Mechanical Engineering Sample Test 2

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Mechanical Engineering Sample Test 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following are part of the Selection and Preparation process?

    • A.

      Seismic study is done to confirm existence of reserves.

    • B.

      Water source is established.

    • C.

      Site is cleared and staked.

    • D.

      Access roads are built.

    • E.

      A truck-mounted drill is inserted into the ground.

    • F.

      Drilling contract is signed.

    • G.

      Waste disposal is setup.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Seismic study is done to confirm existence of reserves.
    B. Water source is established.
    C. Site is cleared and staked.
    D. Access roads are built.
    F. Drilling contract is signed.
    G. Waste disposal is setup.
    Explanation
    The selection and preparation process includes several steps such as confirming the existence of reserves through a seismic study, establishing a water source, clearing and staking the site, building access roads, signing a drilling contract, and setting up waste disposal. These steps are crucial in ensuring that the drilling operation is carried out efficiently and in compliance with environmental regulations.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following are part of the Spudding and Rigging Process?

    • A.

      The first 20 to 100 feet are drilled using a truck-mounted rig.

    • B.

      The rig is mounted.

    • C.

      The rotary drill bit hits the ground.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The first 20 to 100 feet are drilled using a truck-mounted rig.
    B. The rig is mounted.
    C. The rotary drill bit hits the ground.
    Explanation
    The given answer options correctly describe the steps involved in the Spudding and Rigging Process. The first step is drilling the first 20 to 100 feet using a truck-mounted rig, which is mentioned in the first option. The second option states that the rig is mounted, which is an essential part of the process. The third option mentions that the rotary drill bit hits the ground, indicating the actual drilling process. Therefore, all three options are part of the Spudding and Rigging Process.

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  • 3. 

    The structure inserted into the well to prevent it from caving in is called a ______________.

    • A.

      Mudding

    • B.

      Cutting

    • C.

      Derrick

    • D.

      Casing

    Correct Answer
    D. Casing
    Explanation
    A structure called casing is inserted into the well to prevent it from caving in. Casing is a protective barrier that is typically made of metal or cement and is placed inside the wellbore. It provides support to the walls of the well and helps to maintain its integrity by preventing the collapse of the surrounding formations. Casing also helps in preventing the contamination of groundwater and the escape of fluids from the well.

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  • 4. 

    An additional pipe is added to the drill at approximately every _____ feet.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    An additional pipe is added to the drill at approximately every 30 feet. This suggests that after drilling every 30 feet, a new pipe is attached to the drill. This could be due to various reasons such as the need for a longer drill bit, the need to clear out debris or to maintain stability during the drilling process. Adding a new pipe helps to ensure the efficiency and effectiveness of the drilling operation.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following statements is not true?

    • A.

      Drilling directional or horizontal wells, though more expensive than drilling a conventional well, can increase access to deposits and increase oil/gas resources recovered substantially.

    • B.

      Water depth is the primary determinant of cost in offshore drilling.

    • C.

      Old oil/gas wells are used to store CO2 and natural gas.

    • D.

      Directional drilling is less suitable offshore than it is onshore because of the lack of stability of the platform.

    Correct Answer
    D. Directional drilling is less suitable offshore than it is onshore because of the lack of stability of the platform.
    Explanation
    The ease of mobility of an offshore drilling platform is precisely the reason why it works well with directional drilling.

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  • 6. 

    Ultra-deepwater means a depth of more than __________ meters.

    • A.

      1000

    • B.

      1500

    • C.

      2000

    • D.

      2500

    Correct Answer
    B. 1500
    Explanation
    Ultra-deepwater refers to a depth that exceeds a certain measurement in meters. In this case, the correct answer is 1500 meters. This means that any depth greater than 1500 meters would be considered ultra-deepwater.

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  • 7. 

    Out of the Primary, Secondary, and Tertiary Recovery methods of recovery, Tertiary methods are the most expensive.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Tertiary recovery methods are the most expensive out of the primary, secondary, and tertiary recovery methods. This is because tertiary recovery methods involve more advanced and complex techniques, such as injecting chemicals or steam into the reservoir to extract additional oil. These methods require significant investment in infrastructure and technology, making them more costly compared to primary and secondary recovery methods.

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  • 8. 

    Low sulphur crude has a sulphur content of......

    • A.

      Less than 0.1%

    • B.

      Less than 0.3%

    • C.

      Less than 0.6%

    • D.

      Less than 0.8%

    • E.

      Less than 1%

    Correct Answer
    C. Less than 0.6%
    Explanation
    Low sulphur crude refers to crude oil that has a low sulphur content. The given answer, "Less than 0.6%", indicates that the sulphur content in low sulphur crude is below 0.6%. This means that the crude oil contains less than 0.6% of sulphur by weight. The lower the sulphur content, the better the quality of the crude oil, as high sulphur content can have negative environmental and health impacts when the oil is processed or burned.

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  • 9. 

    Sweet Crude has a sulphur content of....

    • A.

      Less than 2%

    • B.

      Less than 3%

    • C.

      Less than 1%

    • D.

      Less than 5%

    Correct Answer
    C. Less than 1%
    Explanation
    Sweet crude refers to a type of crude oil that has a low sulfur content. Sulfur is a impurity found in crude oil that can cause environmental pollution and damage to refining equipment. The given answer, "less than 1%", indicates that sweet crude has a sulfur content of less than 1%. This means that sweet crude is relatively pure and has a low sulfur content, making it desirable for refining into various petroleum products.

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  • 10. 

    Intermediate Sulphur Crude has a sulphur content of.....

    • A.

      0.5% to 1%

    • B.

      2% to 3%

    • C.

      0.7% to 1.6%

    • D.

      0.6% to 1.7%

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.6% to 1.7%
  • 11. 

    Refiners pay a premium of $1 to $3 per bbl of sweet crude.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Refiners pay a premium of $1 to $3 per bbl of sweet crude. This statement is true. Sweet crude oil refers to oil that has a low sulfur content, making it easier and cheaper to refine into various petroleum products. Refiners are willing to pay a higher price for sweet crude because it requires less processing and has a higher yield of valuable products like gasoline and diesel. The premium of $1 to $3 per barrel indicates the additional amount that refiners are willing to pay for sweet crude compared to sour crude, which has a higher sulfur content.

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  • 12. 

    On average, a pipeline will be able to meet/exceed annual demand.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A pipeline is designed and built to transport a specific volume of material, such as oil or gas, from one location to another. The capacity of the pipeline is determined based on the anticipated annual demand for the material. Therefore, on average, a pipeline should be able to meet or exceed the annual demand since it is designed to handle that volume. Hence, the statement "On average, a pipeline will be able to meet/exceed annual demand" is true.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements are true?

    • A.

      Natural Gas Storage can be both Seasonal and Operational.

    • B.

      Pipelines prefer to have storage close to areas of consumption.

    • C.

      Compared to oil, natural gas is easy to store and transport.

    • D.

      Hydraulic Center points are easier to find in gas pipelines than oil pipelines.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Natural Gas Storage can be both Seasonal and Operational.
    B. Pipelines prefer to have storage close to areas of consumption.
    D. Hydraulic Center points are easier to find in gas pipelines than oil pipelines.
    Explanation
    Natural gas storage can be both seasonal and operational because it is possible to store natural gas for long periods of time and also to store it for short-term operational needs. Pipelines prefer to have storage close to areas of consumption because it allows for easier and more efficient distribution of natural gas. Compared to oil, natural gas is easier to store and transport due to its gaseous state at normal temperatures and pressures. Hydraulic center points are easier to find in gas pipelines than oil pipelines because gas pipelines typically have more frequent and accessible valve stations.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      The number of pipeline stations built is determined by the number of Hydraulic Center Points.

    • B.

      The number of Hydraulic Center Points is determined by the number of Pipeline Stations built.

    • C.

      The number of HCPs and Pipeline Stations are determined and drafted in the design document.

    Correct Answer
    A. The number of pipeline stations built is determined by the number of Hydraulic Center Points.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the number of pipeline stations built is determined by the number of Hydraulic Center Points. This means that the number of stations along a pipeline is directly dependent on the number of points where hydraulic operations are required. This suggests that each hydraulic center point requires a corresponding pipeline station to carry out the necessary operations.

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  • 15. 

    Hydraulic Center Points are points in pipelines where the pressure is equal.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hydraulic Center Points are indeed points in pipelines where the pressure is equal. This means that the pressure on both sides of the point is the same, resulting in a balanced flow of fluid. This is an important concept in hydraulic systems as it allows for efficient and controlled movement of fluids.

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  • 16. 

    Pipeline Stations maintain pressure by compressing and transporting gas.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pipeline stations are responsible for maintaining the pressure of gas within the pipeline system. This is achieved through the process of compressing the gas and then transporting it along the pipeline. By compressing the gas, the stations ensure that it can be efficiently transported over long distances without losing pressure. Therefore, the statement that pipeline stations maintain pressure by compressing and transporting gas is true.

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  • 17. 

    Hydraulic Center Points are easy to find for oil pipelines, regardless of the grade of oil being transported.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The fact that oil pipelines transport different grades (densities) of crude oil makes it difficult to find areas of equal pressure.

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  • 18. 

    Which of following are Economic issues associated with the construction of a pipeline?

    • A.

      Right of Way (ROW): The acquisition of property and construction rights.

    • B.

      Investments

    • C.

      Costs of Operation.

    • D.

      Construction costs.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Right of Way (ROW): The acquisition of property and construction rights.
    B. Investments
    C. Costs of Operation.
    D. Construction costs.
    Explanation
    The economic issues associated with the construction of a pipeline include the acquisition of property and construction rights (Right of Way), investments required for the project, costs of operation, and construction costs. These factors impact the overall financial feasibility and profitability of the pipeline project. The acquisition of property and construction rights involves negotiating and purchasing the necessary land for the pipeline, which can be a significant expense. Investments are needed to fund the construction and operation of the pipeline, including equipment, labor, and maintenance. Costs of operation include ongoing expenses such as maintenance, repairs, and personnel. Construction costs encompass the expenses involved in building the pipeline infrastructure.

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  • 19. 

    The return on investment from running a pipeline is low (12% - 15%).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the return on investment from running a pipeline is low, specifically between 12% and 15%. Therefore, the correct answer is true, indicating that the return on investment for running a pipeline is indeed low.

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  • 20. 

    The first thing discussed during pipeline engineering and design is _________________________?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Route Selection

    • C.

      Storage

    • D.

      Station Location

    • E.

      Elevation/Landscape

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety
    Explanation
    During pipeline engineering and design, the first thing that is discussed is safety. This is crucial because ensuring the safety of the pipeline system is of utmost importance. Safety considerations include identifying potential hazards, implementing safety measures, and adhering to regulatory standards to prevent accidents, leaks, or any other risks that may pose a threat to the environment, infrastructure, or public safety. By addressing safety concerns right from the beginning, pipeline engineers can develop a robust design that prioritizes the well-being of people and the environment.

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  • 21. 

    Smaller pipelines extending to remote locations are called _______________?

    • A.

      Secondary Lines

    • B.

      Hubs

    • C.

      Spur Lines

    • D.

      Legs

    Correct Answer
    C. Spur Lines
    Explanation
    Spur lines are smaller pipelines that extend to remote locations. They are used to connect these locations to the main pipeline network. Unlike primary or secondary lines, which are larger and carry more volume, spur lines are designed to transport smaller quantities of substances. They are often used to supply specific areas or facilities that are located away from the main pipeline infrastructure.

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  • 22. 

    Facilities used for operational storage can seldom be used for seasonal storage.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Operational storage facilities are typically used for day-to-day operations and are designed to provide easy access and quick retrieval of items. On the other hand, seasonal storage facilities are used for storing items that are not needed on a regular basis, such as holiday decorations or winter clothing. These facilities are often located further away and may have different storage requirements. Therefore, it is unlikely that operational storage facilities can be used for seasonal storage, making the statement false.

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  • 23. 

    A publicly traded entity that allows the purchase of its shares, that combines the tax-benefits of a limited partnership wth those of a corporation is called a/an  ___________________.

    • A.

      E&P Partnership

    • B.

      Pooled Corporation

    • C.

      Limited Liability Partnership

    • D.

      Master Limited Partnership

    • E.

      Limited Liability Corporation

    Correct Answer
    D. Master Limited Partnership
    Explanation
    A Master Limited Partnership (MLP) is a publicly traded entity that combines the tax-benefits of a limited partnership with those of a corporation. MLPs are typically involved in the energy sector, such as oil and gas pipelines, and allow investors to purchase shares in the partnership. MLPs offer the tax advantages of a partnership, such as pass-through taxation, while also providing the liquidity and ease of trading associated with publicly traded corporations. This structure allows investors to benefit from the tax advantages of a partnership while still having the ability to easily buy and sell shares on the stock market.

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  • 24. 

    A Master Limited Partnership's functions include:-

    • A.

      Owning high cash flow vs high earnings assets

    • B.

      Finding and securing leases

    • C.

      Managing parts of the value chain and making sure they complement others

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Owning high cash flow vs high earnings assets
    C. Managing parts of the value chain and making sure they complement others
    Explanation
    A Master Limited Partnership (MLP) functions by owning high cash flow vs high earnings assets, which means it invests in assets that generate significant cash flow rather than focusing solely on earnings. This allows the MLP to distribute a large portion of its cash flow to its investors in the form of dividends. Additionally, the MLP is responsible for managing parts of the value chain and ensuring that they work together effectively. This involves coordinating different aspects of the business, such as production, distribution, and marketing, to optimize overall performance and maximize value for the partnership and its investors.

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  • 25. 

    The person/group entrusted with managing the operations of an MLP is/are called the ....

    • A.

      General Partner

    • B.

      Board of Management

    • C.

      Joint Management Group

    • D.

      Operator(s)

    Correct Answer
    A. General Partner
    Explanation
    The correct answer is General Partner. In a Master Limited Partnership (MLP), the general partner is the entity responsible for managing the day-to-day operations of the partnership. They typically hold a controlling interest in the MLP and have decision-making authority. The general partner is responsible for making investment decisions, managing the assets, and overseeing the partnership's operations. They also bear unlimited liability for the partnership's debts and obligations.

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  • 26. 

    A General Partner (GP) owns part of an MLP and is paid a fee for providing operating and management services.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A General Partner (GP) in a Master Limited Partnership (MLP) does indeed own a portion of the MLP and is compensated for their role in providing operating and management services. This is a characteristic feature of MLPs, where the GP is responsible for managing the day-to-day operations of the partnership while limited partners provide capital but have no involvement in the management.

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  • 27. 

    Historically, which of the following were responsible for the increase in oil prices between 1970 and 1990?

    • A.

      Elimination of EPAA price controls

    • B.

      Iraq invading Kuwait

    • C.

      Arab oil embargo

    • D.

      The Asian Financial Crisis

    • E.

      OPEC raising prices.

    • F.

      The Gulf War

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Elimination of EPAA price controls
    B. Iraq invading Kuwait
    C. Arab oil embargo
    E. OPEC raising prices.
    F. The Gulf War
    Explanation
    The increase in oil prices between 1970 and 1990 can be attributed to several factors. The elimination of EPAA price controls allowed oil prices to be determined by market forces, leading to an increase in prices. The invasion of Kuwait by Iraq in 1990 disrupted oil production and caused a decrease in supply, which further drove up prices. The Arab oil embargo of 1973, initiated by OPEC member countries, was another significant event that caused a spike in oil prices. OPEC, as an organization, also played a role in raising prices during this period. Additionally, the Gulf War in 1990-1991 had a significant impact on oil prices due to the disruption of oil supplies from the region.

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  • 28. 

    The Arab Oil Embergo was responsible for the EPAA implementing price controls.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During the Arab Oil Embargo in the 1970s, Arab oil-producing countries imposed an embargo on oil exports to countries that supported Israel in the Yom Kippur War. This caused a significant increase in oil prices worldwide. In response, the EPAA (Energy Policy and Conservation Act) was implemented in the United States, which included price controls on oil and gas. These controls were put in place to stabilize prices and prevent excessive price increases during the embargo. Therefore, the statement that the Arab Oil Embargo was responsible for the EPAA implementing price controls is true.

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  • 29. 

    The EPAA was responsible for breaking down WTI into several categories.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The EPAA, which stands for Energy Policy and Conservation Act, was indeed responsible for breaking down WTI (West Texas Intermediate) into several categories. This act was passed in 1975 and aimed to regulate and manage the energy industry in the United States. As part of its provisions, the EPAA required the categorization of crude oil, including WTI, into different grades based on their quality and characteristics. This categorization was important for pricing and trading purposes, as different categories of WTI had different market values and uses. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 30. 

    The Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act removed price controls between.....

    • A.

      1999 - 2007

    • B.

      1970 - 1980

    • C.

      1981 - 1986

    • D.

      1986 - 1999

    Correct Answer
    C. 1981 - 1986
    Explanation
    The Emergency Petroleum Allocation Act removed price controls between 1981 - 1986. This act was passed in response to the oil crisis of the 1970s, which caused significant disruptions in the global oil market and led to skyrocketing prices. The act aimed to increase domestic oil production and reduce dependence on foreign oil by deregulating prices. By removing price controls, the government allowed market forces to determine the price of petroleum products, which ultimately led to increased production and a more stable market during this period.

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  • 31. 

    The Cushing Hub at Cushing, OK became/is relevant because..... (select all that apply).

    • A.

      It is the delivery point for paper NYMEX crude oil futures contracts.

    • B.

      Its function as a gathering hub for crude refiners in Oklahoma, Missouri, and Kansas.

    • C.

      It's proximity to the Gulf Coast.

    • D.

      Logistic connection main refineries in Indiana, Illinois and Ohio.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It is the delivery point for paper NYMEX crude oil futures contracts.
    B. Its function as a gathering hub for crude refiners in Oklahoma, Missouri, and Kansas.
    D. Logistic connection main refineries in Indiana, Illinois and Ohio.
    Explanation
    The Cushing Hub at Cushing, OK became/is relevant because it is the delivery point for paper NYMEX crude oil futures contracts. Additionally, it serves as a gathering hub for crude refiners in Oklahoma, Missouri, and Kansas. Furthermore, it has a logistic connection to main refineries in Indiana, Illinois, and Ohio. The hub's strategic location and its role in facilitating the trading and transportation of crude oil make it a crucial and significant hub in the oil industry.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following statements about crude trading are true?

    • A.

      Prior to the emergence of WTI as a benchmark, trading was limited to optimizing logistics.

    • B.

      WTI was a benchmark before EPAA controls were removed.

    • C.

      The NYMEX WTI contract was created in March 1983.

    • D.

      The availabilty of fundamental analysis via research organizations such as Platts helped to heighten interest in WTI futures.

    • E.

      Pipeline construction helped increase the relevance of the Cushing Hub.

    • F.

      Products that pass through the Cushing Hub and mostly international

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Prior to the emergence of WTI as a benchmark, trading was limited to optimizing logistics.
    C. The NYMEX WTI contract was created in March 1983.
    D. The availabilty of fundamental analysis via research organizations such as Platts helped to heighten interest in WTI futures.
    E. Pipeline construction helped increase the relevance of the Cushing Hub.
    Explanation
    -The removal of EPAA price controls made the WTI more attractive. It provided room for price speculation, and because of the demand for WTI contracts the liquidity in the crude oil futures market increased substantially.

    - Product that pass through the Cushing Hub are mostly local/domestic.

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  • 33. 

    A type of pricing mechanism in which the price of a commodity in one area in based on the prices of a commodity used to define it is called ____________________.

    • A.

      Benchmarking

    • B.

      Swing Pricing

    • C.

      Geographic Pricing

    • D.

      Parity Pricing

    Correct Answer
    D. Parity Pricing
    Explanation
    Parity pricing is a type of pricing mechanism where the price of a commodity in one area is determined based on the prices of a similar commodity used as a reference. This means that the price of the commodity in one location is set in relation to the prices of the same or similar commodities in other areas. Parity pricing helps ensure that prices are fair and competitive across different regions, taking into account factors such as transportation costs and market conditions.

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  • 34. 

    Whic of the following are types of crude parity?

    • A.

      USGC Parity

    • B.

      Cushing parity

    • C.

      Chicago Parity

    • D.

      Texas Parity

    • E.

      Patoka Parity

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. USGC Parity
    B. Cushing parity
    C. Chicago Parity
    E. Patoka Parity
    Explanation
    The given answer includes USGC Parity, Cushing parity, Chicago Parity, and Patoka Parity as types of crude parity. These are all different locations or regions where crude oil is traded. USGC Parity refers to the Gulf Coast region of the United States, Cushing parity refers to the Cushing, Oklahoma region, Chicago Parity refers to the Chicago region, and Patoka Parity refers to the Patoka, Illinois region. These locations are important hubs for crude oil trading and pricing, and understanding the different parities helps in analyzing and predicting crude oil market trends.

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  • 35. 

    Bitumen is both high in density and high in viscosity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Bitumen is a highly dense and viscous material. Density refers to the mass per unit volume, and bitumen has a high mass compared to its volume. Viscosity, on the other hand, refers to the resistance of a fluid to flow. Bitumen has a high viscosity, meaning it is thick and sticky, and does not flow easily. Therefore, the statement that bitumen is both high in density and high in viscosity is true.

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  • 36. 

    A purpose of blending bitumen with SCO or condensate is to facilitate pipeline transportation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blending bitumen with SCO or condensate helps to facilitate pipeline transportation because bitumen is a heavy and viscous substance, making it difficult to transport through pipelines on its own. By blending it with lighter substances like SCO or condensate, the overall viscosity of the mixture is reduced, allowing for easier flow through the pipeline. This blending process helps to ensure a more efficient and cost-effective transportation of bitumen.

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  • 37. 

    A purpose of blending bitumen with SCO or condensate is to decrease bitumen's viscosity.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Blending bitumen with SCO or condensate helps to decrease its viscosity. This is because bitumen is a highly viscous substance, and by adding SCO or condensate, which are lighter hydrocarbon liquids, the overall viscosity of the mixture is reduced. This makes it easier to handle and transport the bitumen, as well as improving its flow properties.

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  • 38. 

    The primary locations of Oil sands in Canada are......

    • A.

      Saskatoon

    • B.

      Athabasca

    • C.

      Peace River

    • D.

      Cold Lake

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Athabasca
    C. Peace River
    D. Cold Lake
    Explanation
    Though all 3 are located in Alberta, Athabasca is #1.

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  • 39. 

    The amount of oil sands in Canada make it only second to Saudi Arabia in Oil Reserves.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Canada has a significant amount of oil sands, which are a type of unconventional oil deposit. These oil sands contain large reserves of oil, making Canada's oil reserves second only to Saudi Arabia. This statement is true because it highlights Canada's substantial oil resources and its position as one of the top countries with significant oil reserves.

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  • 40. 

    "Bitumen" is also known as...

    • A.

      Tar sand

    • B.

      Oil sand

    • C.

      Synthetic Crude Oil

    • D.

      Coke

    • E.

      Asphalt

    Correct Answer
    E. Asphalt
    Explanation
    Bitumen is commonly known as asphalt. Bitumen is a sticky, black, and highly viscous form of petroleum. It is a crucial component in the production of asphalt, which is used for road construction and surfacing. Asphalt is a mixture of bitumen and aggregates, such as crushed stone, sand, or gravel. It is used to create durable and smooth road surfaces that can withstand heavy traffic and harsh weather conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is Asphalt.

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  • 41. 

    An estimated ___________ barrels of crude can be recovered from Canada's oil sands.

    • A.

      173 billion

    • B.

      163 billion

    • C.

      183 billion

    • D.

      143 billion

    • E.

      153 billion

    Correct Answer
    A. 173 billion
    Explanation
    Canada's oil sands are known to contain a significant amount of crude oil. The given answer of 173 billion barrels suggests that this is the estimated amount of crude oil that can be recovered from Canada's oil sands.

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  • 42. 

    An estimated ___________ barrels of crude can be recovered from US oil sands.

    • A.

      35 billion

    • B.

      54 billion

    • C.

      87 billion

    • D.

      53 billion

    • E.

      67 billion

    Correct Answer
    B. 54 billion
    Explanation
    22 billion bbl measured, 32 billion speculated.

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  • 43. 

    According to the text, which of the following US states are richest in oil sands?

    • A.

      Washington

    • B.

      Oregon

    • C.

      Kansas

    • D.

      Louisiana

    • E.

      Wyoming

    • F.

      Maine

    • G.

      Utah

    • H.

      California

    • I.

      Texas

    • J.

      Oklahoma

    • K.

      Alabama

    • L.

      Illinois

    • M.

      Arizona

    • N.

      New Mexico

    • O.

      Alaska

    • P.

      Kentucky

    • Q.

      North Dakota

    • R.

      South Dakota

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. Wyoming
    G. Utah
    H. California
    I. Texas
    J. Oklahoma
    K. Alabama
    N. New Mexico
    O. Alaska
    P. Kentucky
    Explanation
    The text states that the richest US states in oil sands are Wyoming, Utah, California, Texas, Oklahoma, Alabama, New Mexico, Alaska, and Kentucky.

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  • 44. 

    Upgrading Bitumen involves adding hydrogen at elevated temperature and pressure.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because upgrading bitumen does involve adding hydrogen at elevated temperature and pressure. This process, known as hydroprocessing, helps to remove impurities and increase the quality of the bitumen by breaking down heavy molecules and saturating them with hydrogen. The addition of hydrogen helps to improve the properties of bitumen, making it more suitable for various applications such as road construction and roofing.

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  • 45. 

    Dilbit is bitumen mixed with naptha or some other condensate.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Dilbit refers to diluted bitumen, which is a combination of bitumen (a heavy, thick oil) and naptha or other condensate (a lighter oil). This mixture is commonly used for transportation through pipelines as it makes the bitumen less viscous and easier to flow. Therefore, the statement that "Dilbit is bitumen mixed with naptha or some other condensate" is true.

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  • 46. 

    The difference between "In situ" and mining methods of bitumen extraction is that in situ methods involve removal of a larger portion of oil sands/source rock.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    "In situ" technically means to remain in place. It involves less removal of ground matter than mining.

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  • 47. 

    Steam to Oil Ratio (SOR) is the number of barrels of water it takes to extract 1 barrel of oil (bitumen). What is the approximate SOR for a high quality well?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      1.5

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      2.5

    • E.

      4

    • F.

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2.5
    Explanation
    SOR is the ratio of water to oil in the extraction process. A high-quality well typically requires less water to extract oil, indicating a lower SOR. Therefore, the approximate SOR for a high-quality well would be closer to 1, rather than 2.5.

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  • 48. 

    SAGD has a recovery rate of about....

    • A.

      25-35%

    • B.

      60-80%

    • C.

      40-70%

    • D.

      10-25%

    Correct Answer
    C. 40-70%
    Explanation
    SAGD (Steam Assisted Gravity Drainage) is an oil extraction method used in the oil sands industry. It involves injecting steam into the reservoir to heat the bitumen and reduce its viscosity, allowing it to flow and be extracted. This method has been proven to have a recovery rate of about 40-70%, meaning that it can recover 40-70% of the bitumen present in the reservoir. This range indicates that SAGD is an effective technique for extracting a significant amount of oil from oil sands deposits.

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  • 49. 

    Cyclical Steam Stimulation has a recovery rate of......

    • A.

      40-50%

    • B.

      15-30%

    • C.

      20-35%

    • D.

      55-70%

    Correct Answer
    C. 20-35%
    Explanation
    Just remember that it has a lower recovery rate that SAGD and its range is narrower too.

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  • 50. 

    Cyclical Steam Stimulation is also known as the "huff and puff" method.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cyclical Steam Stimulation is indeed known as the "huff and puff" method. This technique involves injecting steam into an oil reservoir for a certain period of time, followed by a period of soaking and then production. The process is cyclically repeated to improve the recovery of heavy oil or bitumen. The term "huff and puff" refers to the injection of steam (huff) and the subsequent production of oil (puff).

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 03, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Revive117
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