptor

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Low calcium diets are not ideal to prevent milk fever because it is hard to find feed that is low enough in calcium. Additionally, low calcium diets do not change the shape of the PTH receptor, unlike changing the acid/base balance. Moreover, low calcium diets do not address concurrent hypomagnesemic interference with the PTH receptor. Therefore, all of the above reasons contribute to why low calcium diets are not ideal for preventing milk fever.

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  • 22. 

    The urine pH range goal for Holsteins being fed an acidifying diet to prevent milk fever is 6.2-6.8

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The urine pH range goal for Holsteins being fed an acidifying diet to prevent milk fever is 6.2-6.8. This means that the desired pH level of the urine for these cows should be between 6.2 and 6.8. Maintaining this pH range is important because it helps to prevent the development of milk fever, a common metabolic disorder in dairy cows. By feeding an acidifying diet, the pH of the urine can be controlled within the desired range, thus reducing the risk of milk fever. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 23. 

    KCl given IV for treatement of hypokalemia should not excede:

    • A.

      50g/100kg

    • B.

      5g/100kg

    • C.

      0.5 mEq/kg/hr

    • D.

      5 mEq/kg/hr

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr. This is because when treating hypokalemia with intravenous potassium chloride (KCl), it is important to administer it at a safe and controlled rate. Exceeding this rate can lead to complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia. Therefore, the maximum recommended infusion rate for KCl in the treatment of hypokalemia is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr.

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  • 24. 

    What is the most common arrhythmia found in ruminants?

    • A.

      1st degree sinus block

    • B.

      Atrial fibrilations

    • C.

      Ventricular tachycardia

    • D.

      2nd degree sinusblock

    Correct Answer
    B. Atrial fibrilations
    Explanation
    Atrial fibrillation is the most common arrhythmia found in ruminants. Atrial fibrillation is a condition where the atria of the heart quiver instead of contracting normally, leading to an irregular and often rapid heart rate. This arrhythmia is commonly seen in ruminants such as cattle and sheep, and can be caused by various factors including heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and stress. Atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the animal's overall health and can lead to complications such as heart failure if left untreated.

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  • 25. 

    Arrhythmias in ruminants are typically primary in cause

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Arrhythmias in ruminants are typically not primary in cause. This means that there is usually an underlying condition or factor that leads to the development of arrhythmias in these animals. It could be due to a variety of reasons such as heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, or even stress. Therefore, the statement "Arrhythmias in ruminants are typically primary in cause" is false.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is not a common potential cause of myocarditis in ruminants?

    • A.

      Hardware disease

    • B.

      Histophilus somnus

    • C.

      Ionophore toxicity

    • D.

      Bacterial endocarditis

    Correct Answer
    D. Bacterial endocarditis
    Explanation
    Bacterial endocarditis is not a common potential cause of myocarditis in ruminants. Myocarditis refers to inflammation of the heart muscle, and it is commonly caused by various factors such as viral infections, toxins, and autoimmune diseases. Hardware disease is a condition in which ruminants ingest foreign objects that can penetrate the reticulum and cause myocarditis. Histophilus somnus is a bacterial pathogen known to cause respiratory and reproductive diseases in cattle, but it can also lead to myocarditis. Ionophore toxicity occurs when ruminants consume excessive amounts of ionophore antibiotics, which can cause myocardial damage. Therefore, bacterial endocarditis is the only option that is not typically associated with myocarditis in ruminants.

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  • 27. 

    Calves should be in sternal recumbancy and actively respirating within ____ of birth

    • A.

      30 minutes

    • B.

      1 hour

    • C.

      3 seconds

    • D.

      30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    Calves should be in sternal recumbency and actively respirating within 30 seconds of birth. This means that within half a minute of being born, calves should be able to breathe on their own and be in a position where they are resting on their sternum. This is important for their survival and overall health, as proper respiration is crucial for newborn calves.

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  • 28. 

    The most important time to test the bacterial and coliform count of colostrum is

    • A.

      When it is extracted from the cow

    • B.

      Immediately before pasteurizing

    • C.

      Immediately after cooling down

    • D.

      Immediately before giving to the calf

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediately before giving to the calf
    Explanation
    The correct answer is immediately before giving to the calf. This is because testing the bacterial and coliform count of colostrum at this time ensures that it is safe and free from any harmful bacteria or contaminants before it is consumed by the calf. Testing at this stage is crucial to prevent the transmission of any infections or diseases to the calf and to ensure its overall health and well-being.

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  • 29. 

    Good benchmarks for colostrum are less than ___cfu/ml total and less than ___cfu coliform count.

    • A.

      100,000; 10,000

    • B.

      10; 1

    • C.

      2,000; 1,000

    • D.

      1,000,000; 1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 100,000; 10,000
    Explanation
    Colostrum is the first milk produced by mammals after giving birth. It is important for newborns as it contains high levels of antibodies and other nutrients. The benchmarks mentioned in the answer indicate the acceptable levels of bacterial contamination in colostrum. A total bacterial count of less than 100,000 colony-forming units (cfu) per milliliter and a coliform count of less than 10,000 cfu per milliliter are considered good benchmarks. These limits ensure that the colostrum is of good quality and safe for consumption by newborns.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following groups of organisms are responsible for over 50% of septicemia in calves:

    • A.

      Gram positive cocci

    • B.

      Gram negative non-enterics

    • C.

      Gram negative enterics

    • D.

      Gram positive rods

    Correct Answer
    C. Gram negative enterics
    Explanation
    Gram negative enterics are responsible for over 50% of septicemia in calves. Septicemia is a bloodstream infection, and enteric bacteria are commonly found in the intestines of animals. Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane that makes them more resistant to antibiotics and more virulent. These bacteria can cause severe illness and sepsis in young calves, leading to high mortality rates. Gram negative enterics include bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Salmonella, which are known to cause septicemia in calves.

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  • 31. 

    Eyeball recession of ___ mm indicates a depressed hydration status

    • A.

      2-4 mm

    • B.

      4-6 mm

    • C.

      6-8 mm

    • D.

      8-10 mm

    Correct Answer
    B. 4-6 mm
    Explanation
    Eyeball recession refers to the sinking or retraction of the eyeball into the eye socket. A recession of 4-6 mm indicates a depressed hydration status. This means that the individual is likely dehydrated or lacking sufficient fluid intake. The measurement of eyeball recession can be used as an indicator of hydration levels and can help healthcare professionals assess a person's fluid balance.

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  • 32. 

    What are two mechanisms of acidosis in calves? (choose 2)

    • A.

      Fecal loss of strong cations

    • B.

      Increase of strong anions

    • C.

      Anorexia

    • D.

      Dehydration

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fecal loss of strong cations
    B. Increase of strong anions
    Explanation
    The two mechanisms of acidosis in calves are fecal loss of strong cations and an increase of strong anions. Acidosis refers to an imbalance in the body's acid-base levels, with an excess of acid. Fecal loss of strong cations can lead to an increase in acid levels as these cations are important in maintaining the body's pH balance. Similarly, an increase of strong anions can also contribute to acidosis as they can disrupt the normal acid-base balance. Anorexia and dehydration, while potential symptoms or consequences of acidosis, are not mechanisms of acidosis themselves.

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