Erttc Quiz

55 Questions | Total Attempts: 96

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Entrance Exam Quizzes & Trivia

ERTTC Pre-Entrance quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Pulsus paradoxus is most often associated with what traumatic chest injury? 
    • A. 

      Traumatic asphyxia

    • B. 

      Pericardial tamponade

    • C. 

      Open pneumothorax

    • D. 

      Hemothorax

  • 2. 
    Atmospheric pressure is defined as:
    • A. 

      1000 mmHg.

    • B. 

      760 torr.

    • C. 

      100 torr.

    • D. 

      360 mmHg.

  • 3. 
    Which of the following situations would be an ineffective use of a fixed wing aircraft for a critical care transport mission?
    • A. 

      One that involved international travel

    • B. 

      When the mission transport distance is 200-250 miles

    • C. 

      If a large amount of medical equipment is needed during transport

    • D. 

      When a mission transport distance is 75-80 miles

  • 4. 
    The clinical manifestations of Cushing’s triad are:
    • A. 

      Headache, nucal rigidity, and hyperthermia.

    • B. 

      Bradycardia, systolic hypertension, and widening pulse pressure.

    • C. 

      Tachycardia, systolic hypotension, and tachypnea.

    • D. 

      Bradycardia, aphasis, and visual field disturbances.

  • 5. 
    After extrication from a bad MVC by a local fire department, the PASG is placed on the trauma patient to stabilize a suspected pelvic and lower extremity fracture. On ascent, the patient complains of increased pressure and pain under the PASG. This is best explained by:
    • A. 

      Charles’ Law.

    • B. 

      Henry’s Law.

    • C. 

      Boyle’s Law.

    • D. 

      Dalton’s Law.

  • 6. 
    Modified Central Lead 1 (MCL-1) is essentially a bipolar equivalent of ________. 
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      V3

    • C. 

      V1

    • D. 

      II

  • 7. 
    A pulse oximetry reading of 90% typically corresponds with a PaO2 of what? 
    • A. 

      90 mmHg

    • B. 

      100 mmHg

    • C. 

      20 mmHg

    • D. 

      60 mmHg

  • 8. 
    An alternate path of blood flow in the event of vascular occlusion is termed:
    • A. 

      Pulmonary circulation

    • B. 

      Systemic circulation

    • C. 

      Collateral circulation

    • D. 

      Central circulation

  • 9. 
    Your patient’s blood gases present as: pH 7.25, PaCO2 55, PaO2 70, HCO3 -25. What is your patient most likely suffering from? 
    • A. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • B. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

    • C. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • D. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

  • 10. 
    You are flying an MVC patient from a small hospital to a regional trauma center 175 miles away. The patient is dyspneic and is suspected of having a right pneumothorax, which is not enlarging in size. In order to be transported to the trauma center, the patient must be flown from sea level to 3,000 feet in an unpressurized aircraft. Because of pressure variances during accent, the pneumothorax may:
    • A. 

      Remain the same size.

    • B. 

      Resolve completely.

    • C. 

      Become larger.

    • D. 

      Become smaller.

  • 11. 
    Atrial contraction influences Starling’s law by:
    • A. 

      Adding an atrial kick that increases ventricular diastolic volume.

    • B. 

      Opening the AV valves at the same time.

    • C. 

      Decreasing ventricular work.

    • D. 

      Decreasing stretch on ventricular muscle fibers.

  • 12. 
    The posterior lead that goes just to the left of the spine in the 5th intracostal place is:
    • A. 

      V9

    • B. 

      V7

    • C. 

      V8

    • D. 

      V10

  • 13. 
    What is a normal PaCO2 value? 
    • A. 

      27 torr

    • B. 

      40 mmHg

    • C. 

      18 torr

    • D. 

      56 mmHg

  • 14. 
    A trauma patient is presenting with hypotension, tachycardia, and absent radial pulses. Which type of shock is least likely to be the cause? 
    • A. 

      Septic

    • B. 

      Neurogenic

    • C. 

      Cardiogenic

    • D. 

      Hypovolemic

  • 15. 
    Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is primarily due to: 
    • A. 

      Reductions in hydrostatic pulmonary pressures.

    • B. 

      Left ventricular failure.

    • C. 

      Right ventricular failure.

    • D. 

      Poor capillary permeability.

  • 16. 
    The condition that occurs when systolic blood pressure drops abnormally with inspiration is: 
    • A. 

      Pulsus paradoxus.

    • B. 

      Electrical paradoxus.

    • C. 

      Pulsus alternans.

    • D. 

      Electrical alternans.

  • 17. 
    How are EtCO2 values commonly expressed?
    • A. 

      As a percentage

    • B. 

      As a decimal value

    • C. 

      In cm H2O

    • D. 

      In mmHg

  • 18. 
    According to the Mallampati classification system for airway assessment prior to intubation, the most challenging airway would receive what classification? 
    • A. 

      Class I

    • B. 

      Class II

    • C. 

      Class III

    • D. 

      Class IV

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is the most commonly injured abdominal organ in a pediatric patient? 
    • A. 

      Spleen

    • B. 

      Stomach

    • C. 

      Bladder

    • D. 

      Intestine

  • 20. 
    Right ventricular infarction is a complication that occurs in approximately ________% of inferior MIs.
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      70

    • D. 

      90

  • 21. 
    Anterior MIs most often involve which artery?
    • A. 

      Posterior descending artery

    • B. 

      Marginal artery

    • C. 

      Left coronary artery

    • D. 

      Right coronary artery

  • 22. 
    What do pericardial tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and pulmonary embolism all have in common regarding hypoperfusion?
    • A. 

      They all are caused by trauma.

    • B. 

      They all are classified under “obstructive” shock.

    • C. 

      They all will cause delayed hypoperfusion, days after the original insult.

    • D. 

      The major problem with all of them is diminished atrial preload.

  • 23. 
    Women may elicit very ________ patterns of symptoms in a myocardial infarction. 
    • A. 

      Typical

    • B. 

      Predictable

    • C. 

      Atypical

    • D. 

      Severe

  • 24. 
    You are presented with a 34-year-old female patient who is a victim of a car accident. The patient’s vital signs are BP 100/P, HR 130, RR 20/min, and she is currently responsive. What stage of shock is she in? 
    • A. 

      Compensated

    • B. 

      Cellular

    • C. 

      Irreversible

    • D. 

      Decompensated

  • 25. 
    Epinephrine can be deactivated if mixed with:
    • A. 

      Acid agents

    • B. 

      Antihypertensive agents

    • C. 

      Dromotropic agents

    • D. 

      Alkaline agents

  • 26. 
    ST segment elevation in the face of an anteroseptal MI would involve elevation if 1 mm or more in these leads.
    • A. 

      V3, v4, v5, v6

    • B. 

      V1, v2, v3, v4

    • C. 

      V1, v2, v5, v6

    • D. 

      II, III, aVF

  • 27. 
    In order to determine if the bundle branch block is either right or left sided, what lead is assessed? 
    • A. 

      V6

    • B. 

      Lead II

    • C. 

      V1

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 28. 
    Stimulation of alpha adrenergic receptor sites during sympathetic discharge causes what response?
    • A. 

      Bronchodilation

    • B. 

      Vasoconstriction

    • C. 

      Increase heart rate

    • D. 

      Vasodilation

  • 29. 
    The primary role of the eustachian tubes is to: 
    • A. 

      Provide a means for interstitial drainage.

    • B. 

      Equalize pressure in the middle ear.

    • C. 

      Aid in the filtration of air.

    • D. 

      Maintain nasopharyngeal continuity.

  • 30. 
    Because of its size and large amount of myocardium it supplies,  if LAD becomes totally occluded, the massive MI is termed a:
    • A. 

      Moneymaker

    • B. 

      Haymaker

    • C. 

      Scarmaker

    • D. 

      Widowmaker

  • 31. 
    The respiratory pattern with rhythmic increase and decrease of rate and depth of respiration, then brief periods of apnea is known as:
    • A. 

      Central neurogenic hyperventilation.

    • B. 

      Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

    • C. 

      Ataxic respirations.

    • D. 

      Apneustic breathing.

  • 32. 
    Hypoxia in the head-injured patient can cause a secondary injury, resulting in:
    • A. 

      Cerebral edema.

    • B. 

      Metabolic acidosis.

    • C. 

      Hyperventilation.

    • D. 

      Hypertension.

  • 33. 
    Positive chronotropic effects lead to a ________ in heart rate.
    • A. 

      Increase

    • B. 

      Lowering

    • C. 

      Decrease

    • D. 

      Stabilization

  • 34. 
    What drug has the dose of 5-20 mg/kg/min?
    • A. 

      Dobutamine

    • B. 

      Norepinephrine

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerine

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 35. 
    Which one of the following statements is true regarding pediatric thoracic trauma?
    • A. 

      A fail chest is a common pediatric injury.

    • B. 

      Pulmonary contusions are often seen with pediatric chest trauma

    • C. 

      It is the #1 leading cause of death in pediatrics.

    • D. 

      Pediatrics are susceptible to fractured ribs/sternum.

  • 36. 
    The point at which an arterial line is zeroed is called the: 
    • A. 

      Transducer point.

    • B. 

      Henry’s point.

    • C. 

      Phlebostatic line.

    • D. 

      McCargar’s point.

  • 37. 
    ST elevation of 1 mm or more in these leads is indicative of a posterior MI.
    • A. 

      V4, v5, v6

    • B. 

      II, III, aVR

    • C. 

      V1, v2, v3, v4

    • D. 

      There are no facing leads for posterior MI.

  • 38. 
    Decreased respiratory effort can result in acidosis, which is caused by the body partaking in ________ metabolism. 
    • A. 

      Hydrogen

    • B. 

      Anaerobic

    • C. 

      Decreased

    • D. 

      Aerobic

  • 39. 
    Barotitis media would most likely occur in which one of the following situations?
    • A. 

      Slow descent from 10,000 to 5,000 feet

    • B. 

      Rapid ascent from 5,000 to 10,000 feet

    • C. 

      Rapid descent from 8,000 feet to sea level

    • D. 

      Rapid descent from 25,000 to 20,000 feet

  • 40. 
    Which artery is the main supplier for the bundle branches?
    • A. 

      Circumflex artery

    • B. 

      Right coronary artery

    • C. 

      Anterior descending artery

    • D. 

      Posterior descending artery

  • 41. 
    The normal blood pH range is:
    • A. 

      7.20-7.30.

    • B. 

      7.00-8.00.

    • C. 

      7.30-7.40.

    • D. 

      7.35-7.45.

  • 42. 
    When using ditiazem, which drug or drugs may potentiate the seriousness of the side effects?
    • A. 

      Beta blockers

    • B. 

      Digitalis

    • C. 

      Lasix

    • D. 

      All the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is not a sign of pure right heart failure? 
    • A. 

      JVD

    • B. 

      Peripheral edema

    • C. 

      Rales

    • D. 

      Hepatomegally

  • 44. 
    The leads that are the reciprocal leads for a posterior MI are:
    • A. 

      V5, v6, I, aVL

    • B. 

      V1, v2, v3, v4

    • C. 

      II, III, aVF

    • D. 

      AVR, aVL, aVF

  • 45. 
    The larynx lies at the level of: 
    • A. 

      C2-C4.

    • B. 

      C1-C3.

    • C. 

      C7-T2.

    • D. 

      C4-C6.

  • 46. 
    The coronary artery receives blood during: 
    • A. 

      Ventricular systole.

    • B. 

      Diastole.

    • C. 

      Atrial diastole.

    • D. 

      Systole.

  • 47. 
    Your patient’s ECG shows signs of ST elevation in leads II, III, AVF, and V4R. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded? 
    • A. 

      Left common coronary artery

    • B. 

      Left anterior descending coronary artery

    • C. 

      Left circumflex coronary artery

    • D. 

      Right coronary artery

  • 48. 
    Transmural  infarctions is literally translated as "________" infarctions.
    • A. 

      Above the wall

    • B. 

      Below the wall

    • C. 

      Middle of the wall

    • D. 

      Across the wall

  • 49. 
    The expansion of the lungs is partially dependent upon the adherence of two layers of pleura. This adherence is created by a small amount of lubricating fluid between the layers, combined with a subatmospheric air tight seal. The pleural layer that lines the interior of the thoracic cavity is called the: 
    • A. 

      Visceral pleura.

    • B. 

      Parietal pleura.

    • C. 

      Thoracic pleura.

    • D. 

      Partial pleura.

  • 50. 
    Rate and depth of respirations in healthy patients respond to: 
    • A. 

      Carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

    • B. 

      Oxygen levels in the blood.

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin saturation levels.

    • D. 

      Blood pressure.

  • 51. 
    The cardiac enzyme creatine kinase levels will begin to rise approximately ________ after the onset of a myocardial infarction. 
    • A. 

      4-6 hours

    • B. 

      10-20 minutes

    • C. 

      40-60 minutes

    • D. 

      1-2 hours

  • 52. 
    Brain tissue that is threatened with cellular death from hypoperfusion, but has not yet become necrotic, is called the:
    • A. 

      Ischemic circumflex.

    • B. 

      Threatened ischemic tissue.

    • C. 

      Zone of infarcion.

    • D. 

      Penumbra.

  • 53. 
    Adults may begin to develop sign and symptoms of hypoxia at what altitude in an unpressurized cabin?
    • A. 

      12,000-16,000 feet

    • B. 

      12,000-14,000 feet

    • C. 

      8,000-10,000 feet

    • D. 

      18,000-20,000 feet

  • 54. 
    Factors that affect the “time of useful consciousness” for crew members during a rapid decompression include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Altitude at which decompression occurs

    • B. 

      Physical activity

    • C. 

      Individual tolerance

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 55. 
    Which of the following statements regarding cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is correct?
    • A. 

      When the CPP equals the MAP, cerebral blood flow ceases.

    • B. 

      The CPP in the average adult is approximately 150-160 mmHg

    • C. 

      Neuronal ischemia and death occurs with a CPP less than 60 mmHg.

    • D. 

      CPP is calculated as the difference between the mean arterial pressure (MAP) and the ICP.