Skin care Pigment Quiz

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1. Ectropion is the abnormal inversion of the:

Explanation

Ectropion refers to the abnormal outward turning or sagging of the lower eyelids. This condition causes the eyelid to be unable to fully close, leading to exposure of the inner surface of the eyelid and potential eye dryness or irritation. The other options are incorrect as ectropion specifically pertains to the lower eyelids and not the upper eyelids or eyelashes.

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About This Quiz
Eye Quizzes & Trivia

The Skin Care pigment quiz assesses knowledge on eye anatomy and related medical procedures. It covers topics such as the lacrimal system, sclera, vitreous humor, and surgical interventions... see morefor eye diseases, enhancing understanding crucial for medical studies. see less

2. A cochlear implant is used to transmit external sound directly to the 

Explanation

A cochlear implant is a medical device that is used to help individuals with severe hearing loss or deafness. It bypasses the damaged parts of the ear and directly stimulates the auditory nerve, which is also known as the 8th cranial nerve. By transmitting external sound signals directly to the auditory nerve, a cochlear implant can help individuals perceive sound and improve their ability to communicate and understand speech.

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3. Aqueous humor is found in the:

Explanation

The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that fills the anterior chamber of the eye, which is the space between the cornea and the iris. It provides nourishment to the cornea and lens, helps maintain the shape of the eye, and regulates intraocular pressure. The posterior chamber is located behind the iris and in front of the lens, and it contains a different fluid called vitreous humor. The crystalline lens is a transparent structure located behind the iris and is responsible for focusing light onto the retina. The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris that allows light to enter the eye.

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4. An operation that is performed when the sensory layer of the retina and the pigment epithelium layer become separated from each other is called:

Explanation

Scleral buckling is a surgical procedure performed when the sensory layer of the retina and the pigment epithelium layer become separated from each other. This procedure involves placing a silicone or plastic band around the outer wall of the eye (sclera) to push the retina back into its normal position and reattach it to the underlying tissue. This helps to restore vision and prevent further damage to the retina. Cataract extraction, vitreous replacement, and keratoplasty are unrelated procedures and do not address the separation of these retinal layers.

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5. The most common benign eyelid tumor is:

Explanation

A chalazion is a common benign eyelid tumor characterized by a painless, slow-growing lump on the eyelid. It occurs when the oil glands in the eyelid become blocked, leading to the formation of a cyst. Chalazions are typically not painful and can be treated with warm compresses, gentle massage, and sometimes antibiotic ointments or steroid injections. Unlike hordeolum (also known as a stye), which is an infection of the eyelid glands and causes a painful, red bump, a chalazion is usually painless and more chronic in nature. Pteryglum is a growth on the conjunctiva, not the eyelid, making it an incorrect option.

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6. One of the fundamental goals of any maxillomandibular procedure is to preserve the patient's _____ between the mandible, maxilla, and mid face bones. 

Explanation

In maxillomandibular procedures, the preservation of the patient's dentition is a fundamental goal. This refers to the patient's teeth, including their alignment, occlusion, and overall oral health. Preserving the dentition is important to maintain proper chewing function, aesthetics, and overall oral health. It also ensures that the patient's bite pattern remains intact, which is essential for proper jaw movement and alignment.

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7. The removal of the redundant folds of the skin of the eyelid and any herniated pockets of fat for cosmetic reasons

Explanation

Blepharoplasty is a surgical procedure that involves removing excess skin and fat from the eyelid to improve its appearance. It is commonly performed for cosmetic reasons to eliminate redundant folds of skin and correct herniated pockets of fat. This procedure can help rejuvenate the eyelids, making them appear smoother and more youthful. Keratoplasty, iridectomy, and cyclodialysis are unrelated to the removal of redundant folds of skin and herniated fat in the eyelid.

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8. Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal polyps?

Explanation

Wilde forceps would be used to remove nasal polyps. These forceps are a specialized instrument designed for grasping and removing tissue, such as polyps, from the nasal cavity. They have a long, slender shape with a curved tip that allows for precise and controlled maneuvering in the nasal passages. By using the wilde forceps, healthcare professionals can safely and effectively remove nasal polyps, improving breathing and reducing symptoms for the patient.

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9. Mid face advancement is performed to correct a bony deformity of the 

Explanation

Mid face advancement is a surgical procedure that is used to correct a bony deformity of the maxilla. The maxilla is the upper jawbone, and if it is misaligned or protruding, it can cause aesthetic and functional issues. Mid face advancement involves repositioning the maxilla to improve facial symmetry and balance. This procedure is commonly used in cases of maxillary hypoplasia or retrusion, where the maxilla is underdeveloped or recessed. By advancing the maxilla, the facial profile can be improved, and any associated breathing or chewing difficulties can be alleviated.

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10. Which of the following best describe a LeFort 1 fracture?

Explanation

A LeFort 1 fracture is a type of facial fracture where the alveolar process of the maxilla (the upper jaw) is horizontally separated from the base of the skull. This type of fracture typically occurs due to a significant impact to the face, such as in a car accident or a fall. It is important to diagnose and treat LeFort 1 fractures promptly to prevent complications and restore proper function and appearance of the facial structures.

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11. A soft dressing or hard ____ may be used to protect the eye after surgery.

Explanation

After eye surgery, it is important to protect the eye from any external damage or pressure. A soft dressing or a hard shield can be used for this purpose. A shield is a protective device that covers and safeguards the eye, preventing any accidental contact or injury. It acts as a barrier between the eye and the external environment, ensuring proper healing and recovery after surgery. Therefore, a shield is the most suitable option for protecting the eye post-surgery.

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12. At what age is a cochlear implant contraindicated in children?

Explanation

A cochlear implant is contraindicated in children under 2 years old. This means that it is not recommended or advised to perform a cochlear implant surgery on children who are younger than 2 years old. This could be due to various factors such as the child's developmental stage, the potential risks involved, or the effectiveness of the implant at such a young age.

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13. A suction device is used to remove the morcellated tissue. 

Explanation

The correct answer is #11 frazier. A Frazier suction device is commonly used in surgical procedures to remove small fragments of tissue, including morcellated tissue. This device has a narrow, tapered tip that allows for precise suctioning and is often used in neurosurgery and other delicate procedures. The other options, such as the Poole suction, Yankauer suction, and Taylor suction, are different types of suction devices that may be used for other purposes in surgery.

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14. What is function of the iris?

Explanation

The iris is responsible for regulating the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil. It acts like a camera aperture, adjusting the size of the pupil to control the amount of light that reaches the retina. In bright light, the iris contracts, making the pupil smaller to reduce the amount of light entering the eye. In dim light, the iris expands, making the pupil larger to allow more light to enter. This helps to protect the sensitive retina from excessive light and optimize visual clarity in different lighting conditions.

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15. The surgical removal of a cholesteatoma and mastoid bone with or without reconstruction is called

Explanation

Tympanoplasty is the correct answer because it involves the surgical removal of a cholesteatoma, which is a type of abnormal skin growth in the middle ear. Additionally, the procedure may also involve the removal of the mastoid bone and reconstruction of the middle ear. Myringoplasty is a different surgical procedure that specifically focuses on repairing a perforated eardrum, while turbinectomy is the surgical removal of nasal turbinates to treat certain nasal conditions. Therefore, these options are not related to the surgical removal of a cholesteatoma and mastoid bone.

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16. The suture most common to ophthalmology

Explanation

The correct answer is 4-0 to 10-0. In ophthalmology, sutures of varying sizes are used depending on the specific procedure and the delicate nature of the eye. The range of 4-0 to 10-0 refers to the size of the suture thread, with 4-0 being thicker and 10-0 being thinner. These sutures are used for different purposes, such as closing incisions, repairing tissues, and securing implants. The smaller the number, the thinner the suture, allowing for more precise and delicate work in ophthalmic surgeries.

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17. When the surgeon is looking away from the field, the surgeon:

Explanation

When the surgeon is looking away from the field, they can lose concentration and the focus of the surgery. This is because the surgeon needs to maintain a constant focus on the surgical field to ensure accuracy and precision during the procedure. Any distractions or loss of focus can potentially lead to errors or complications during the surgery. Therefore, it is important for the surgeon to remain fully engaged and attentive to the task at hand.

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18. Which of the following is a purpose of arch bars?

Explanation

Arch bars are used to stabilize the maxillary bones. They are commonly used in oral and maxillofacial surgery to immobilize and align fractured maxillary bones, particularly in cases of maxillary fractures or jaw dislocation. Arch bars act as a rigid framework that holds the maxillary bones in place, allowing for proper healing and alignment. They are typically secured to the teeth using wires or screws, providing stability and support to the fractured bones during the healing process.

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19. Most endoscopic procedures of the nose are performed to treat ______. 

Explanation

Endoscopic procedures of the nose are commonly used to treat inflammatory or infectious diseases. These procedures allow doctors to visualize and access the nasal cavity and sinuses, enabling them to remove obstructions, drain fluids, and treat infections. By using an endoscope, which is a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera attached, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat conditions such as sinusitis, nasal polyps, chronic rhinosinusitis, and fungal infections. These procedures are minimally invasive and offer a faster recovery time compared to traditional surgical techniques.

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20. The mucous membrane which line the eyelid and covers the anterior surface of the eye is:

Explanation

The correct answer is conjunctiva. The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent mucous membrane that lines the inside of the eyelids and covers the anterior surface of the eye. It helps to protect the eye from foreign particles and lubricates the surface of the eye, allowing for smooth movement of the eyelids.

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21. What instrument is used to remove the recipient cornea during keratoplasty?

Explanation

A trephine is a surgical instrument that is commonly used in keratoplasty to remove the recipient cornea. It is a circular blade that is used to create a precise and uniform circular cut in the cornea, allowing for the transplantation of a donor cornea. The trephine ensures that the donor cornea fits properly and securely in the recipient's eye, promoting successful healing and visual outcomes. The other options, clotting punch, oscillating knife, and keratose, are not typically used in this procedure.

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22. ___ is performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for the drainage of tears.

Explanation

Dacryocystorhinostomy is performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for the drainage of tears. This procedure is typically done when there is a blockage or narrowing in the tear duct that prevents tears from draining properly. By creating a new opening between the tear duct and the nasal cavity, tears are able to flow freely and alleviate symptoms such as excessive tearing, recurrent eye infections, and swelling around the tear duct. Dacryocystorhinostomy is considered a more permanent solution compared to other procedures like lacrimal duct probing, which is a temporary measure to clear a blockage.

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23. Clear, watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers in the front of the eye is called:

Explanation

The clear, watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers in the front of the eye is called aqueous humor. It is produced by the ciliary body and helps maintain the shape of the eye, nourish the cornea and lens, and regulate intraocular pressure. Aqueous humor is constantly being produced and drained out of the eye to maintain a balance.

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24. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the orbit?

Explanation

The mandible is not a bone of the orbit. The orbit is the bony socket that houses the eyeball, and it is formed by several bones including the ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxilla. The mandible, also known as the jawbone, is not part of the orbit. It is a separate bone that forms the lower jaw and is responsible for movements such as chewing and talking.

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25. In LeFort _____ fractures there is a separation of all facial bones from their cranial base. It includes fracture of the zygoma, maxilla, and nasal bones. The fracture line extends through the ethmoid bone and bony orbit with severe facial flattening swelling. 

Explanation

LeFort III fractures are characterized by a separation of all facial bones from their cranial base. This type of fracture involves the zygoma, maxilla, and nasal bones, and the fracture line extends through the ethmoid bone and bony orbit. The severity of the fracture is evident by the severe facial flattening and swelling. Therefore, the correct answer is III.

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26. A procedure used to strengthen a weak muscle by excising a portion of the muscle and reattaching the remainder is:

Explanation

Resection is a procedure used to strengthen a weak muscle by removing a portion of the muscle and then reattaching the remaining part. This helps to improve the overall function and strength of the muscle. Myectomy involves the removal of a muscle, which is not the correct procedure for strengthening a weak muscle. Recession refers to the surgical lengthening of a muscle, which is also not the correct procedure. Tucking is not a medical term related to muscle strengthening procedures.

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27. Which of the following statements about ophthalmic surgery is FALSE?

Explanation

The statement "sutures sizes range from 0 to 20-0" is false. Suture sizes used in ophthalmic surgery typically range from 9-0 to 12-0, with smaller numbers indicating finer sutures. The range mentioned in the statement is incorrect.

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28. An incision is made in the _____ below an obstruction with a #15 blade

Explanation

An incision is made in the nasal septum below an obstruction with a #15 blade.

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29. The submandibular gland may be removed because of chronic infection, stone formation, or neoplasm. 

Explanation

The submandibular gland may be removed due to chronic infection, stone formation, or neoplasm. These conditions can cause significant discomfort and complications if left untreated. In cases of chronic infection, removal of the gland may be necessary to prevent the spread of infection to other areas. Stone formation can lead to blockage of the salivary ducts, causing pain and swelling. Neoplasms, or abnormal growths, in the gland may be benign or malignant and may require removal for further evaluation and treatment. Therefore, the statement is true.

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30. What forms the lateral walls and floors of the boney orbit, which houses the eyeball?

Explanation

The zygoma forms the lateral walls and floors of the boney orbit, which houses the eyeball. The zygoma is also known as the cheekbone and it connects the maxilla (upper jawbone) to the temporal bone (part of the skull). Its shape and position contribute to the structure and protection of the eyeball within the orbit.

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31. Patients may frequently experience _____ after ORIF procedures from wearing eye shield and use of antibiotics. 

Explanation

After undergoing ORIF procedures, patients may frequently experience blurred vision due to wearing an eye shield and the use of antibiotics. The eye shield can cause temporary vision impairment by obstructing the normal field of vision and causing the eyes to adjust to the shield's presence. Additionally, certain antibiotics can have side effects that include blurred vision. Therefore, it is not uncommon for patients to report blurred vision as a result of these factors.

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32. _____ are the primary means of repairing facial fractures. (HINT: comes in sets)

Explanation

Plates and screws are the primary means of repairing facial fractures. These medical devices are commonly used in orthopedic surgery to stabilize fractured bones and promote healing. The plates are attached to the bone with screws, providing stability and support to the fractured area. This method allows for proper alignment of the bones and helps restore normal facial function and appearance. Dental implants and bone grafts may be used in other types of facial reconstruction surgeries, but they are not the primary means of repairing facial fractures. Therefore, the correct answer is plates and screws.

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33. What dictates that arch bars must be tighten in a clockwise fashion so that any other surgeon know how to remove them in a counterclockwise direction. 

Explanation

The correct answer is standard protocol. Standard protocols are established guidelines and procedures that are followed in various medical settings. In this case, the standard protocol dictates that arch bars must be tightened in a clockwise fashion. This ensures that any other surgeon who needs to remove them in the future knows to do so in a counterclockwise direction. Following standard protocols helps maintain consistency and ensures that all healthcare professionals are on the same page when it comes to procedures and practices.

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34. Arch bars are fixed into position with:

Explanation

Arch bars are used in maxillofacial surgery to immobilize the upper and lower jaws. They are fixed into position using wires, which are tightly secured around the teeth. These wires help to align and stabilize the jaws during the healing process. Plates and screws are commonly used in orthopedic surgeries, but they are not typically used for fixing arch bars. External fixation devices are used to stabilize fractures in long bones, not in the jaws. Dressing materials are used to cover wounds and promote healing, but they are not used to fix arch bars in position.

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35. A glassectomy is almost combines with a total laryngectomy to treat laryngeal metastasis or problem with aspiration.

Explanation

A glassectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tongue. It is often combined with a total laryngectomy, which is the removal of the larynx, to treat laryngeal metastasis or problems with aspiration. This combination of surgeries allows for the removal of both the tongue and the larynx, addressing the underlying issues and providing a comprehensive treatment approach. Therefore, the statement "A glassectomy is almost combined with a total laryngectomy to treat laryngeal metastasis or problem with aspiration" is true.

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36. A pigmented contractile membrane composed mainly of muscle tissue is known as the 

Explanation

The iris is a pigmented contractile membrane composed mainly of muscle tissue. It is responsible for controlling the size of the pupil, which regulates the amount of light that enters the eye. The iris also gives the eye its color and helps protect the internal structures of the eye.

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37. What size stainless steel used do you need for a MMF?

Explanation

The question is asking for the size of stainless steel needed for a MMF (which is not defined in the question). The answer provided is 24 gauge. This means that a 24 gauge stainless steel is the appropriate size for a MMF, although it is unclear what the specific requirements or specifications of the MMF are.

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38. ______ is characterized by persistent pain and is usually associated with stress related muscle tension and grinding of the teeth, malocclusion, trauma or arthritis.

Explanation

TMJ disease refers to a condition characterized by persistent pain in the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). It is usually associated with stress-related muscle tension, grinding of the teeth, malocclusion, trauma, or arthritis. This condition affects the joint that connects the jawbone to the skull, causing discomfort and difficulty in jaw movement.

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39. The ____ must keep track of all plates and screws that are used during surgery for the purpose of charging and documentation

Explanation

A surgical technologist is responsible for assisting in surgeries and ensuring that all necessary equipment, including plates and screws, are accounted for during the procedure. They play a crucial role in maintaining the inventory and documentation of these items, which is important for charging the patient and keeping accurate records. The surgeon focuses on performing the surgery itself, while the sterile processing technologist is responsible for sterilizing and preparing the instruments. The charge nurse oversees the overall management of the unit but is not directly involved in keeping track of surgical equipment. Therefore, the surgical technologist is the most appropriate choice for this task.

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40. Many ____ have 2 hinges, these are identified as double action surgical instruments. 

Explanation

Rongeurs are surgical instruments commonly used in orthopedic and neurosurgical procedures. They have two hinges that allow for a double action movement, making them suitable for cutting and removing bone or tissue. This design feature enables surgeons to have better control and precision during surgical procedures. Therefore, rongeurs are identified as double action surgical instruments.

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41. Before repairing of the frontal sinus fractures, the sinus mucosa must be removed and the duct occluded. The sinus is then often filled with a ______.

Explanation

In order to repair frontal sinus fractures, it is necessary to remove the sinus mucosa and block the duct. After this, the sinus is typically filled with a fat graft. This is done to provide support and stability to the repaired area, as well as to promote healing and prevent further complications. Fat grafts are commonly used in reconstructive surgery due to their availability, ease of harvesting, and ability to integrate well with surrounding tissues.

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42. The thread gland is located in the mid neck and overlies the trachea below the larynx, has two cones which are connected by a control band of thyroid tissue called the _____

Explanation

The thread gland, also known as the thyroid gland, is located in the mid neck and overlies the trachea below the larynx. It consists of two cones, and these cones are connected by a control band of thyroid tissue called the isthmus.

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43. Earwax is known as ____

Explanation

Earwax is known as cerumen. Cerumen is a waxy substance produced by the ear canal to protect the ear from dust, dirt, and bacteria. It helps to lubricate the ear canal and prevent it from drying out. Cerumen also acts as a natural barrier against insects and water, preventing them from entering the ear. It is a normal and necessary substance for the health and function of the ears.

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44. The primary reason for performing an adeniodectomy are ____ infection and obstruction caused by hypertrophy of the tissue.

Explanation

An adenoidectomy is performed primarily for chronic infection and obstruction caused by hypertrophy of the tissue. Chronic infection refers to a long-lasting or recurring infection, which can lead to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, snoring, and recurrent ear infections. Hypertrophy of the adenoid tissue refers to an abnormal enlargement of the adenoids, which can also cause obstruction and breathing difficulties. Therefore, chronic infection and obstruction caused by hypertrophy are the main reasons for performing an adenoidectomy.

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45. A process in which the lens continually changes shape to maintain the focus of an image on the retina 

Explanation

Accommodation refers to the process in which the lens of the eye adjusts its shape to maintain focus on an image as it moves closer or farther away from the eye. This is important for clear vision at different distances. The lens becomes thicker or thinner, allowing it to refract light and bring it to a point of focus on the retina. This ability of the lens to change shape is necessary for the eye to adjust its focus and see objects clearly at varying distances.

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46. What vasoconstrictor medication is utilized for the nose, mouth, and throat?

Explanation

Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor medication that is commonly used for the nose, mouth, and throat. Vasoconstrictors work by narrowing the blood vessels, reducing swelling and congestion in these areas. Epinephrine is often used in nasal sprays, throat lozenges, and mouthwashes to provide relief from symptoms such as nasal congestion, sore throat, and inflammation. It helps to constrict the blood vessels, reducing inflammation and improving breathing and comfort in the affected areas.

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47. Which of the following statements regarding ophthalmic sutures is true?

Explanation

It is important to handle ophthalmic sutures as little as possible to minimize the risk of contamination and damage to the delicate eye tissues. Excessive handling can introduce bacteria or cause the suture to fray, which can lead to infection or poor wound healing. Therefore, it is crucial to minimize handling and ensure proper aseptic technique when using ophthalmic sutures.

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48. Eye sponges made of lint-free _____ or similar material.

Explanation

Eye sponges made of lint-free cellulose or similar material are used because cellulose is a highly absorbent and soft material. It is able to effectively absorb fluids and debris from the eye without leaving any lint or fibers behind. This makes it safe and suitable for use in delicate areas such as the eye. Cellulose is also biodegradable, making it an environmentally friendly option for eye sponges.

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49. Most ophthalmic surgery is performed using a regional anesthetic with monitored sedation.

Explanation

Most ophthalmic surgeries, such as cataract surgery or glaucoma surgery, are performed using a regional anesthetic with monitored sedation. Regional anesthesia involves numbing a specific area of the body, in this case, the eye and surrounding tissues, to block pain signals. Monitored sedation is used to keep the patient relaxed and comfortable during the procedure. This combination of regional anesthesia and monitored sedation allows for a safer and more controlled surgical experience for the patient. Therefore, the statement "Most ophthalmic surgery is performed using a regional anesthetic with monitored sedation" is true.

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50. The lower jaw bone is the 

Explanation

The lower jaw bone is called the mandible. The mandible is the largest and strongest bone in the face and forms the lower part of the skull. It is connected to the skull by the temporomandibular joint and is responsible for movements involved in chewing, speaking, and swallowing. The mandible also houses the lower teeth and provides support for the muscles of the face and mouth.

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51. Bart Simpson had MMF procedure done. The patient is stable; was taken to the PACU, what needs to be taken with him and kept on his person?

Explanation

After undergoing the MMF procedure, Bart Simpson is stable and is being taken to the PACU (Post-Anesthesia Care Unit). Since the procedure involves the use of wires to stabilize the jaw, it is essential to have wire cutters with him. This is because wire cutters are necessary to remove or adjust the wires if needed, ensuring the patient's comfort and safety during the recovery process.

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52. Cryotherapy involves the utilization of:

Explanation

Cryotherapy involves the utilization of cold temperatures to treat various conditions. It is a therapeutic technique that uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy abnormal tissues or cells. This can be done through the application of ice packs, ice baths, or specialized equipment that delivers controlled cold temperatures to specific areas of the body. Cold therapy helps to reduce inflammation, numb pain, and promote healing by constricting blood vessels and slowing down cellular metabolism. It is commonly used in sports medicine, dermatology, and other medical fields for its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.

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53. Cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction, neoplasm, or congenital malformation of the middle ear may block airflow to the mastoid and cause chronic _____

Explanation

Cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction, neoplasm, or congenital malformation of the middle ear can all obstruct the airflow to the mastoid, leading to a chronic condition known as mastoiditis. This inflammation of the mastoid bone can cause symptoms such as pain, swelling, and discharge from the ear. It is typically associated with a previous or ongoing infection of the middle ear, known as otitis media. Labyrinthitis refers to inflammation of the inner ear, which is a separate condition. Senioritis is not a medical term and is unrelated to the given context.

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54. The middle ear extends from the TM to the medial wall of the middle ear cleft. It includes the TM _____, ______, ______. 

Explanation

The middle ear extends from the TM (tympanic membrane) to the medial wall of the middle ear cleft. It includes the malleus, stapes, and incus. These are the three small bones in the middle ear known as the ossicles. The malleus is attached to the TM and transmits sound vibrations to the incus. The incus then passes the vibrations to the stapes, which in turn sends them to the inner ear. These three bones work together to amplify and transmit sound from the outer ear to the inner ear.

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55. The only prep that can be instilled in the eye is:

Explanation

The correct answer is 5% sterile betaine solution because it is the only option that can be safely instilled in the eye. Green soap and alcohol are not suitable for use in the eye as they can cause irritation and damage to the delicate tissues. Betadine soap is also not recommended for use in the eye as it is too strong and can be harmful. Betaine solution, on the other hand, is a mild and sterile solution that is commonly used for eye irrigation and cleansing.

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56. The _____ transmits the vibrations of the TM and the other ossicles to the inner ear via the oval window.

Explanation

The stapes is the correct answer because it is the third bone in the middle ear, also known as the stirrup. Its main function is to transmit the vibrations received from the tympanic membrane and the other ossicles (malleus and incus) to the inner ear through the oval window. This transmission of vibrations is crucial for the process of hearing.

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57. The drug that should never be injected

Explanation

Cocaine is a drug that should never be injected because of its highly addictive nature and dangerous health effects. Injecting cocaine can lead to severe cardiovascular problems, such as heart attack or stroke, as well as damage to the respiratory system. Additionally, injecting cocaine increases the risk of contracting bloodborne diseases like HIV or hepatitis due to sharing contaminated needles. The use of cocaine can also have detrimental effects on mental health, leading to paranoia, anxiety, and psychosis. Therefore, injecting cocaine is extremely hazardous and should be avoided at all costs.

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58. Ear infection of the ear is called

Explanation

Otitis media is the correct answer because it refers to an ear infection that occurs in the middle ear. It is a common condition, especially in children, and is often caused by bacteria or viruses entering the middle ear through the Eustachian tube. Symptoms of otitis media can include ear pain, fluid drainage from the ear, and hearing loss. Treatment usually involves antibiotics and pain relievers, and in severe cases, surgical intervention may be necessary.

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59. Myringoplasty is performed to close a small, nonhealing hole in the _____

Explanation

Myringoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to close a small, nonhealing hole in the tympanic membrane (TM), which is also known as the eardrum. The eardrum is a thin membrane that separates the outer ear from the middle ear. A hole in the eardrum can result from various causes such as trauma, infection, or chronic ear infections. Myringoplasty aims to repair the eardrum, improve hearing, and prevent further complications such as recurrent infections.

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60. Used to stain the cornea for detecting corneal abrasions and foreign bodies

Explanation

Fluorescein-sodium is used to stain the cornea for detecting corneal abrasions and foreign bodies. When applied to the eye, it binds to damaged corneal tissue and highlights any scratches or foreign objects present. This staining helps healthcare professionals identify and diagnose corneal injuries, allowing for appropriate treatment to be administered. BSS, neo-synephrine, and cocaine do not have the specific staining properties of fluorescein-sodium and are not commonly used for this purpose.

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61. System which secretes and conducts tears:

Explanation

The lacrimal gland and ducts are responsible for secreting and conducting tears. The lacrimal gland produces tears, which are then carried through the lacrimal ducts to the surface of the eye. Tears help keep the eye lubricated and protect it from foreign particles. Therefore, the lacrimal gland and ducts play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.

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62. What instruments is utilized as a diagnostic tool to examine the ear?

Explanation

The otoscope is a medical instrument that is used to examine the ear. It consists of a light source and a magnifying lens, allowing healthcare professionals to view the ear canal and eardrum. By using an otoscope, doctors can diagnose various conditions such as ear infections, blockages, and abnormalities in the ear. The otoscope is an essential tool in ear examinations and helps in determining the appropriate treatment for any ear-related issues.

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63. The outer coat of the eye made up of transparent portion (cornea) and white:

Explanation

The outer coat of the eye is made up of two parts: the transparent portion called the cornea and the white portion called the sclera. The cornea is responsible for protecting the eye and helps to focus light onto the retina. The sclera, on the other hand, provides structural support to the eye and gives it its characteristic white appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is Sclera.

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64. Clear, jelly-like fluid in the posterior cavity of the eye which fills the vitreous body:

Explanation

The clear, jelly-like fluid in the posterior cavity of the eye is called vitreous humor. It fills the vitreous body and helps maintain the shape of the eye. It also plays a role in transmitting light to the retina and providing support to the delicate structures within the eye. The vitreous humor is different from the aqueous humor, which is a watery fluid found in the anterior chamber of the eye. The other options, sensory receptors and lacrimal gland, are not related to the vitreous humor.

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65. Socket in the cranium in which the eyeball is partially sunk:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Boney orbit" because it refers to the socket in the cranium where the eyeball is partially sunk. The boney orbit provides protection and support for the eyeball and its associated structures.

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66. ______ is performed to treat an intraocular malignancy such as retinoblastoma and melanoma.

Explanation

Enucleation is the surgical procedure performed to treat intraocular malignancies such as retinoblastoma and melanoma. It involves the removal of the entire eye, including the eyeball, but leaving the eye muscles and remaining orbital tissues intact. This procedure is necessary when the tumor is confined within the eye and has not spread to surrounding tissues. Enucleation allows for the complete removal of the malignancy, reducing the risk of further spread and potentially saving the patient's life.

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67. Orbital decompression is most commonly indicated for:

Explanation

Orbital decompression is a surgical procedure that is most commonly indicated for patients with Hypothyroidism or Graves disease. These conditions can cause an enlargement of the eye muscles and fatty tissue behind the eyes, leading to proptosis (bulging of the eyes) and compression of the optic nerve. Orbital decompression helps to alleviate these symptoms by removing a portion of the bone from the eye socket, creating more space for the eye to move back into a normal position and relieving pressure on the optic nerve. It is not indicated for traumatic fracture, postoperative infection, or glaucoma.

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68. The piece of machinery that will almost always be in the OR for eye surgery:

Explanation

A microscope is an essential piece of equipment in the operating room for eye surgery. It allows surgeons to magnify and visualize the delicate structures of the eye, enabling precise and accurate surgical interventions. By providing a clear view of the surgical site, the microscope helps surgeons perform procedures such as cataract removal, corneal transplant, and retinal surgeries with high precision and success rates. Without a microscope, it would be extremely challenging for surgeons to perform intricate eye surgeries effectively.

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69. This dressing is prepackaged, composed of gauze sponges with straps to secure the dressing in the place called

Explanation

The correct answer is glasscock dressing. This dressing is prepackaged and consists of gauze sponges with straps that are used to secure the dressing in place. The glasscock dressing is specifically designed for use in the area of the ear, particularly for dressings after surgery or other procedures involving the mastoid bone. It helps to protect the surgical site and promote healing.

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70. The drug given to prevent or treat infection

Explanation

Garamycin is the correct answer because it is an antibiotic medication that is commonly used to prevent or treat infections. It belongs to the aminoglycoside class of antibiotics and is effective against a wide range of bacteria. Garamycin works by inhibiting the synthesis of proteins in bacteria, thereby preventing their growth and replication. It is commonly used in the treatment of various types of infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin and soft tissue infections, urinary tract infections, and more.

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71. Name the cranial nerve for the nose, for sense of smell

Explanation

The correct answer is olfactory (I). The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. It transmits information from the nose to the brain, allowing us to detect and perceive different odors. The other cranial nerves listed in the options (trochlear, vagus, vestibulocochlear) are not associated with the sense of smell.

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72. Who is responsible for proper assembly and safe management of the pneumatic power drill?

Explanation

The surgical tech is responsible for the proper assembly and safe management of the pneumatic power drill. As part of their role in the surgical team, they are trained to handle and operate various surgical instruments and equipment, including power drills. Their expertise ensures that the drill is assembled correctly and used safely during surgical procedures, minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries to the patient and the surgical team. The surgical tech's knowledge and skills in handling surgical instruments make them the most suitable person to be responsible for the pneumatic power drill.

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73. Recession/resection is the surgical treatment for:

Explanation

Recession/resection is a surgical treatment for strabismus. Strabismus is a condition where the eyes are not properly aligned and do not work together. Recession refers to the surgical procedure of weakening an eye muscle, while resection involves strengthening an eye muscle. These procedures are performed to correct the imbalance in eye muscle strength and alignment, allowing the eyes to work together and improve binocular vision. Cataract, glaucoma, and retinal detachment are different eye conditions that require different surgical treatments.

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74. Which of the following uses heat to coagulate or destroy tissue?

Explanation

Diathermy is a medical technique that uses heat to coagulate or destroy tissue. It involves the use of high-frequency electrical currents to generate heat, which is then applied to the targeted area. This heat can be used to coagulate blood vessels, cauterize tissue, or destroy abnormal growths. Diathermy is commonly used in various surgical procedures, such as cutting or sealing blood vessels, removing tumors, or treating conditions like hemorrhoids. It provides a precise and controlled way to coagulate or destroy tissue, making it an effective tool in medical interventions.

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75. The face is divided into which of the following three parts?

Explanation

The correct answer is upper face, mid face, and lower face. The face can be divided into these three parts based on their anatomical position and features. The upper face includes the forehead and the area above the eyebrows. The mid face includes the nose, cheeks, and the area between the eyebrows and the upper lip. The lower face includes the mouth, chin, and jawline. This division helps in understanding the different regions of the face and their respective functions.

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76. The drug that should not be used on a patient with glaucoma

Explanation

Atropine should not be used on a patient with glaucoma because it is a medication that dilates the pupil and can increase intraocular pressure. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the eye, and using atropine can further elevate the pressure, potentially worsening the symptoms and causing damage to the optic nerve. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma. Garamycin, Miochol, and pilocarpine are not specifically contraindicated in glaucoma patients, making them safer options.

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77. Phacoemulsification is one method of:

Explanation

Phacoemulsification is a surgical technique used to remove an opaque lens. This method involves using ultrasound energy to break up the lens into tiny fragments, which are then suctioned out through a small incision. By removing the opaque lens, vision can be restored in patients with conditions such as cataracts, where the lens becomes cloudy and obstructs vision.

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78. The ______ and the periosteum are elevated with a freer elevator and tenotomy scissors

Explanation

The perichondrium is the correct answer because it is a connective tissue membrane that surrounds cartilage. In the given context, it is being elevated along with the periosteum using a freer elevator and tenotomy scissors. The perichondrium plays a crucial role in the growth and maintenance of cartilage, as it contains cells that can differentiate into chondroblasts and chondrocytes.

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79. Ophthalmic muscle surgery is performed to correct deviation of the eye caused by:

Explanation

Ophthalmic muscle surgery is performed to correct strabismus, which is a condition characterized by the misalignment of the eyes. Strabismus can cause the eyes to turn inward, outward, upward, or downward, leading to double vision and reduced depth perception. Surgery is often recommended when non-surgical treatments like eyeglasses or eye patches fail to correct the misalignment. During the surgery, the ophthalmic muscles are adjusted to improve the alignment of the eyes, allowing them to work together effectively. This helps to improve vision and prevent further complications associated with strabismus.

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80. What is the most common type of mid face fracture?

Explanation

LeFort 1 is the most common type of mid face fracture. This type of fracture involves the maxilla bone, which forms the upper jaw and the floor of the eye socket. It is caused by a significant impact to the face, such as a motor vehicle accident or a fall. LeFort 1 fractures typically result in a separation of the maxilla bone from the rest of the skull, causing facial deformity and difficulty in breathing. Treatment usually involves surgery to realign and stabilize the fractured bones.

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81. The LeFort _____ fracture is pyramidal. It extends from the nasal bone, to the frontal processes of the maxilla, lacrimal bones, and inferior orbital floor, and may extend into the orbital foramen. Inferiorly, it extends into the anterior maxillary sinus, and into the pyterygoid plates. 

Explanation

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82. Thyroid hormones (THs) are necessary for regulating digestion and temperature

Explanation

Thyroid hormones (THs) are not necessary for regulating digestion and temperature. While THs do play a role in regulating metabolism, they are not directly involved in digestion or temperature regulation. Digestion is primarily controlled by the gastrointestinal system, while temperature regulation is primarily controlled by the hypothalamus in the brain.

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83. _____ focuses on reconstruction and repairs of the facial bones and may include structures of the cavity. 

Explanation

OMF (oromaxillofacial) focuses on reconstruction and repairs of the facial bones and may include structures of the cavity. This field of surgery deals with the diagnosis and treatment of conditions related to the mouth, jaws, face, and skull. It involves procedures such as correcting facial deformities, repairing fractures of the facial bones, treating infections, and performing reconstructive surgeries. OMF surgeons work closely with other medical professionals, including dentists, orthodontists, and plastic surgeons, to provide comprehensive care for patients with facial and oral conditions.

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84. What is another name for orbital floor fractures?

Explanation

Blowout is another name for orbital floor fractures. This type of fracture occurs when there is a fracture or break in the bones that make up the floor of the eye socket. It is called blowout because it is often caused by a direct blow to the eye, which can cause the bones to fracture and "blow out" or sink downward. This can lead to symptoms such as double vision, pain, and swelling around the eye. Treatment for blowout fractures may involve surgery to repair the fractured bones and restore normal eye function.

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85. Facial fractures are prepped with butadiene scrub paint. The entire face is peeped from the hairline to 

Explanation

The correct answer is "sternal notch" because when prepping facial fractures, the entire face is prepared from the hairline to the sternal notch. The sternal notch is the indentation at the top of the sternum, which is located in the center of the chest. This area is included in the prep because it is part of the facial region and needs to be properly cleaned and sterilized before any surgical procedures on the face.

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86. _____ of injury or congenital anomalies can affect speech, mastication (chewing) and develop of the teeth (HINT: patients concern). 

Explanation

Long-term physiological effects of injury or congenital anomalies can affect speech, mastication (chewing), and the development of teeth. These effects can include changes in muscle function, nerve damage, and structural abnormalities that can impact the overall functioning of the mouth and jaw. These long-term effects can have a significant impact on a patient's ability to speak clearly, chew food properly, and maintain proper dental health.

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87. The ______ is performed to remove diseased portions of the astral wall, evacuate the sinus contents, and establish drainage throughout the nose.

Explanation

The Caldwell-Luc procedure is performed to remove diseased portions of the astral wall, evacuate the sinus contents, and establish drainage throughout the nose. This procedure involves making an incision in the upper jaw and creating a pathway to the maxillary sinus. It is commonly used to treat chronic sinusitis or to remove tumors or cysts from the sinus cavity. By creating drainage, the procedure helps to relieve symptoms and prevent further complications.

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88. An example if an anti-inflammatory agent is:

Explanation

Depo-medrol is an example of an anti-inflammatory agent because it contains the active ingredient methylprednisolone, which belongs to the class of corticosteroids. Corticosteroids have potent anti-inflammatory properties and are commonly used to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms in various conditions such as arthritis, allergies, and asthma. Depo-medrol is administered by injection and works by suppressing the immune system's response to inflammation, thereby reducing swelling, pain, and other associated symptoms.

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89. Which of the following diagnostic imaging methods provides images of boney defect?

Explanation

CT scan is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic imaging method that uses X-rays to produce detailed cross-sectional images of the body. It is particularly effective in providing images of boney defects, such as fractures, tumors, or infections, due to its ability to capture high-resolution images of the skeletal system. MRI, ultrasonography, and isotope scanning are not as effective in providing detailed images of boney defects compared to CT scan.

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90. A drug used to dilate the pupil is:

Explanation

A drug used to dilate the pupil is called a mydriatic. Mydriatics work by relaxing the muscles in the iris, which allows the pupil to expand and let more light into the eye. This can be helpful in certain medical procedures or examinations, such as eye exams or surgery. Alpha-chymotrypsin is an enzyme used in ophthalmology, but it does not specifically dilate the pupil. Epinephrine is a medication that can constrict the pupil, so it is not the correct answer. Miotic drugs, on the other hand, are used to constrict the pupil, so they have the opposite effect of what is being asked in the question.

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91. Give the name of the bones of the middle ear that conduct sound.

Explanation

The ossicles are the three small bones in the middle ear that conduct sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The three ossicles are the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup). They work together to amplify and transmit sound waves, allowing us to hear. The tympanic membrane is also involved in the process, as it vibrates in response to sound waves and transfers these vibrations to the ossicles. The temporal bone, on the other hand, is a bone that surrounds and protects the structures of the inner ear, but it does not directly conduct sound.

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92. Gel foam, heliostats and surgicel are identified as

Explanation

Gel foam, heliostats, and surgicel are identified as hemostatic agents. Hemostatic agents are substances or materials that promote hemostasis, which is the process of stopping bleeding. These agents can be used topically or internally to control bleeding by promoting clot formation, enhancing platelet aggregation, or providing a mechanical barrier to prevent further bleeding. Gel foam, heliostats, and surgicel are commonly used in surgical procedures to control bleeding and promote wound healing. Therefore, they are categorized as hemostatic agents.

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93. During a tracheostomy, the ____ is kept with the patient in his or her room.

Explanation

During a tracheostomy, the obturator is kept with the patient in his or her room. The obturator is a device that is used to guide the tracheostomy tube into the patient's trachea during the procedure. It is inserted into the tube to maintain its shape and prevent it from collapsing. Keeping the obturator with the patient ensures that it is readily available in case the tracheostomy tube needs to be reinserted or replaced.

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94. In positioning the patient in supine, what other special equipment is utilized to stabilize the head and prevent pressure on the opposite ear, as per surgeon's preference card?

Explanation

A donut is utilized to stabilize the head and prevent pressure on the opposite ear when positioning the patient in supine, as per the surgeon's preference card. The donut provides a cushioned support for the head, ensuring that it remains in a stable position and reducing the risk of pressure sores or discomfort for the patient. This specialized equipment is commonly used in surgical procedures to maintain proper positioning and ensure patient safety and comfort.

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95. The neck is anatomically divided into triangles for 

Explanation

The neck is anatomically divided into triangles for identification purposes. These triangles help healthcare professionals and anatomists to locate and describe specific structures within the neck region. By dividing the neck into triangles, it becomes easier to identify and reference different anatomical landmarks and structures, aiding in medical examinations, surgeries, and research.

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Ectropion is the abnormal inversion of the:
A cochlear implant is used to transmit external sound directly to...
Aqueous humor is found in the:
An operation that is performed when the sensory layer of the retina...
The most common benign eyelid tumor is:
One of the fundamental goals of any maxillomandibular procedure is to...
The removal of the redundant folds of the skin of the eyelid and any...
Which of the following instruments would be used to remove nasal...
Mid face advancement is performed to correct a bony deformity of...
Which of the following best describe a LeFort 1 fracture?
A soft dressing or hard ____ may be used to protect the eye after...
At what age is a cochlear implant contraindicated in children?
A suction device is used to remove the morcellated tissue. 
What is function of the iris?
The surgical removal of a cholesteatoma and mastoid bone with or...
The suture most common to ophthalmology
When the surgeon is looking away from the field, the surgeon:
Which of the following is a purpose of arch bars?
Most endoscopic procedures of the nose are performed to treat...
The mucous membrane which line the eyelid and covers the anterior...
What instrument is used to remove the recipient cornea during...
___ is performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for...
Clear, watery fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers in...
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the orbit?
In LeFort _____ fractures there is a separation of all facial bones...
A procedure used to strengthen a weak muscle by excising a portion of...
Which of the following statements about ophthalmic surgery is FALSE?
An incision is made in the _____ below an obstruction with a #15 blade
The submandibular gland may be removed because of chronic infection,...
What forms the lateral walls and floors of the boney orbit, which...
Patients may frequently experience _____ after ORIF procedures from...
_____ are the primary means of repairing facial fractures. (HINT:...
What dictates that arch bars must be tighten in a clockwise fashion so...
Arch bars are fixed into position with:
A glassectomy is almost combines with a total laryngectomy to treat...
A pigmented contractile membrane composed mainly of muscle tissue is...
What size stainless steel used do you need for a MMF?
______ is characterized by persistent pain and is usually associated...
The ____ must keep track of all plates and screws that are used during...
Many ____ have 2 hinges, these are identified as double action...
Before repairing of the frontal sinus fractures, the sinus mucosa must...
The thread gland is located in the mid neck and overlies the trachea...
Earwax is known as ____
The primary reason for performing an adeniodectomy are ____ infection...
A process in which the lens continually changes shape to maintain the...
What vasoconstrictor medication is utilized for the nose, mouth, and...
Which of the following statements regarding ophthalmic sutures is...
Eye sponges made of lint-free _____ or similar material.
Most ophthalmic surgery is performed using a regional anesthetic with...
The lower jaw bone is the 
Bart Simpson had MMF procedure done. The patient is stable; was taken...
Cryotherapy involves the utilization of:
Cholesteatoma, eustachian tube dysfunction, neoplasm, or congenital...
The middle ear extends from the TM to the medial wall of the middle...
The only prep that can be instilled in the eye is:
The _____ transmits the vibrations of the TM and the other ossicles to...
The drug that should never be injected
Ear infection of the ear is called
Myringoplasty is performed to close a small, nonhealing hole in the...
Used to stain the cornea for detecting corneal abrasions and foreign...
System which secretes and conducts tears:
What instruments is utilized as a diagnostic tool to examine the ear?
The outer coat of the eye made up of transparent portion (cornea) and...
Clear, jelly-like fluid in the posterior cavity of the eye which fills...
Socket in the cranium in which the eyeball is partially sunk:
______ is performed to treat an intraocular malignancy such as...
Orbital decompression is most commonly indicated for:
The piece of machinery that will almost always be in the OR for eye...
This dressing is prepackaged, composed of gauze sponges with straps to...
The drug given to prevent or treat infection
Name the cranial nerve for the nose, for sense of smell
Who is responsible for proper assembly and safe management of the...
Recession/resection is the surgical treatment for:
Which of the following uses heat to coagulate or destroy tissue?
The face is divided into which of the following three parts?
The drug that should not be used on a patient with glaucoma
Phacoemulsification is one method of:
The ______ and the periosteum are elevated with a freer elevator and...
Ophthalmic muscle surgery is performed to correct deviation of the eye...
What is the most common type of mid face fracture?
The LeFort _____ fracture is pyramidal. It extends from the nasal...
Thyroid hormones (THs) are necessary for regulating digestion and...
_____ focuses on reconstruction and repairs of the facial bones and...
What is another name for orbital floor fractures?
Facial fractures are prepped with butadiene scrub paint. The entire...
_____ of injury or congenital anomalies can affect speech, mastication...
The ______ is performed to remove diseased portions of the astral...
An example if an anti-inflammatory agent is:
Which of the following diagnostic imaging methods provides images of...
A drug used to dilate the pupil is:
Give the name of the bones of the middle ear that conduct sound.
Gel foam, heliostats and surgicel are identified as
During a tracheostomy, the ____ is kept with the patient in his or her...
In positioning the patient in supine, what other special equipment is...
The neck is anatomically divided into triangles for 
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