Final Exam Chapter 11-16

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Culture Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In Purnell's and Paulanka's book Transcultural Health Care, they state that the four stages of culturally sensitive care are continuous.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that Purnell's and Paulanka's book Transcultural Health Care asserts that the four stages of culturally sensitive care are continuous. This means that these stages are ongoing and should be consistently practiced in order to provide effective healthcare that is sensitive to diverse cultural backgrounds.

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  • 2. 

    Role models and mentors remain basically the same among cultures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because role models and mentors can vary significantly among different cultures. Different cultures have different values, beliefs, and societal norms, which can influence the qualities and characteristics that are considered desirable in a role model or mentor. For example, in some cultures, individuals may look up to religious leaders or community elders as role models, while in other cultures, athletes or celebrities may be seen as role models. Similarly, the qualities and skills that are valued in a mentor can also differ across cultures. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that role models and mentors remain the same among all cultures.

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  • 3. 

    The way a person reacts to health and illness is an attitude and a perception that encompasses all the other cultural components.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that a person's attitude and perception towards health and illness is influenced by their cultural background. It implies that cultural factors such as beliefs, values, and practices play a significant role in shaping an individual's reaction to health and illness. Therefore, the statement is true as it highlights the comprehensive nature of cultural components in influencing how people respond to health-related issues.

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  • 4. 

    Every exchange with a client is a cross-cultural one.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Every exchange with a client is considered cross-cultural because clients come from diverse backgrounds, cultures, and experiences. This means that there will always be differences in communication styles, values, and expectations between the client and the service provider. Recognizing and understanding these cultural differences is essential for effective communication and building strong relationships with clients. Therefore, it is true that every exchange with a client is a cross-cultural one.

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  • 5. 

    Stage Four, the last stage, in giving transcultural health care, states the individuals:

    • A.

      Become aware that they lack knowledge of diversity.

    • B.

      Are unaware that they lack knowledge of cultural diversity.

    • C.

      Automatically provide culturally sensitive care.

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Automatically provide culturally sensitive care.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Automatically provide culturally sensitive care." This means that in stage four of giving transcultural health care, individuals have developed such a high level of cultural competence that they are able to provide care that is sensitive and appropriate to the diverse needs of their patients without having to consciously think about it. They have internalized cultural awareness and understanding, allowing them to automatically provide the necessary care.

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  • 6. 

    In the soccer locker room, a teenager from Iran brags about his sexual escapade with an American girl in his class saying “Girls in his country must be virgin.” This is an example of what cultural component?

    • A.

      Sexual orientation

    • B.

      Gender

    • C.

      Ageism

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Gender
    Explanation
    This statement is an example of the cultural component of gender. The teenager is making assumptions about the sexual behavior of girls based on their gender, implying that girls from his country are expected to be virgins. This stereotype reflects cultural beliefs and expectations surrounding gender roles and sexuality.

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  • 7. 

    Two pregnant women are entering the prenatal clinic. One has a PhD and works in the nursing department at the local college; the other woman is Amish and has three children. This is an example of what cultural component?

    • A.

      Ageism

    • B.

      Role models

    • C.

      Gender

    • D.

      Educational preparation

    Correct Answer
    D. Educational preparation
    Explanation
    This question is asking about a cultural component that is exemplified by two pregnant women entering a prenatal clinic. One woman is described as having a PhD and working in the nursing department at a local college, while the other woman is described as Amish and having three children. The common factor between these two women is their educational preparation, as one has pursued higher education and the other may not have had the same level of formal education. This cultural component is reflected in their different backgrounds and experiences, which can influence their approach to pregnancy and prenatal care.

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  • 8. 

    Values are:

    • A.

      Morals or standards that are acceptable in a culture.

    • B.

      Standards that are practiced in a culture.

    • C.

      Determined by family, religious beliefs, culture.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because values are indeed morals or standards that are acceptable in a culture, they are also the standards that are practiced in a culture, and they are determined by family, religious beliefs, and culture. This means that all three options provided in the answer are accurate descriptions of values.

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  • 9. 

    One's national heritage, race, tribe, clan, and language are examples of ____________________________, a cultural component.

    Correct Answer
    ethnic background
    Explanation
    The question asks for examples of a cultural component, and the correct answer is "ethnic background." One's national heritage, race, tribe, clan, and language are all aspects of a person's ethnic background, which refers to their cultural and ancestral origins. These factors contribute to a person's cultural identity and can shape their traditions, beliefs, and values.

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  • 10. 

    ___________________________, a cultural component, shape how individuals adjust to life's challenges.

    Correct Answer
    Life experiences
    Explanation
    Life experiences, as a cultural component, shape how individuals adjust to life's challenges. This means that the experiences a person goes through in their life, combined with their cultural background, influence how they respond and adapt to difficult situations. These experiences can include personal triumphs, failures, relationships, and encounters with different cultures and beliefs. They provide individuals with valuable lessons, perspectives, and skills that shape their resilience, problem-solving abilities, and overall approach to life's challenges.

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  • 11. 

    A large portion of Americans without adequate health care coverage are children.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A large portion of Americans without adequate health care coverage are children. This means that a significant number of children in the United States do not have access to proper health care. This could be due to various reasons such as financial constraints or lack of insurance coverage. Ensuring that children have adequate health care coverage is essential for their well-being and overall development.

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  • 12. 

    The American Medical Association has supported government health reform.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the American Medical Association has not supported government health reform.

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  • 13. 

    When making allocation decisions of scarce medical resources, AMA's Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs states that physicians should only consider ethically appropriate criteria, such as quality of life, benefit and duration of benefit, and urgency of need when making allocation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that the AMA's Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs recommends that physicians should only take ethically appropriate criteria into consideration when making allocation decisions of scarce medical resources. These criteria include the quality of life, benefit and duration of benefit, and urgency of need. Therefore, it is true that physicians should only consider these factors when making allocation decisions.

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  • 14. 

    Embryonic cells come from frozen “in vitro” fertilization.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Embryonic cells can indeed come from frozen "in vitro" fertilization. In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves the process of fertilizing an egg with sperm outside of the body. Sometimes, during IVF, multiple embryos are created, and not all of them are implanted into the woman's uterus. These extra embryos can be frozen and stored for future use. These frozen embryos contain embryonic cells that can be used for various purposes, such as research or fertility treatments. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 15. 

    Allocation of scarce medical resources refers to:

    • A.

      Whether or not people who should have a right to health care are able to receive that care.

    • B.

      The distribution of available health care resources.

    • C.

      Those individuals who have health insurance.

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    B. The distribution of available health care resources.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the distribution of available health care resources. This refers to how medical resources such as doctors, hospitals, medications, and equipment are allocated among individuals and communities. It involves decisions on who gets access to these resources and how they are prioritized based on factors such as need, urgency, and cost-effectiveness. This is an important consideration in healthcare systems, especially when resources are limited or scarce.

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  • 16. 

    How many people in the United States are uninsured?

    • A.

      20 million

    • B.

      35 million

    • C.

      45 million

    • D.

      58 million

    Correct Answer
    C. 45 million
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 million. This number represents the estimated amount of people in the United States who do not have health insurance coverage. This can be due to a variety of reasons, such as being unable to afford it or not being eligible for certain programs. The high number of uninsured individuals highlights the ongoing issue of healthcare accessibility and affordability in the country.

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  • 17. 

    Which decisions are microallocation?

    • A.

      Congress determined that Medicare should provide medical care to clients with chronic renal failure.

    • B.

      The federal government determines how much should be allocated for medical research.

    • C.

      Medical insurance companies determine “reasonable and customary” charges; thus, what services they cover.

    • D.

      Hospitals determine who shall occupy the one available bed in intensive care.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hospitals determine who shall occupy the one available bed in intensive care.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hospitals determine who shall occupy the one available bed in intensive care." This is an example of microallocation because it involves a specific decision made by a hospital regarding the allocation of a single bed in intensive care. The other options involve broader decisions made by Congress, the federal government, and medical insurance companies, which are more macroallocations.

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  • 18. 

    Legal implications to the various aspects of genetic engineering might include:

    • A.

      Informed consent of all parties involved.

    • B.

      Confidentiality of all parties involved.

    • C.

      Payment for procedures to be performed.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The legal implications of genetic engineering are extensive and involve multiple aspects. Informed consent is necessary to ensure that all parties involved are fully aware of the risks and benefits of the procedures. Confidentiality is crucial to protect the privacy and personal information of those involved. Additionally, payment for procedures is an important consideration to ensure fair compensation for the services provided. Therefore, all of the mentioned options (informed consent, confidentiality, and payment) are potential legal implications of genetic engineering.

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  • 19. 

    Among those without adequate health care coverage are the ___________ who rely on a federal program that is increasing in costs and decreasing in coverage even though they recently provided Part D for medication coverage.

    Correct Answer
    elderly (Medicare)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is elderly (Medicare). The sentence states that those without adequate health care coverage are the elderly who rely on a federal program. This program is increasing in costs and decreasing in coverage, despite recently providing Part D for medication coverage. This suggests that the elderly who rely on Medicare are facing challenges in accessing affordable and comprehensive health care.

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  • 20. 

    ___________________ state passed the first program for rationing health care in the United States.

    Correct Answer
    Oregon
    Explanation
    Oregon passed the first program for rationing health care in the United States.

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  • 21. 

    Genetic testing is often used in treating certain lung cancers to determine how well a cancer will respond to a particular drug or combination of drugs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Genetic testing is indeed commonly utilized in the treatment of certain lung cancers to assess the effectiveness of specific drugs or combinations of drugs. By analyzing the genetic makeup of the cancer cells, doctors can identify specific mutations or genetic alterations that may influence the response to treatment. This information helps them tailor the treatment plan to the individual patient, increasing the chances of a favorable outcome. Therefore, the statement "Genetic testing is often used in treating certain lung cancers to determine how well a cancer will respond to a particular drug or combination of drugs" is true.

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  • 22. 

    Ultrasound is used in conjunction with CVS and amniocentesis for needle placement. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ultrasound is a commonly used imaging technique that utilizes high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. In the context of needle placement during procedures such as CVS (chorionic villus sampling) and amniocentesis, ultrasound is used to guide the needle to the desired location with precision and accuracy. This helps to minimize the risk of complications and ensures that the procedure is performed safely and effectively. Therefore, the statement that ultrasound is used in conjunction with CVS and amniocentesis for needle placement is true.

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  • 23. 

    Most states have laws addressing the reliability and accuracy of genetic testing.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because not all states have laws addressing the reliability and accuracy of genetic testing. While some states may have such laws in place, it is not a universal requirement across all states. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.

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  • 24. 

    AIH raises more ethical and legal issues than does AID.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    AIH (Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare) raises more ethical and legal issues than AID (Artificial Intelligence in Development). This is because AIH involves the use of AI technologies in healthcare, which raises concerns about patient privacy, data security, and the potential for biased decision-making. Additionally, AIH raises questions about the responsibility of healthcare providers and the impact on the doctor-patient relationship. On the other hand, AID refers to the use of AI technologies in various fields of development, which may have ethical and legal implications but not to the same extent as AIH in the healthcare sector. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 25. 

    In 2004, what organization was formed to complete the encoding of genes?

    • A.

      Human Genome Project

    • B.

      The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium

    • C.

      The Human Genome Research Institute

    • D.

      Department of Energy

    Correct Answer
    B. The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium
    Explanation
    The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium was formed in 2004 to complete the encoding of genes. This organization was responsible for the Human Genome Project, which aimed to identify and map all the genes in the human genome. By completing the sequencing of the human genome, the consortium provided valuable information for further research in genetics and medicine.

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  • 26. 

    The encoding of genes will allow:

    • A.

      The investigation of ways to prevent or cure diseases.

    • B.

      Individuals to trace where they really come from.

    • C.

      More reproductive methods to be determined.

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The encoding of genes allows for the investigation of ways to prevent or cure diseases because by understanding the genetic makeup of individuals, scientists can identify specific genes that may be associated with certain diseases and develop targeted treatments or preventive measures. Additionally, it allows individuals to trace where they really come from because genetic information can be used to determine ancestral origins and understand one's genetic heritage. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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  • 27. 

    Genetic testing is used for the following reason(s):

    • A.

      Carrier screening.

    • B.

      Prenatal diagnostic testing.

    • C.

      Presymptom testing.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Genetic testing is used for carrier screening, which involves identifying individuals who carry a gene mutation that could be passed on to their children. It is also used for prenatal diagnostic testing, which helps detect genetic disorders or abnormalities in a fetus before birth. Additionally, genetic testing can be used for presymptom testing, which involves identifying genetic mutations that may increase the risk of developing certain diseases later in life. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as genetic testing can be utilized for all these reasons.

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  • 28. 

    Chorionic villus sampling is:

    • A.

      A test used to detect genetic defects.

    • B.

      Testing a sample of the mother's blood for serum-alpha-fetoprotein.

    • C.

      Taking a sample of the fluid surrounding the fetus in utero.

    • D.

      Using ultrasound to produce a reflected image of the fetus on a monitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A test used to detect genetic defects.
    Explanation
    Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test that involves taking a small sample of cells from the placenta to detect genetic defects in the fetus. It is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of pregnancy and can help identify chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome, as well as certain genetic disorders. This procedure allows healthcare providers to gather genetic information about the fetus and provide appropriate counseling and medical care to the parents.

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  • 29. 

    Screening for PKU, a congenital disease, is a type of __________________ genetic screening and testing.

    Correct Answer
    mandatory
    Explanation
    Screening for PKU, a congenital disease, is a type of genetic screening and testing that is required or compulsory. This means that it is mandatory for individuals to undergo this screening, as it is necessary to detect and diagnose PKU early on in order to prevent potential health complications. Mandatory genetic screening and testing helps ensure the overall health and well-being of individuals and the population as a whole.

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  • 30. 

    ____________________________ can identify the size and gestational age and detect some fetal anomalies.

    Correct Answer
    Ultrasound
    Explanation
    Ultrasound is a medical imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. It is commonly used during pregnancy to monitor the growth and development of the fetus. Ultrasound can accurately determine the size and gestational age of the fetus, as well as detect any potential abnormalities or anomalies. It is a safe and non-invasive procedure that provides valuable information for healthcare professionals to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 31. 

    There is no universal consensus on the time of viability.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the time of viability, which refers to the point at which a fetus can survive outside the womb, is not universally agreed upon. It can vary depending on factors such as gestational age, medical advancements, and individual circumstances. Some sources consider viability to be around 24 weeks of gestation, while others may argue for an earlier or later timeframe. Therefore, there is no definitive consensus on the exact time of viability.

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  • 32. 

    Quickeningis the term used to describe the feeling of life.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The term "quickening" is indeed used to describe the feeling of life. It refers to the first movements felt by a pregnant woman from the fetus in her womb. This sensation is often described as a fluttering or gentle tapping, and it signifies the beginning of fetal movements and the presence of life. Therefore, the statement "Quickening is the term used to describe the feeling of life" is true.

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  • 33. 

    A spouse must be informed in abortion procedures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    There is no legal requirement for a spouse to be informed in abortion procedures. The decision to have an abortion is ultimately a personal one and does not require spousal consent or notification. This is to protect the autonomy and privacy of the individual seeking the abortion.

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  • 34. 

    Physicians cannot refuse to perform an abortion.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Physicians can refuse to perform an abortion based on their personal beliefs or moral values. There are laws and regulations in many countries that protect the rights of healthcare professionals to conscientiously object to certain medical procedures, including abortions. This means that physicians have the right to decline providing abortion services if it conflicts with their personal or religious beliefs. However, it is important to note that there may be exceptions in cases where the life or health of the pregnant person is at risk.

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  • 35. 

    The approved method of abortion if pregnancy is less than 7 weeks from the last menstruation is called:

    • A.

      Suction abortion or curettage.

    • B.

      Dilatation and extraction.

    • C.

      RU489.

    • D.

      Hysterotomy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Suction abortion or curettage.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is suction abortion or curettage. This method is commonly used for abortions that are less than 7 weeks from the last menstruation. It involves using suction to remove the contents of the uterus, or using a curette to scrape the lining of the uterus. This procedure is considered safe and effective for early pregnancies.

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  • 36. 

    The U.S. Supreme Court through Roe v Wade has determined all but one of the following is true:

    • A.

      During the 1st trimester pregnant women have a right to abortion that cannot be regulated by the state.

    • B.

      During the 2nd trimester, states may regulation abortions.

    • C.

      During the 3rd trimester, state interests override pregnant women's rights to abortion.

    • D.

      States must provide abortions to pregnant women on Medicaid.

    Correct Answer
    D. States must provide abortions to pregnant women on Medicaid.
  • 37. 

    In 2006, the U.S. Supreme Court in Ayotte v Planned Parenthood of Northern New England ruled unconstitutional the lawthat:

    • A.

      Abortion demonstrators must not come within 15 feet of entrances to abortion clinics.

    • B.

      Abortion counseling is mandatory in federally funded clinics.

    • C.

      Required parental notification 48 hours before an abortion to a minor.

    • D.

      Spouses must be informed of a partner's abortion intentions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Required parental notification 48 hours before an abortion to a minor.
  • 38. 

    Factors to consider when identifying abortion issues include:

    • A.

      Economics, culture, and religion.

    • B.

      Consent of partner.

    • C.

      Age and health of client.

    • D.

      A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. A and C
    Explanation
    When identifying abortion issues, it is important to consider factors such as economics, culture, religion, age, and health of the client. The economic situation of the individual or family involved may influence their decision-making process. Cultural and religious beliefs can also play a significant role in shaping attitudes towards abortion. Additionally, the age and health of the client are crucial factors to consider, as they may impact the risks and potential complications associated with the procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C, as both economics, culture, and religion, as well as age and health of the client, are important factors to consider when identifying abortion issues.

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  • 39. 

    Name the five theories of when life begins.

    Correct Answer
    Conception, when brain begins to function, quickening, viability, and birth.
    Explanation
    The given answer lists the five theories of when life begins: conception, when the brain begins to function, quickening, viability, and birth. Each theory represents a different perspective on when a fetus can be considered a living being. Conception refers to the moment of fertilization when the sperm and egg combine. The theory of brain function suggests that life begins when the brain starts to develop and function. Quickening refers to the first movements felt by the mother, indicating the presence of a living being. Viability refers to the point at which the fetus can survive outside the womb. Finally, birth represents the moment when the baby is fully developed and enters the world.

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  • 40. 

    "In vitro"fertilization is also called ______________________________________ .

    Correct Answer
    fertilization in glass
    Explanation
    The term "in vitro" literally means "in glass" in Latin. In the context of fertilization, "in vitro" refers to the process of fertilizing an egg with sperm outside of the body, typically in a laboratory dish or test tube. This method is commonly known as in vitro fertilization (IVF). The term "fertilization in glass" is a colloquial way of describing IVF, emphasizing the fact that the fertilization process occurs outside of the body in a controlled environment.

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  • 41. 

    The Patient Self-Determination Act is law in all states.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Patient Self-Determination Act is a federal law that requires healthcare providers to inform patients about their rights to make decisions about their own medical care, including the right to refuse treatment. This law applies to all states in the United States, ensuring that patients across the country have the same protections and opportunities to exercise their autonomy in healthcare decision-making.

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  • 42. 

    A durable power of attorney for health care cannot be revoked once in effect.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A durable power of attorney for health care can be revoked once in effect. This legal document allows an individual to appoint someone to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become incapacitated. However, the person who granted the power of attorney can revoke it at any time, as long as they are mentally competent to do so. Therefore, the statement that a durable power of attorney for health care cannot be revoked once in effect is false.

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  • 43. 

    A person must be competent to sign a power of attorney.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In order for a power of attorney to be valid, the person signing it must have the legal capacity and understanding to do so. This means that they must be competent and capable of making decisions for themselves. By requiring competence, the law ensures that the person giving power of attorney understands the implications and consequences of their actions. Therefore, the statement "A person must be competent to sign a power of attorney" is true.

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  • 44. 

    Quinlan and Schiavo cases are examples of difficulties that can occur when clients' wishes are not expressly identified in writing and/or when medical professionals disagree with family members.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the Quinlan and Schiavo cases are well-known examples of situations where conflicts arise due to the lack of clear instructions from the clients regarding their medical wishes. In both cases, the clients' families and medical professionals had disagreements, leading to legal battles and prolonged suffering for the individuals involved. These cases highlight the importance of having explicit and documented instructions regarding medical decisions to avoid such difficulties.

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  • 45. 

    The Uniform Determination of Death Act identifies medical standards for writing living will documents.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The Uniform Determination of Death Act does not specifically address the writing of living will documents. It is a model law that provides a legal definition of death and outlines the criteria for determining when a person is considered dead. It does not pertain to the creation or content of living wills, which are legal documents that outline an individual's preferences for medical treatment in the event they become incapacitated. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 46. 

    Health care professionals are bound to abide by the wishes of their clients within legal parameters.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Healthcare professionals are required to respect and comply with the wishes of their clients as long as those wishes fall within the legal boundaries. This means that healthcare professionals must prioritize the autonomy and decision-making rights of their clients, ensuring that they receive the care and treatment they desire. However, it is important to note that there are legal limitations that may restrict certain actions or treatments based on ethical and legal considerations.

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  • 47. 

    The durable power of attorney for health care:

    • A.

      Requires that a client act on his/her own behalf.

    • B.

      Is not recognized in all states.

    • C.

      Allows a medical proxy to make health care decisions for another.

    • D.

      Does not need a client's signature for validity.

    Correct Answer
    C. Allows a medical proxy to make health care decisions for another.
    Explanation
    The durable power of attorney for health care allows a designated medical proxy to make health care decisions on behalf of another person. This legal document grants the proxy the authority to make medical decisions when the person is unable to do so themselves. It is important to note that this power of attorney may not be recognized in all states. However, once established, it does not require the client's signature for validity.

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  • 48. 

    Living wills and/or physician's directives:

    • A.

      Allow clients some control over choices in dying.

    • B.

      May dictate when and if extraordinary means are to be used to preserve life.

    • C.

      Should be made available to health care providers and family members.

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Living wills and/or physician's directives allow clients to have control over their choices in dying. These documents may dictate whether and when extraordinary means should be used to preserve life. It is important for these documents to be made available to health care providers and family members so that the client's wishes can be respected and followed. Therefore, the correct answer is "All the above."

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  • 49. 

    Euthanasia:

    • A.

      Literally means “good death.”

    • B.

      Has come to refer to action that takes the life of another.

    • C.

      Is a personal choice that does not affect health care providers.

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B. Euthanasia literally means "good death" and has come to refer to actions that take the life of another. This implies that euthanasia involves intentionally ending someone's life, which can be considered as a form of assisted suicide or mercy killing. The statement "Is a personal choice that does not affect healthcare providers" is incorrect because euthanasia involves the participation of healthcare providers who administer the lethal dose or perform the act.

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  • 50. 

    An individual's choices in dying: 

    • A.

      Are influenced by culture, religious beliefs, legal ramifications.

    • B.

      Are topics for discussion in all cultures

    • C.

      Will be protected by law in all states.

    • D.

      Must always be in writing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are influenced by culture, religious beliefs, legal ramifications.
    Explanation
    An individual's choices in dying are influenced by various factors such as culture, religious beliefs, and legal ramifications. Culture plays a significant role in shaping one's attitudes and beliefs towards death and dying, which in turn influence their choices. Religious beliefs also play a crucial role, as different religions have different perspectives on end-of-life decisions. Additionally, legal ramifications vary from one jurisdiction to another, and laws surrounding issues like euthanasia, assisted suicide, and advance directives can impact an individual's choices in dying. Therefore, it is evident that these factors have a significant influence on an individual's choices in dying.

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