Skin care Pigment Quiz

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Skin Care Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 1. 
    System which secretes and conducts tears:
    • A. 

      Sensory receptors

    • B. 

      Zonules

    • C. 

      Tarsal plate

    • D. 

      Lacrimal gland and ducts

  • 2. 
    The outer coat of the eye made up of transparent portion (cornea) and white:
    • A. 

      Sclera

    • B. 

      Retina

    • C. 

      Pupil

    • D. 

      Iris

  • 3. 
    Clear, jelly-like fluid in the posterior cavity of the eye which fills the vitreous body:
    • A. 

      Sensory receptors

    • B. 

      Lacrimal gland

    • C. 

      Aqueous humor

    • D. 

      Vitreous humor

  • 4. 
    Socket in the cranium in which the eyeball is partially sunk:
    • A. 

      Boney orbit

    • B. 

      Extrinsic eye muscle

    • C. 

      Intrinsic eye muscle

    • D. 

      Optic nerve

  • 5. 
    ______ is performed to treat an intraocular malignancy such as retinoblastoma and melanoma.
    • A. 

      Exenteration

    • B. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • C. 

      Enucleation

    • D. 

      Evisceration

  • 6. 
    Orbital decompression is most commonly indicated for:
    • A. 

      Hypothyroidism or Graves disease

    • B. 

      Traumatic fracture

    • C. 

      Postoperative infection

    • D. 

      Glaucoma

  • 7. 
    Ophthalmic muscle surgery is performed to correct deviation of the eye caused by:
    • A. 

      Blunt trauma

    • B. 

      Paralysis of the levator palpebrae muscle

    • C. 

      Deficient nerve stimulation

    • D. 

      Strabismus

  • 8. 
    Ectropion is the abnormal inversion of the:
    • A. 

      Eyelashes

    • B. 

      Bilateral upper eyelids

    • C. 

      Upper eyelids

    • D. 

      Lower eyelids

  • 9. 
    ___ is performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for the drainage of tears.
    • A. 

      Lacrimal duct probing

    • B. 

      Dacryocystorhinostomy

    • C. 

      Dacryocystitis

    • D. 

      Dacryocstocele

  • 10. 
    Clear, watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers in the front of the eye is called:
    • A. 

      Vitreous humor

    • B. 

      Choroid

    • C. 

      Aqueous humor

    • D. 

      Enucleation

  • 11. 
    A pigmented contractile membrane composed mainly of muscle tissue is known as the 
    • A. 

      Pupil

    • B. 

      Palpebral conjunctiva

    • C. 

      Lacrimal caruncle

    • D. 

      Iris

  • 12. 
    A process in which the lens continually changes shape to maintain the focus of an image on the retina 
    • A. 

      Anatomy

    • B. 

      Ophthalmic

    • C. 

      Accommodation

    • D. 

      Traction

  • 13. 
    The removal of the redundant folds of the skin of the eyelid and any herniated pockets of fat for cosmetic reasons
    • A. 

      Keratoplasty

    • B. 

      Iridectomy

    • C. 

      Blepharoplasty

    • D. 

      Cyclodialysis

  • 14. 
    Which of the following statements regarding ophthalmic sutures is true?
    • A. 

      Sutures are available in sizes 0 to 6-0

    • B. 

      Single-armed sutures are used

    • C. 

      Sutures should be handled as little as possible

    • D. 

      Double-armed suture are used to close puncture wounds

  • 15. 
    An example if an anti-inflammatory agent is:
    • A. 

      Miochol

    • B. 

      Pilocarpine

    • C. 

      Neosporin

    • D. 

      Depo-medrol

  • 16. 
    The drug given to prevent or treat infection
    • A. 

      Miochol

    • B. 

      Garamycin

    • C. 

      Cyclogel

    • D. 

      Lidocaine

  • 17. 
    The drug that should not be used on a patient with glaucoma
    • A. 

      Atropine

    • B. 

      Garamycin

    • C. 

      Miochol

    • D. 

      Pilocarpine

  • 18. 
    The drug that should never be injected
    • A. 

      Neo-synepherine

    • B. 

      Cocaine

    • C. 

      Decadron

    • D. 

      Neospring

  • 19. 
    Used to stain the cornea for detecting corneal abrasions and foreign bodies
    • A. 

      Bss

    • B. 

      Neo-synephrine

    • C. 

      Fluorescein-sodium

    • D. 

      Cocaine

  • 20. 
    The suture most common to ophthalmology
    • A. 

      4-0 to 10-0

    • B. 

      5-0 to 2

    • C. 

      2-7

    • D. 

      3-0

  • 21. 
    The piece of machinery that will almost always be in the OR for eye surgery:
    • A. 

      Phacoemulsifier

    • B. 

      Bovie

    • C. 

      Microscope

    • D. 

      Argon coagulator

  • 22. 
    When the surgeon is looking away from the field, the surgeon:
    • A. 

      Is able to take questions and discuss the next step

    • B. 

      Can lose concentration and the focus of the surgery

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 23. 
    Aqueous humor is found in the:
    • A. 

      Posterior chamber

    • B. 

      Crystalline lens

    • C. 

      Anterior chamber

    • D. 

      Pupil

  • 24. 
    The mucous membrane which line the eyelid and covers the anterior surface of the eye is:
    • A. 

      Conjunctiva

    • B. 

      Canthus

    • C. 

      Cornea

    • D. 

      Sclera

  • 25. 
    A procedure used to strengthen a weak muscle by excising a portion of the muscle and reattaching the remainder is:
    • A. 

      Myectomy

    • B. 

      Recession

    • C. 

      Resection

    • D. 

      Tucking

  • 26. 
    Which of the following statements about ophthalmic surgery is FALSE?
    • A. 

      Microscopes are used on most procedures

    • B. 

      All drapes and sponges should be lint-free

    • C. 

      Sutures sizes range from 0 to 20-0

    • D. 

      Local anesthesia is most commonly used

  • 27. 
    The most common benign eyelid tumor is:
    • A. 

      Chalazion

    • B. 

      Hordeolum

    • C. 

      Pteryglum

    • D. 

      Sty

  • 28. 
    The only prep that can be instilled in the eye is:
    • A. 

      Green soap

    • B. 

      5% sterile betaine solution

    • C. 

      Alcohol

    • D. 

      5% sterile betadine soap

  • 29. 
    A drug used to dilate the pupil is:
    • A. 

      Alpha-chumtrypsin

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Miotic

    • D. 

      Mydriatic

  • 30. 
    What is function of the iris?
    • A. 

      To alter the shape of the crystalline lens during accommodation

    • B. 

      To regulate the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil

    • C. 

      To produce tears

    • D. 

      To allow the optic nerve to carry visual impulses to the brain

  • 31. 
    Recession/resection is the surgical treatment for:
    • A. 

      Cataract

    • B. 

      Glaucoma

    • C. 

      Strabismus

    • D. 

      Retinal detachment

  • 32. 
    Which of the following uses heat to coagulate or destroy tissue?
    • A. 

      Phacoemulsifer

    • B. 

      Endo photocoagulation

    • C. 

      Cryotherapy

    • D. 

      Diathermy

  • 33. 
    Phacoemulsification is one method of:
    • A. 

      Removing an opaque lens

    • B. 

      Opening a blocked tear duct

    • C. 

      Treating glaucoma

    • D. 

      Measuring intraocular pressure

  • 34. 
    What instrument is used to remove the recipient cornea during keratoplasty?
    • A. 

      Clotting punch

    • B. 

      Oscillating knife

    • C. 

      Trephine

    • D. 

      Keratose

  • 35. 
    Which of the following is NOT a bone of the orbit?
    • A. 

      Ethmoid

    • B. 

      Spheniod

    • C. 

      Mandible

    • D. 

      Maxilla

  • 36. 
    An operation that is performed when the sensory layer of the retina and the pigment epithelium layer become separated from each other is called:
    • A. 

      Scleral buckling

    • B. 

      Cataract extraction

    • C. 

      Vitreous replacement

    • D. 

      Keratoplasty

  • 37. 
    Eye sponges made of lint-free _____ or similar material.
    • A. 

      Cellulose

    • B. 

      Absorption

    • C. 

      Pneumostatic

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 38. 
    Most ophthalmic surgery is performed using a regional anesthetic with monitored sedation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    Cryotherapy involves the utilization of:
    • A. 

      Radiation

    • B. 

      Heat

    • C. 

      Cold

    • D. 

      Electrocautery

  • 40. 
    A soft dressing or hard ____ may be used to protect the eye after surgery.
    • A. 

      Shield

    • B. 

      Splint

    • C. 

      Scope

    • D. 

      Rubber

  • 41. 
    The ______ is performed to remove diseased portions of the astral wall, evacuate the sinus contents, and establish drainage throughout the nose.
    • A. 

      Caldwell-luc

    • B. 

      Septoplasty

    • C. 

      Turbinectomy

    • D. 

      Tympanoplasty

  • 42. 
    At what age is a cochlear implant contraindicated in children?
    • A. 

      Under 3 years old

    • B. 

      Under 2 years old

    • C. 

      More than 5 years old

    • D. 

      Not contraindicated in children, regardless of their air

  • 43. 
    The _____ transmits the vibrations of the TM and the other ossicles to the inner ear via the oval window.
    • A. 

      Malleus

    • B. 

      Incus

    • C. 

      Anvil

    • D. 

      Stapes

  • 44. 
    A suction device is used to remove the morcellated tissue. 
    • A. 

      #10 poole

    • B. 

      #11 frazier

    • C. 

      #9 yankauer

    • D. 

      #11 taylor

  • 45. 
    Myringoplasty is performed to close a small, nonhealing hole in the _____
    • A. 

      RW

    • B. 

      ME

    • C. 

      OV

    • D. 

      TM

  • 46. 
    The thread gland is located in the mid neck and overlies the trachea below the larynx, has two cones which are connected by a control band of thyroid tissue called the _____
    • A. 

      Ishthmus

    • B. 

      Submandibular fascia

    • C. 

      Thyroid parichirium

    • D. 

      Crichoid

  • 47. 
    Earwax is known as ____
    • A. 

      Cerumen

    • B. 

      Epistaxis

    • C. 

      Cholesteatoma

    • D. 

      Keratin

  • 48. 
    The primary reason for performing an adeniodectomy are ____ infection and obstruction caused by hypertrophy of the tissue.
    • A. 

      Chronic

    • B. 

      Mild

    • C. 

      High

    • D. 

      Low

  • 49. 
    Cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction, neoplasm, or congenital malformation of the middle ear may block airflow to the mastoid and cause chronic _____
    • A. 

      Mastoiditis

    • B. 

      Otitis media

    • C. 

      Labyrinthitis

    • D. 

      Senioritis

  • 50. 
    The middle ear extends from the TM to the medial wall of the middle ear cleft. It includes the TM _____, ______, ______. 
    • A. 

      Malleus, cochlea, stapes

    • B. 

      Malleus, stapes, incus

    • C. 

      Malleus, saccule, incus

    • D. 

      Malleus, semicircular canals, incus

  • 51. 
    Give the name of the bones of the middle ear that conduct sound.
    • A. 

      Tympanic membrane

    • B. 

      Ossicles

    • C. 

      Temporal bone

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 52. 
    Ear infection of the ear is called
    • A. 

      Otitis media

    • B. 

      Serous otitis media

    • C. 

      Impacted cerumen

    • D. 

      Otitis externa

  • 53. 
    Gel foam, heliostats and surgicel are identified as
    • A. 

      Bacteriostatic agents

    • B. 

      Hemostatic agents

    • C. 

      Anticoagulant agents

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 54. 
    What instruments is utilized as a diagnostic tool to examine the ear?
    • A. 

      Cotton q-tip

    • B. 

      Microscope

    • C. 

      Ear loop

    • D. 

      Otoscope

  • 55. 
    The surgical removal of a cholesteatoma and mastoid bone with or without reconstruction is called
    • A. 

      Tympanoplasty

    • B. 

      Myringoplasty

    • C. 

      Turbinectomy

    • D. 

      Not related

  • 56. 
    During a tracheostomy, the ____ is kept with the patient in his or her room.
    • A. 

      Obturator

    • B. 

      Primary tube

    • C. 

      Ballon syringe

    • D. 

      Universal connector

  • 57. 
    In positioning the patient in supine, what other special equipment is utilized to stabilize the head and prevent pressure on the opposite ear, as per surgeon's preference card?
    • A. 

      Stack of towels

    • B. 

      Donut

    • C. 

      Rolled towel under neck

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 58. 
    This dressing is prepackaged, composed of gauze sponges with straps to secure the dressing in the place called
    • A. 

      Jones dressing

    • B. 

      Glasscock dressing

    • C. 

      Mastoid dressing

    • D. 

      Martin dressing

  • 59. 
    Name the cranial nerve for the nose, for sense of smell
    • A. 

      Olfactory (I)

    • B. 

      Trochlear (IV)

    • C. 

      Vagus (X)

    • D. 

      Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

  • 60. 
    Who is responsible for proper assembly and safe management of the pneumatic power drill?
    • A. 

      Sterile processing tech

    • B. 

      Surgical tech

    • C. 

      Circulator

    • D. 

      Company

  • 61. 
    The neck is anatomically divided into triangles for 
    • A. 

      Identification

    • B. 

      Division

    • C. 

      Labeling

    • D. 

      Classification

  • 62. 
    The ______ and the periosteum are elevated with a freer elevator and tenotomy scissors
    • A. 

      Perichondrium

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 63. 
    Most endoscopic procedures of the nose are performed to treat ______. 
    • A. 

      Inflammatory or infectious diseases

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 64. 
    A cochlear implant is used to transmit external sound directly to the 
    • A. 

      8th cranial nerve

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 65. 
    An incision is made in the _____ below an obstruction with a #15 blade
    • A. 

      Nasal septum

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 66. 
    What vasoconstrictor medication is utilized for the nose, mouth, and throat?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 67. 
    Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?
    • A. 

      Wilde forceps

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 68. 
    The lower jaw bone is the 
    • A. 

      Maxilla

    • B. 

      Mandible

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 69. 
    Mid face advancement is performed to correct a bony deformity of the 
    • A. 

      Maxilla

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 70. 
    Which of the following best describe a LeFort 1 fracture?
    • A. 

      Alveolar process of the maxilla is horizontally separated from the base of the skull

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 71. 
    The face is divided into which of the following three parts?
    • A. 

      Medial face, distal face, and proximal face

    • B. 

      Superior face, inferior face, and medial face

    • C. 

      Upper face, mid face, and lower face

    • D. 

      Superior face, mid face, and inferior face

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is a purpose of arch bars?
    • A. 

      Stabilize the sphenoid bone

    • B. 

      Stabilize the maxillary bones

    • C. 

      Stabilize the zygomatic bones

    • D. 

      Stabilize the palatine bones

  • 73. 
    What is the most common type of mid face fracture?
    • A. 

      LeFort 1

    • B. 

      Frontal

    • C. 

      Zygomatic

    • D. 

      Orbital

  • 74. 
    The LeFort _____ fracture is pyramidal. It extends from the nasal bone, to the frontal processes of the maxilla, lacrimal bones, and inferior orbital floor, and may extend into the orbital foramen. Inferiorly, it extends into the anterior maxillary sinus, and into the pyterygoid plates. 
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      I

  • 75. 
    Thyroid hormones (THs) are necessary for regulating digestion and temperature
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    _____ focuses on reconstruction and repairs of the facial bones and may include structures of the cavity. 
    • A. 

      Odontectomy

    • B. 

      OMF (oromaxillofacial)

    • C. 

      TMJ arthoplasty

    • D. 

      Dental implant surgery

  • 77. 
    Patients may frequently experience _____ after ORIF procedures from wearing eye shield and use of antibiotics. 
    • A. 

      Dry eyes

    • B. 

      Temporary blindness

    • C. 

      Blurred vision

    • D. 

      Double vision

  • 78. 
    What dictates that arch bars must be tighten in a clockwise fashion so that any other surgeon know how to remove them in a counterclockwise direction. 
    • A. 

      Operating room policy

    • B. 

      AORN

    • C. 

      Surgeon's preference card

    • D. 

      Standard protocol

  • 79. 
    A glassectomy is almost combines with a total laryngectomy to treat laryngeal metastasis or problem with aspiration.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
    What size stainless steel used do you need for a MMF?
    • A. 

      24 gauge

    • B. 

      28 gauge

    • C. 

      20 gauge

    • D. 

      16 gauge

  • 81. 
    ______ is characterized by persistent pain and is usually associated with stress related muscle tension and grinding of the teeth, malocclusion, trauma or arthritis.
    • A. 

      Maxillary defect

    • B. 

      Congenital defect

    • C. 

      TMJ disease

    • D. 

      Mandibular defect

  • 82. 
    Many ____ have 2 hinges, these are identified as double action surgical instruments. 
    • A. 

      Membrane

    • B. 

      Rongeurs

    • C. 

      Bone crusher

    • D. 

      Osteotomes

  • 83. 
    One of the fundamental goals of any maxillomandibular procedure is to preserve the patient's _____ between the mandible, maxilla, and mid face bones. 
    • A. 

      Facial structure

    • B. 

      Dentition

    • C. 

      Facial nerves

    • D. 

      Unique bite pattern

  • 84. 
    In LeFort _____ fractures there is a separation of all facial bones from their cranial base. It includes fracture of the zygoma, maxilla, and nasal bones. The fracture line extends through the ethmoid bone and bony orbit with severe facial flattening swelling. 
    • A. 

      II

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      III

  • 85. 
    The submandibular gland may be removed because of chronic infection, stone formation, or neoplasm. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    What forms the lateral walls and floors of the boney orbit, which houses the eyeball?
    • A. 

      Zygoma

    • B. 

      Nasal bone

    • C. 

      Mandible

    • D. 

      Ethmoid

  • 87. 
    _____ are the primary means of repairing facial fractures. (HINT: comes in sets)
    • A. 

      Plates and screws

    • B. 

      Dental implants and bone grafts

    • C. 

      All the above

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    Before repairing of the frontal sinus fractures, the sinus mucosa must be removed and the duct occluded. The sinus is then often filled with a ______.
    • A. 

      Fat graft

    • B. 

      Bone graft

    • C. 

      Micro mesh plate

    • D. 

      Mecocele

  • 89. 
    What is another name for orbital floor fractures?
    • A. 

      LeFort fracture

    • B. 

      Socket fracture

    • C. 

      Blowout

    • D. 

      Maxillomandibular fracture

  • 90. 
    _____ of injury or congenital anomalies can affect speech, mastication (chewing) and develop of the teeth (HINT: patients concern). 
    • A. 

      Applying arch bars for the repair

    • B. 

      Using dental implants for the repair

    • C. 

      Orthodental repair

    • D. 

      The repair itself

    • E. 

      Long term physiological affect

  • 91. 
    Arch bars are fixed into position with:
    • A. 

      Wire

    • B. 

      Plates and screws

    • C. 

      External fixation device

    • D. 

      Dressing material

  • 92. 
    The ____ must keep track of all plates and screws that are used during surgery for the purpose of charging and documentation
    • A. 

      Surgeon

    • B. 

      Sterile processing technologist

    • C. 

      Surgical technologist

    • D. 

      Charge nurse

  • 93. 
    Facial fractures are prepped with butadiene scrub paint. The entire face is peeped from the hairline to 
    • A. 

      Mandible

    • B. 

      Chin

    • C. 

      Sternal notch

    • D. 

      Maxilla

  • 94. 
    Bart Simpson had MMF procedure done. The patient is stable; was taken to the PACU, what needs to be taken with him and kept on his person?
    • A. 

      Wire pliers

    • B. 

      Wire cutters

    • C. 

      Wireless band

    • D. 

      Wire twisters

  • 95. 
    Which of the following diagnostic imaging methods provides images of boney defect?
    • A. 

      MRI

    • B. 

      CT scan

    • C. 

      Ultrasonography

    • D. 

      Isotope scanning