Principles of Flight: PPL Preparation Quiz

1. The angle of attack is measured between...

The root and the tip of the wing

The nose of the aircraft and the tail

The leading edge and the trailing edge

The chord line and the relative airflow

The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of an airfoil (or wing) and the direction of the relative airflow. It plays a crucial role in determining the lift generated by the wing.

Explanation

The angle of attack is the angle between the chord line of an airfoil (or wing) and the direction of the relative airflow. It plays a crucial role in determining the lift generated by the wing.

2. To maintain VMC when flying OCTA at 4500 ft AMSL the minimum horizontal separation from cloud is.

2 KM

8 KM

5 KM (Jepps ATC AU-503)

10 KM

According to Jepps ATC AU-503, the correct minimum horizontal separation from cloud to maintain VMC when flying OCTA at 4500 ft AMSL is 5 KM.

Explanation

According to Jepps ATC AU-503, the correct minimum horizontal separation from cloud to maintain VMC when flying OCTA at 4500 ft AMSL is 5 KM.

3. While cruising at A065 OCTA you notice that another aircraft is converging on you from the left at the same level. What actions should you take?

You should make a sharp right turn to avoid the other aircraft.

You should immediately descend to a lower altitude to avoid the other aircraft.

You should maintain your present height and heading but be prepared to take action to avert a collision if necessary

You should activate your transponder's emergency squawk code and wait for air traffic control to provide instructions.

When faced with another aircraft converging on you, maintaining your present height and heading allows the other pilot to predict your path while being prepared to take evasive action if necessary helps in avoiding a collision. Descending or making sharp turns without coordination can lead to unpredictable movements and potential collision risk. Activating an emergency squawk code is not necessary in this scenario as it is not an immediate emergency situation.

Explanation

When faced with another aircraft converging on you, maintaining your present height and heading allows the other pilot to predict your path while being prepared to take evasive action if necessary helps in avoiding a collision. Descending or making sharp turns without coordination can lead to unpredictable movements and potential collision risk. Activating an emergency squawk code is not necessary in this scenario as it is not an immediate emergency situation.

4. At a non-controlled aerodrome without an associated CTAF(R), the latest position at which an aircraft is permitted to join circuit is -?

After the final turn to base leg

On the downwind leg

Directly on final approach

Overhead the field

The correct answer is on the downwind leg because this is where the aircraft joins the traffic pattern to prepare for landing.

Explanation

The correct answer is on the downwind leg because this is where the aircraft joins the traffic pattern to prepare for landing.

5. According to the Regulation regarding smoking in aircraft, when is smoking prohibited?

During take-off or landing (CAR 255 [3] [a] )

Only in the lavatory

When the pilot gives permission

While the aircraft is in cruising altitude

The correct answer is during take-off or landing as outlined in CAR 255 [3] [a]. This regulation prohibits smoking during the critical phases of flight for safety reasons.

Explanation

The correct answer is during take-off or landing as outlined in CAR 255 [3] [a]. This regulation prohibits smoking during the critical phases of flight for safety reasons.

6. A VFR flight within Australia is normally restricted to operations.

Only during daylight hours.

Without prior ATC clearance.

In other than Class A controlled airspace (Jepp ATC AU-502)

Without any altitude restrictions.

VFR flights within Australia are normally restricted to operations in other than Class A controlled airspace, as per Jeppesen ATC AU-502 guidelines.

Explanation

VFR flights within Australia are normally restricted to operations in other than Class A controlled airspace, as per Jeppesen ATC AU-502 guidelines.

7. At what stage of a flight should you change from the area QNH to local QNH (if available) when descending from A075?

At the final approach fix

When reaching 10,000 feet above ground level

At the commencement of descent (Jepp ATC AU-502, figure 1)

When passing through 5,000 feet above ground level

The correct answer is to change from area QNH to local QNH at the commencement of descent to ensure accuracy in altimeter readings during the descent process.

Explanation

The correct answer is to change from area QNH to local QNH at the commencement of descent to ensure accuracy in altimeter readings during the descent process.

8. When planning to fly OCTA on a VFR flight at a cruising level of 2500 feet, what is the minimum vertical separation from a cloud to maintain visual meteorological conditions (VMC)?

250 feet away from the cloud

Clear of cloud (Jepp ATC AU-503)

500 feet above the cloud

1000 feet below the cloud

To maintain VMC at 2500 feet, the correct answer is to stay clear of clouds. Flying 1000 feet below, 500 feet above, or 250 feet away from clouds may not provide adequate separation to ensure VMC.

Explanation

To maintain VMC at 2500 feet, the correct answer is to stay clear of clouds. Flying 1000 feet below, 500 feet above, or 250 feet away from clouds may not provide adequate separation to ensure VMC.

9. A pilot must not consume any alcoholic liquor during the .... hours prior to departure.

12 hours

8 hours. (CAR 256 [3] )

4 hours

24 hours

According to CAR 256 [3], a pilot must not consume any alcoholic liquor during the 8 hours prior to departure to ensure flight safety.

Explanation

According to CAR 256 [3], a pilot must not consume any alcoholic liquor during the 8 hours prior to departure to ensure flight safety.

10. When may a pilot elect to fly at a height lower than 500 ft above the highest obstacle or terrain?

Through stress of weather (CAR 157 [4] [a] )

To show off flying skills

During maintenance checks

To take aerial photographs

Pilots may only elect to fly at a height lower than 500 ft above the highest obstacle or terrain through stress of weather as per CAR 157 [4] [a]. Flying at lower altitudes for reasons unrelated to safety is not permissible.

Explanation

Pilots may only elect to fly at a height lower than 500 ft above the highest obstacle or terrain through stress of weather as per CAR 157 [4] [a]. Flying at lower altitudes for reasons unrelated to safety is not permissible.

11. An aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of 6 is to be refueled. Under which conditions are ambulatory passengers permitted to remain on board?

If the passengers have signed a waiver releasing the airline from any liability during refueling.

When the passengers are provided with safety goggles and gloves during refueling.

Under no circumstances (CAO 20.9.4.2.3)

Only when the refueling process will take less than 10 minutes.

According to CAO 20.9.4.2.3, ambulatory passengers are not permitted to remain on board during refueling of an aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of 6 under any circumstances for safety reasons.

Explanation

According to CAO 20.9.4.2.3, ambulatory passengers are not permitted to remain on board during refueling of an aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of 6 under any circumstances for safety reasons.

12. Which item must be included in a passenger briefing prior to take-off?

The pilot's favorite color

The location of emergency exits

The best in-flight movie to watch

The use and adjustment of seat belts. (CAO 20.11.14.1.1)

Passenger briefings are important for ensuring passenger safety and the correct answer emphasizes on a crucial safety measure related to seat belts.

Explanation

Passenger briefings are important for ensuring passenger safety and the correct answer emphasizes on a crucial safety measure related to seat belts.

13. For all flights, the pilot in command of an aeroplane shall test the flight controls to the full limit of their travel immediately before-?

Cruising (CAR 244.1 [a])

Taxiing (CAR 244.1 [a])

Take-off (CAR 244.1 [a] )

Landing (CAR 244.1 [a])

The correct procedure is to test the flight controls before take-off to ensure they are functioning properly for the flight.

Explanation

The correct procedure is to test the flight controls before take-off to ensure they are functioning properly for the flight.

14. When is the pilot in command required to inspect and test the aircraft's fuel system for the presence of water?

Before the first flight of each day and after each refuelling. (CAO 20.2.5.1 [a] )

Every 100 flight hours

Only during extreme weather conditions

During taxiing

Inspecting and testing the aircraft's fuel system for water is important before the first flight of each day and after each refuelling to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft.

Explanation

Inspecting and testing the aircraft's fuel system for water is important before the first flight of each day and after each refuelling to ensure the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft.

15. What rule must be followed regarding the occupancy of a control (co-pilot's) seat by a passenger of a dual controlled aircraft?

The passenger can take control of the aircraft if the pilot is incapacitated

The passenger must wear a headset at all times while seated in the co-pilot's seat

The passenger must have a valid pilot's license to sit in the co-pilot's seat

The correct answer emphasizes the importance of providing instruction and maintaining communication to ensure safety in a dual controlled aircraft.

Explanation

The correct answer emphasizes the importance of providing instruction and maintaining communication to ensure safety in a dual controlled aircraft.

16. In a 4 seater dual control aeroplane, with 2 adults and 2 children aged 5 and 8 weighing 20 and 40 kgs respectively, what is the weight limitation that applies?

The adults must sit in the front seats and the children in the back seats.

The children must be secured in child safety seats that meet aviation regulations.

Each passenger must have their own individual seat with a full safety harness.

According to aviation regulations, the correct answer specifies that two children must occupy one seat, sitting side by side and secured with a lap strap only.

Explanation

According to aviation regulations, the correct answer specifies that two children must occupy one seat, sitting side by side and secured with a lap strap only.

17. Which signal, when placed adjacent to the primary wind indicator signifies that the aerodrome is completely unserviceable?

Two yellow crosses

A single white cross (Jepp ATC AU-306)

A single red cross

A red and white checkerboard pattern

The correct signal that signifies that the aerodrome is completely unserviceable is a single white cross, as outlined in the Jeppesen ATC AU-306 documentation.

Explanation

The correct signal that signifies that the aerodrome is completely unserviceable is a single white cross, as outlined in the Jeppesen ATC AU-306 documentation.

18. When a horizontal white dumbbell is adjacent to the primary wind sock, what does it mean?

Confine all operations (landing and taxiing) to sealed surfaces. (Jepp ATC AU-306)

Ignore all signs and markings on the airfield.

Proceed with caution on grass surfaces.

Perform touch-and-goes on any available runway.

The presence of a horizontal white dumbbell adjacent to the primary wind sock indicates that all operations should be confined to sealed surfaces for safety reasons. This is important information for pilots to follow proper procedures while operating on the airfield.

Explanation

The presence of a horizontal white dumbbell adjacent to the primary wind sock indicates that all operations should be confined to sealed surfaces for safety reasons. This is important information for pilots to follow proper procedures while operating on the airfield.

19. You are departing a controlled aerodrome where the ERSA indicates 'Voice AVBL on NDB for EMERG transmissions'. If you experience communications failure, one of the actions required is that you:

Continue on your planned route without taking any action

Attempt to communicate using hand signals to ground personnel

Contact the aerodrome on their published emergency phone number

In case of communication failure, it is essential to follow the correct procedures as per aviation regulations to ensure safety and effective communication.

Explanation

In case of communication failure, it is essential to follow the correct procedures as per aviation regulations to ensure safety and effective communication.

20. In addition to your pilot's license and medical certificate, which documents must be carried on board an Australian registered aircraft for a solo flight in the training area?

Flight Manual and Maintenance Release (CAR 139 [1] & [2] )

Passenger Manifest and Weight & Balance Record

Navigation Log and Pilot's Logbook

License to Operate Radio Equipment and Airworthiness Certificate

For a solo flight in the training area on an Australian registered aircraft, it is essential to carry the Flight Manual and Maintenance Release according to CAR 139 [1] & [2]. Other documents mentioned in the incorrect answers are not mandatory for this specific scenario.

Explanation

For a solo flight in the training area on an Australian registered aircraft, it is essential to carry the Flight Manual and Maintenance Release according to CAR 139 [1] & [2]. Other documents mentioned in the incorrect answers are not mandatory for this specific scenario.

21. What is the definition of a prohibited area in regards to airspace?

Allowed only with special permission

Permitted for military aircraft only

Restricted during specific hours

Not permitted under any circumstances. (Jepp ATC AU- 203)

A prohibited area in airspace is one where flight by civil aircraft is strictly not permitted under any circumstances to ensure safety and security.

Explanation

A prohibited area in airspace is one where flight by civil aircraft is strictly not permitted under any circumstances to ensure safety and security.

22. What must be carried on board a single-engine aircraft during the overwater segment of a flight just beyond gliding distance from land?

A snorkel and flippers for each occupant

A fishing rod for each occupant

A life jacket for each of the occupants. (CAR 258, CAO 20.11.5.1.1 & 20.11.5.2.1)

A beach umbrella for shade

According to CAR 258, CAO 20.11.5.1.1 & 20.11.5.2.1, a life jacket for each occupant is required for safety during the overwater flight segment.

Explanation

According to CAR 258, CAO 20.11.5.1.1 & 20.11.5.2.1, a life jacket for each occupant is required for safety during the overwater flight segment.

23. In an aircraft with MTOW less than 5700 kg, which limitation applies to the carriage of cargo?

Cargo cannot exceed 50% of the aircraft's empty weight.

Cargo must be loaded in the rear of the aircraft only.

Cargo must always be secured (CAO 20.16.2.3.1 to 3.4 & 6.1)

Cargo weight must not exceed 10% of the aircraft's maximum takeoff weight.

When carrying cargo in an aircraft with MTOW less than 5700 kg, the limitation that applies is that the cargo must always be secured according to CAO regulations.

Explanation

When carrying cargo in an aircraft with MTOW less than 5700 kg, the limitation that applies is that the cargo must always be secured according to CAO regulations.

24. One condition applying to the carriage of stretcher patients in aircraft is that -

The stretcher can be placed in any orientation without securing it.

The patient must wear a seatbelt at all times during the flight.

The stretcher should be left unsecured to allow for movement.

The correct answer ensures the safety and stability of both the stretcher and patient in the event of accelerations during flight or emergencies, while the incorrect answers pose potential risks or disregard safety measures.

Explanation

The correct answer ensures the safety and stability of both the stretcher and patient in the event of accelerations during flight or emergencies, while the incorrect answers pose potential risks or disregard safety measures.

25. What are your legal responsibilities as the pilot in command regarding the carriage of your friend's pet dog?

The dog must be placed in a container and carried in the cargo compartment. (CAR 256A)

Leave the dog at the airport and inform your friend to pick it up later.

Allow the dog to roam freely in the cockpit during the flight.

Ensure the dog is seated in a passenger seat with a seatbelt on.

According to CAR 256A, the dog must be placed in a container and carried in the cargo compartment for safety reasons.

Explanation

According to CAR 256A, the dog must be placed in a container and carried in the cargo compartment for safety reasons.

26. When flying in a lane of entry, what is one requirement for aircraft?

Keep to the left hand side of the lane

Fly at any side of the lane

Stay in the center of the lane

Keep to the right hand side of the lane (Jepp ATC AU-205)

When flying in a lane of entry, it is a requirement for aircraft to keep to the right hand side of the lane according to Jepp ATC AU-205.

Explanation

When flying in a lane of entry, it is a requirement for aircraft to keep to the right hand side of the lane according to Jepp ATC AU-205.

27. In a Danger Area OCTA, does a pilot require clearance?

Clearance is required at all times.

Clearance is required only for commercial flights.

Clearance is only required during night flights.

In a Danger Area OCTA, pilots do not require clearance but need to be aware of potential dangerous activities that may be present during specified times.

Explanation

In a Danger Area OCTA, pilots do not require clearance but need to be aware of potential dangerous activities that may be present during specified times.