2.
Unless the court provides otherwise, every pleading and every paper filed in an action, except applications for witness subpoena, must be served on each __________.
Explanation
Every pleading and paper filed in an action must be served on each party, unless the court provides otherwise. This means that all involved parties must receive a copy of the pleading or paper, ensuring that they are aware of the information and can respond accordingly. Serving the documents on each party promotes transparency and fairness in the legal process.
3.
A defense of lack of jurisdiction over ________________ may be raised at any time.
Explanation
A defense of lack of jurisdiction over subject matter may be raised at any time. This means that regardless of when a case is being heard, if it is found that the court does not have the authority to hear and decide on the specific subject matter of the case, this defense can be raised. It allows for the dismissal of the case based on the court's lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter, ensuring that cases are heard by the appropriate courts with the necessary expertise and authority.
4.
A motion to strike is used to attack a pleading which contains _________, ___________, ______________, or _________ allegations.
Explanation
A motion to strike is used to attack a pleading which contains allegations that are redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous. This means that if a pleading includes any of these types of allegations, a motion to strike can be filed to request their removal from the pleading. The order of the allegations in the answer does not matter, as long as all four types are included.
5.
At a pretrial conference, the court may determine the limitation of the number of ________ witnesses.
Explanation
At a pretrial conference, the court may determine the limitation of the number of expert witnesses. This means that the court has the authority to decide how many expert witnesses each party can call to testify during the trial. This limitation is usually put in place to ensure that the trial remains focused and efficient, preventing any unnecessary delays or confusion that may arise from having too many expert witnesses. By setting a limit, the court can also prevent any party from using an excessive number of expert witnesses to overwhelm or intimidate the opposing party.
6.
For statute of limitations purposes, an action dismissed for forum non conveniens in Florida is treated as though it was filed in the alternative forum on the date it was actually _____________ in Florida court.
Explanation
When an action is dismissed for forum non conveniens in Florida, it is considered as if it was filed in the alternative forum on the date it was actually filed in the Florida court. This means that for statute of limitations purposes, the time limit for the action will be calculated from the date it was initially filed in the Florida court, even though it was later dismissed.
7.
In rem actions require notice to ___________ of the parties who might have an interest in the property
Explanation
In rem actions require notice to all of the parties who might have an interest in the property. This means that in legal proceedings involving property, all individuals or entities that could potentially have a claim or stake in the property must be notified. This ensures that all parties have the opportunity to participate in the proceedings and protect their interests.
8.
Even if a counterclaim does not arise out of the transaction or occurence that is the subject matter of the opposing party's claim, it may be stated as a _____________ counterclaim.
Correct Answer
permissive
Explanation
A permissive counterclaim is a type of counterclaim that does not arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the opposing party's claim. It is optional and may be brought by the defending party if they choose to do so. This type of counterclaim is not directly related to the subject matter of the opposing party's claim, but it is allowed under the rules of civil procedure.
9.
Each party has _________ peremptory challenges available to excuse potential jurors for reasons other than manifest prejudice or relationship to a party.
Correct Answer
3
three
Explanation
Each party in a legal proceeding has a certain number of peremptory challenges available to them. These challenges allow the parties to excuse potential jurors without having to provide a specific reason such as manifest prejudice or a relationship to a party. In this case, the correct answer is 3 or three, indicating that each party has three peremptory challenges at their disposal.
10.
Interrogatories may not exceed _______ unless the court permits a larger number on motion and notice and for good cause.
Correct Answer
30
thirty
Explanation
Interrogatories, which are written questions used in legal proceedings to gather information, are typically limited in number unless the court allows for a larger quantity. The correct answer, "30, thirty," indicates that the maximum number of interrogatories that can be used is 30, or thirty, unless there is a motion and notice provided to the court and a valid reason is presented for exceeding this limit.
11.
Execution on judgments may issue during the life of the judgment on the __________ of the party entitled it.
Correct Answer
oral request
Explanation
An execution on judgments may be issued during the life of the judgment based on an oral request made by the party entitled to it. This means that the party can request for the execution of the judgment without the need for a written application or formal documentation. The oral request serves as sufficient grounds for the issuance of the execution, allowing the party to enforce the judgment and seek the appropriate legal remedies.
12.
A ____________ is a quasi-judicial hearing officer designated by the court to perform judicial or ministerial acts.
Correct Answer
magistrate
Explanation
A magistrate is a quasi-judicial hearing officer designated by the court to perform judicial or ministerial acts. They have the authority to preside over certain legal proceedings, such as issuing search warrants, conducting preliminary hearings, and making decisions on bail. Magistrates play a crucial role in the judicial system as they help alleviate the workload of judges and ensure the efficient administration of justice. They are responsible for making impartial decisions based on the evidence presented and applicable laws, ensuring fair and just outcomes for the cases they handle.
13.
In a motion for directed verdict, moving party must show that no __________ jury could possibly resolve the issues in favor of the nonmoving party based on _________ just presented at trial.
Correct Answer
reasonable; evidence
Explanation
In a motion for directed verdict, the moving party is required to demonstrate that no reasonable jury could possibly decide in favor of the nonmoving party based on the evidence presented at trial. This means that the moving party must show that the evidence presented is not sufficient to support a verdict in favor of the nonmoving party, and that a reasonable jury would have no choice but to rule in favor of the moving party.
14.
Jurisdictional limit of small claims court is
Correct Answer
$5000
$5,000
five thousand dollars
Explanation
The jurisdictional limit of a small claims court is $5000, $5,000, or five thousand dollars. This means that the court can only handle cases where the amount in dispute is equal to or less than this limit. Cases involving higher amounts would need to be taken to a higher court.
15.
All original papers filed in an action must be filed with the court either ___________ service or immediately _________ service.
Correct Answer
before; after
Explanation
In order to ensure that all original papers filed in an action are properly documented and accounted for, they must be filed with the court before the service is carried out. Once the service has been completed, the papers should then be immediately filed with the court after the service has taken place. This sequence of filing before and after service ensures that all necessary documentation is in order and helps to maintain an organized and efficient legal process.
16.
If a party refuses to comply with a discovery request and party seeking discovery moves for a court order compelling discovery, party seeking discovery must certify that the moving party in _________ conferred or attemped to confer with party failing to comply with discovery request to obtain discovery without court action.
Correct Answer
good faith
Explanation
In order to obtain a court order compelling discovery, the party seeking discovery must certify that they have made an effort to communicate and reach an agreement with the party refusing to comply. This certification ensures that the moving party has acted in good faith, attempting to resolve the issue without involving the court. It demonstrates that the party seeking discovery has made a genuine effort to obtain the requested information through negotiation and cooperation before resorting to legal action.
17.
The court must permit jurors to submit _________ directed to the witnesses or to the court, which must be submitted in ___________, are read to counsel by judge outside of jury presence (giving counsel an opportunity to object), and then directed to the witness if permitted by rules of evidence.
Correct Answer
questions; writing
Explanation
The court must allow jurors to submit questions to the witnesses or to the court. These questions must be submitted in writing, read to counsel by the judge outside of the jury's presence, and then directed to the witness if allowed by the rules of evidence.
18.
Service of process on a partnership may be accomplished by serving any ___________.
Correct Answer
partner
Explanation
Service of process on a partnership may be accomplished by serving any partner. This means that when legal documents or notices need to be delivered to a partnership, it is sufficient to serve any one of the partners. This is because partners in a partnership are considered to have joint and several liability, meaning that each partner is individually responsible for the actions and obligations of the partnership. Therefore, serving any partner is considered as serving the partnership as a whole.
19.
If a plaintiff voluntarily dismisses claim against respondent, dismissal is _____________ unless otherwise specified, but if plaintiff has once dismissed in any court an action based on or including the same claim, the notice of dismissal operates as an ______________ on the merits.
Correct Answer
without prejudice; adjudication
Explanation
If a plaintiff voluntarily dismisses a claim against a respondent, the dismissal is considered "without prejudice" unless otherwise specified. This means that the plaintiff is not barred from bringing the same claim again in the future. However, if the plaintiff has previously dismissed a similar action in any court, the notice of dismissal operates as an "adjudication" on the merits. This means that the dismissal is considered final and the plaintiff is barred from bringing the same claim again.
20.
If no activity has occurred in a case for ______ months and no order staying the action has been issued by the court, any interested person may serve notice to all parties that no record activity has occured, and if no more activity occurs within the next _____ days, the action will be dismissed for lack of prosecution unless plaintiff shows good cause why action should remain pending
Correct Answer
10; 60
ten; sixty
10; sixty
ten; 60
Explanation
If no activity has occurred in a case for 10 months and no order staying the action has been issued by the court, any interested person may serve notice to all parties that no record activity has occurred, and if no more activity occurs within the next 60 days, the action will be dismissed for lack of prosecution unless the plaintiff shows good cause why the action should remain pending.
21.
A proposal for settlement is considered rejected if it is not accepted in __________ within ___ days of service.
Correct Answer
writing; 30
writing; thirty
Explanation
A proposal for settlement is considered rejected if it is not accepted in writing within 30 days of service. The use of the term "writing" indicates that the acceptance must be provided in a written format, such as a letter or email. The number "30" or "thirty" specifies the time frame within which the acceptance must be received. This means that if the acceptance is not received in writing within this timeframe, the proposal is deemed rejected.
22.
A demand for a jury trial must be filed by any party no later than ________ days after the service of the last pleading directed to the issue to be resolved, but cannot thereafter be withdrawn without the consent of ____ the parties.
Correct Answer
10; all
ten; all
Explanation
A demand for a jury trial must be filed within a specific time frame, which is 10 days after the service of the last pleading directed to the issue to be resolved. Once the demand is filed, it cannot be withdrawn without the consent of all the parties involved.
23.
Unless matter is in exclusive jurisdiction of county courts, county courts have subject matter jurisdiction over civil actions where amount in controversy does not exceed
Correct Answer
$15,000
fifteen thousand dollars
$15000
Explanation
County courts have subject matter jurisdiction over civil actions where the amount in controversy does not exceed $15,000, which is also referred to as fifteen thousand dollars or $15000. This means that if the amount being disputed in a civil action is less than or equal to $15,000, the county court has the authority to hear and decide the case.
24.
County courts have subject matter jurisdiction over dissolution of marriage when dissolution proceeding is
Correct Answer
simplified or uncontested
uncontested or simplified
Explanation
County courts have subject matter jurisdiction over dissolution of marriage when the dissolution proceeding is either simplified or uncontested. This means that if the divorce process is made simpler or if both parties agree on the terms of the divorce without any disputes, the county court has the authority to handle the case. The order of the terms "simplified or uncontested" and "uncontested or simplified" doesn't matter as they both refer to the same concept.
25.
Circuit court hears appeals from county courts unless the appeals concern orders that declare invalid a __________ or are certified as ___________ to the district court of appeals.
Correct Answer
state statute or provision of the Florida Constitution; of great public importance
provision of the Florida Constitution or state statute; of great public importance
state statute or a provision of the Florida Constitution; of great public importance
provision of the Florida Constitution or a state statute; of great public importance
Explanation
The correct answer is "state statute or provision of the Florida Constitution; of great public importance." This is because the circuit court hears appeals from county courts unless the appeals concern orders that declare invalid a state statute or provision of the Florida Constitution, or are certified as of great public importance to the district court of appeals.
26.
An action may be dismissed for forum non conveniens if the court finds another forum has jurisdiction over the _________ case, the court finds all relevant factors of ________ interest favor the other forum, or, if the balance of __________ interests is nearly equal, ___________ interests favor the alternative forum.
Correct Answer
entire; private; private; public
Explanation
An action may be dismissed for forum non conveniens if the court finds another forum has jurisdiction over the entire case, the court finds all relevant factors of private interest favor the other forum, or, if the balance of private interests is nearly equal, public interests favor the alternative forum.
27.
A defendant may _________ service by mail and _________ formal service of process requirements.
Correct Answer
accept; waive
Explanation
A defendant may choose to accept service of legal documents by mail instead of being personally served. By doing so, they waive the formal service of process requirements, meaning they acknowledge receipt of the documents and agree to proceed with the legal proceedings. This option allows for a more convenient and efficient way of receiving the necessary paperwork, while still complying with the necessary legal procedures.
28.
Service by publication is _____ permissible when personal service can be effected.
Explanation
Service by publication is never permissible when personal service can be effected. This means that if it is possible to serve the individual in person, service by publication cannot be used as an alternative method. Personal service is typically considered the most effective and reliable way to ensure that the individual receives notice of legal proceedings, so service by publication is only allowed when personal service is not feasible.
29.
Depositions may be read into trial record when the deponent is farther than _______ miles from the court or ________ of the state of Florida, unless it appears the absence was procured by the party offering the deposition.
Correct Answer
100; out
one hundred; out
100; outside
one hundred; outside
Explanation
Depositions may be read into the trial record when the deponent is more than 100 miles from the court or outside of the state of Florida, unless it appears that the absence was intentionally caused by the party offering the deposition.
30.
_____________ magistrates are appointed to serve until removed and must take a constitutional oath, but _________ magistrates are appointed in a particular action and generally are not required to take an oath.
Correct Answer
general; special
General; special
Explanation
In this question, the correct answer is "general; special". The term "general" refers to magistrates who are appointed to serve until removed and are required to take a constitutional oath. On the other hand, "special" magistrates are appointed for a particular action and are not generally required to take an oath. Therefore, the correct answer is "general; special" as it accurately describes the characteristics of these two types of magistrates.
31.
Each juror is permitted to take __________ during the trial for his or her personal use, which are delivered to the judge after deliberations and __________ without being read by anyone.
Correct Answer
notes; destroyed
Explanation
During a trial, jurors are allowed to take notes for their personal use to help them remember important details and arguments. These notes serve as a tool for jurors to stay organized and make informed decisions during deliberations. However, after the trial concludes and the jurors have reached a verdict, these notes are collected and destroyed. This is done to ensure that the jurors' personal notes do not influence or bias any future legal proceedings and to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the deliberation process.
32.
On a money judgment, the execution cannot be issued unless the judgment is both _______ and ________, meaning there cannot be a motion for a new trial or rehearing timely filed.
Correct Answer
valid; final
final; valid
Explanation
In order for the execution to be issued on a money judgment, the judgment must be both valid and final. This means that there cannot be a motion for a new trial or rehearing timely filed. A valid judgment refers to a judgment that is legally sound and enforceable. A final judgment means that it is the ultimate decision of the court and there are no further proceedings or appeals pending. Therefore, both conditions must be met for the execution to be issued.
33.
Final process to enforce a judgment for the recovery of property is made by a writ of possession for ____________, and by a writ of _________ or a writ of ___________ for personal property.
Correct Answer
real property; replevin; garnishment
real property; garnishment; replevin
Explanation
The final process to enforce a judgment for the recovery of real property is made by a writ of possession. On the other hand, for personal property, the final process is made by a writ of replevin or a writ of garnishment.
34.
Although usually the movant in a temporary injunction action is required to give a bond to offset costs and damages to adverse party if wrongfully enjoined, no bond is required for a temporary injunction issued solely to prevent _____________or __________ of a natural person.
Correct Answer
physical injury; abuse
abuse; physical injury
Explanation
In temporary injunction actions, the movant is typically required to provide a bond to cover any costs or damages that may be incurred by the opposing party if the injunction is wrongfully imposed. However, in cases where the sole purpose of the temporary injunction is to prevent physical injury or abuse of a natural person, no bond is required. This exception recognizes the urgency and importance of protecting individuals from harm, prioritizing their safety over potential financial consequences.
35.
A deponent is entitled to _________ his deposition before a copy is filed in court, but the opportunity to do so can be _________ by the deponent.
Correct Answer
review; waived
Explanation
A deponent is allowed to review their deposition before it is filed in court, but they can choose to waive this opportunity. This means that they can choose not to review their deposition and proceed with filing it in court without making any changes or corrections.
36.
Except in actions where ____________ has been seized or is in the custody of the court, action may be voluntarily dismissed by plaintiff without order of court at any time before submission of case to jury or court for decision.
Correct Answer
property
Explanation
In this context, the correct answer is "property." The sentence suggests that there are certain actions where property has been seized or is in the custody of the court, and in such cases, the plaintiff cannot voluntarily dismiss the action without the court's order. However, in all other actions where property is not involved, the plaintiff has the right to voluntarily dismiss the action without needing the court's permission, at any time before the case is submitted to the jury or court for a decision.
37.
When the defendant fails to file or serve any paper in the action, the plaintiff may seek an order of _________.
Correct Answer
default
Explanation
When the defendant fails to file or serve any paper in the action, the plaintiff may seek an order of default. This means that the defendant is considered to have admitted the allegations made by the plaintiff and the plaintiff may proceed with the case without the defendant's participation. A default order is typically granted when the defendant has failed to respond within the specified time period or failed to comply with court rules.
38.
Every domestic or foreign corporation qualified to transact business in Florida must designate a registered _________ and a registered _________ for service of process.
Correct Answer
agent; office
office; agent
Explanation
In Florida, every domestic or foreign corporation that is authorized to conduct business must appoint a registered agent for receiving legal documents and a registered office where these documents can be served. Therefore, the correct answer is "agent; office" and "office; agent" would not be accurate as it reverses the order of the required designations.
39.
______________ parties may sue in their own names on behalf of a party without joining the party for whose benefit the action is brought.
Correct Answer
Representative
representative
Explanation
In legal proceedings, a representative, whether it is an individual or an organization, has the authority to sue on behalf of another party without needing to join that party in the lawsuit. This allows the representative to act in the best interest of the party they are representing and seek legal remedies without requiring the direct involvement of the beneficiary.
40.
An agreement under which any person may be liable for part or all of a judgment entered in the action or to indemnify or reimburse a party for payments satisfying the judgment is __________ but is not admissible at __________.
Correct Answer
discoverable; trial
able to be discoverable; trial
Explanation
An agreement under which any person may be liable for part or all of a judgment entered in the action or to indemnify or reimburse a party for payments satisfying the judgment is discoverable but is not admissible at trial. This means that the existence of such an agreement can be found and obtained during the discovery phase of the legal process, but it cannot be presented as evidence during the actual trial.
41.
In Florida, the judge is not permitted to comment on the ___________ of the evidence or the ___________ of the witnesses.
Correct Answer
weight; credibility
Explanation
In Florida, judges are not allowed to express their opinion or make comments regarding the significance or importance of the evidence presented in a case. They are also prohibited from commenting on the reliability or trustworthiness of the witnesses called to testify. This ensures that the judge remains impartial and does not influence the jury's decision by expressing personal beliefs about the evidence or witnesses.
42.
Florida Supreme Court may issue any necessary writs except writs of _________.
Correct Answer
A. Certiorari
Explanation
The Florida Supreme Court has the power to issue various types of writs to ensure justice and proper functioning of the legal system. However, one type of writ that it cannot issue is a writ of certiorari. This writ is typically used by higher courts to review the decisions of lower courts and determine if any errors were made. While the Florida Supreme Court has the authority to issue other writs such as mandamus, quo warranto, prohibition, and habeas corpus, it does not have the power to issue writs of certiorari.
43.
County courts have subject matter jurisdiction over all violations of which ordinances?
Correct Answer
municipal and county
county and municipal
Explanation
County courts have subject matter jurisdiction over violations of both municipal and county ordinances. This means that these courts have the authority to hear and decide cases involving violations of laws and regulations at both the municipal level (pertaining to a specific city or town) and the county level (pertaining to the entire county). This ensures that county courts can handle a wide range of cases related to local ordinances and maintain law and order within their jurisdiction.
44.
Circuit courts have subject matter jurisdiction over actions involving legality of any
Correct Answer
tax, assessment, or toll
assessment, tax, or toll
toll, assessment, or tax
tax, toll, or assessment
assessment, toll, or tax
Explanation
The correct answer is "tax, assessment, or toll". This answer is correct because it includes all three elements (tax, assessment, and toll) and maintains the same order as stated in the question. The other options either change the order or omit one or more of the elements.
45.
In the Florida Supreme Court, ________ justices constitute a quorum, and at least ________ justices must agree to render a binding decision.
Correct Answer
five; four
5; 4
Explanation
In the Florida Supreme Court, a quorum is constituted by five justices, meaning that at least five justices must be present for a valid decision to be made. Additionally, a binding decision requires the agreement of at least four justices, meaning that a majority of the five justices in the quorum must be in agreement.
46.
For in personam jursidiction, long-arm statutes apply in paternity actions if the defendant engages in __________________ in Florida with respect to which a child may have been ______________.
Correct Answer
sexual intercourse; conceived
sex; conceived
Explanation
In order for a court to have in personam jurisdiction in paternity actions, long-arm statutes apply if the defendant engages in sexual intercourse or has sex in Florida, which could potentially result in the conception of a child. This means that if the defendant has any sexual activity in Florida that could lead to the conception of a child, the court can exercise jurisdiction over them in a paternity case.
47.
In a quasi-in-rem action, if a defendant _________ in the state to defend the action, Florida gains in personam jursidiction over the defendant.
Correct Answer
appears
Explanation
If a defendant appears in the state to defend the action in a quasi-in-rem action, it means that they voluntarily submit themselves to the jurisdiction of the court in Florida. By appearing in the state, the defendant is essentially consenting to the court's authority to exercise personal jurisdiction over them, allowing Florida to gain in personam jurisdiction over the defendant.
48.
In determining where a cause of action accrues, look to where the _______________ comprising the cause of action occurs.
Correct Answer
last element
Explanation
The given correct answer, "last element," suggests that in determining where a cause of action accrues, one should consider the location of the last element that forms the cause of action. This means that the cause of action occurs in the jurisdiction where the final component or aspect of the legal claim takes place. By identifying the location of the last element, one can determine the appropriate jurisdiction for pursuing the cause of action.
49.
An action against a _________________ may be brought in any county.
Correct Answer
nonresident
non-resident
Explanation
An action against a nonresident or non-resident may be brought in any county. Both terms refer to someone who does not reside in a particular location. Regardless of the specific spelling used, the meaning remains the same - the individual being sued is not a resident of the county in which the action is being brought.