1.Dental Hygiene Board Review

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  • 1/86 Questions

    The autonomic nervous system exerts its influence on

    • Smooth muscle
    • Glandular secretion
    • Cardiac muscle
    • All of the above
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Dental Hygiene Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

# 1. Board Review for Dental Hygiene. Questions were taken from various sources, including books, online sources, and etc.

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  • 2. 

    An increase in parasympathetic activity

    • Increase salivation

    • Increases gastrointestinal activity

    • Decreases heart rate

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    An increase in parasympathetic activity can lead to various physiological changes. It stimulates salivation, which is the production of saliva in the mouth. It also increases gastrointestinal activity, which involves the movement and digestion of food in the digestive system. Additionally, parasympathetic activity decreases heart rate, promoting a slower heart rhythm. Therefore, all of the above options are correct as they represent the effects of increased parasympathetic activity.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following describes the function of the hypothalamus?

    • Temperature control centers

    • Regulation of visceral activity

    • Synthesis of hormonal releasing factors

    • Influencing basic drives like sex, thirst, hunger

    • All to the above describe hypothalamic functhions

    Correct Answer
    A. All to the above describe hypothalamic functhions
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is a small region in the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and regulating various bodily functions. It contains temperature control centers, which help regulate body temperature. It also regulates visceral activity, such as digestion and cardiovascular function. The hypothalamus is responsible for the synthesis and release of hormonal releasing factors, which control the release of hormones from the pituitary gland. Additionally, it influences basic drives like sex, thirst, and hunger. Therefore, all of the above options accurately describe the functions of the hypothalamus.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following functions are conducted in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, that is, in the fasciculus graciles and cuneatus?

    • High degree of location

    • Vibratory sense

    • Fine gradations of pressure

    • Kinesthesia

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The functions conducted in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord, specifically in the fasciculus graciles and cuneatus, include a high degree of location, vibratory sense, fine gradations of pressure, and kinesthesia. These functions are responsible for the perception of precise location, the ability to sense vibrations, the ability to perceive subtle variations in pressure, and the awareness of body movement and position. Therefore, all of the given options are correct.

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  • 5. 

    A patient with type AB blood can give a transfusion to type

    • O

    • A

    • B

    • AB

    Correct Answer
    A. AB
    Explanation
    type O = universal donor, type AB = universal recipient

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  • 6. 

    What type of connective tissue is present in scar tissue?

    • Loose

    • Dense fibrous

    • Lymphatic

    • Reticuloendothelial

    • Adipose

    Correct Answer
    A. Dense fibrous
    Explanation
    Scar tissue is formed during the process of wound healing, where there is an excessive production of collagen fibers. Dense fibrous connective tissue is the correct answer because it is characterized by a high density of collagen fibers, which provide strength and support to the scar tissue. This type of connective tissue is commonly found in tendons, ligaments, and the dermis of the skin, making it the most suitable option for scar tissue.

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  • 7. 

    A type of receptor which is sensitive to pain is

    • Pacinian corpuscle

    • Meissener's corpuscle

    • Free nerve endings

    • End bulb of Krause

    • Ruffin endings

    Correct Answer
    A. Free nerve endings
    Explanation
    Free nerve endings are the type of receptors that are sensitive to pain. These nerve endings are found throughout the body and are responsible for detecting and transmitting pain signals to the brain. They are the most common type of pain receptors and can be found in the skin, muscles, and organs. When these nerve endings are stimulated by factors such as tissue damage or inflammation, they send signals to the brain, resulting in the perception of pain.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a leukocyte?

    • Neutrophil

    • Thrombocyte

    • Eosinophil

    • Basophil

    • Monocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombocyte
    Explanation
    Thrombocyte is not a leukocyte because it is actually a type of blood cell called a platelet. Leukocytes, on the other hand, are white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. Neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil, and monocyte are all types of leukocytes involved in various immune responses.

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  • 9. 

    The pressoreceptor system

    • Responds to an increase in blood pressure at the area of the aortic arch and carotid bodies

    • Operates through the vasomotor center

    • Responds by decreasing the heart rate, strength of contraction, and peripheral resistance

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The pressoreceptor system responds to an increase in blood pressure at the area of the aortic arch and carotid bodies. It operates through the vasomotor center, which regulates blood pressure. In response to increased blood pressure, the pressoreceptor system decreases the heart rate, strength of contraction, and peripheral resistance. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.

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  • 10. 

    All of the following are autonomic effects on the body except regulation of

    • Heart rate

    • Digestive secretion

    • Skeletal muscle tone

    • Glandular secretion

    • Blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Skeletal muscle tone
    Explanation
    The autonomic nervous system regulates various involuntary functions in the body. Heart rate, digestive secretion, glandular secretion, and blood pressure are all examples of autonomic effects. However, skeletal muscle tone is not directly regulated by the autonomic nervous system. Instead, it is controlled by the somatic nervous system, which is responsible for voluntary movements.

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  • 11. 

    Select the correct pressure point statement:

    • Inferior to the angle of the mandible for carotid arteries to the head

    • Inferior border of the angle of the mandible at the junction of the medial and lateral thirds for the facial artery to the face

    • Superior and deep to the clavicle for the subclavian artery to the arm

    • Medial side of the humerus for the branchial artery to the lower arm

    • All statements correctly describe pressure points

    Correct Answer
    A. All statements correctly describe pressure points
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that all statements correctly describe pressure points. This means that each of the given statements accurately identifies a pressure point and its corresponding artery. The first statement states that the carotid arteries to the head can be found inferior to the angle of the mandible. The second statement states that the facial artery to the face can be found at the inferior border of the angle of the mandible at the junction of the medial and lateral thirds. The third statement states that the subclavian artery to the arm can be found superior and deep to the clavicle. The fourth statement states that the branchial artery to the lower arm can be found on the medial side of the humerus. Therefore, all of these statements correctly describe pressure points.

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  • 12. 

    The physiological concept that refers to the maintenance of a constant environment is

    • Hemostasis

    • Dynamic equilibrium

    • Homeostasis

    • Interdependence

    • Induction

    Correct Answer
    A. Homeostasis
    Explanation
    Homeostasis is the physiological concept that refers to the maintenance of a constant environment within the body. It involves the regulation of various parameters such as body temperature, blood pressure, and pH levels to ensure optimal functioning of the body's cells and organs. Through feedback mechanisms, the body is able to detect and respond to changes in these parameters, restoring them to their normal range. This concept is essential for the overall health and stability of an organism.

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  • 13. 

    The organelles that contain enzymes capable of digesting and destroying cellular debris

    • Endoplasmic reticulum

    • Golgi apparatus

    • Mitochondria

    • Lysosomes

    • Ribosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysosomes
    Explanation
    Lysosomes are organelles that contain enzymes capable of digesting and destroying cellular debris. They are responsible for breaking down waste materials, old cell parts, and foreign substances that enter the cell. Lysosomes help maintain the overall health and cleanliness of the cell by removing unnecessary or harmful materials. The other organelles listed in the options, such as the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and ribosomes, have different functions and are not primarily involved in the digestion and destruction of cellular debris.

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  • 14. 

    Gingiva and buccal mucosa

    • Simple squamous epithelium

    • Stratified squamous epithelium

    • Cuboidal epithelium

    • Stratified columnar epithelium

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratified squamous epithelium
    Explanation
    The gingiva and buccal mucosa are both areas in the oral cavity that are exposed to mechanical stress and abrasion. Stratified squamous epithelium is the ideal type of epithelium for these areas because it provides protection against wear and tear. This type of epithelium consists of multiple layers of cells, with the outermost layer being flattened and squamous in shape. The stratified nature of the epithelium allows for increased durability and resistance to damage, making it well-suited for the gingiva and buccal mucosa.

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  • 15. 

    Identify the correct sequence of the blood flow through the heart, to the lungs, its return to the heart and out of the heart to systemic circulation

    • Inferior vena cave, left atrium, bicuspid valves, left ventricle, pulmonary trunk to pulmonary circulation, return via pulmonary veins to right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, and out through the ascending aorta

    • Inferior vena cava, right atrium, triscupid valves, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk to pulmonary circulation, return via pulmonary veins to left atrium, bicuspid valves, left ventricle and outh through the ascending aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. Inferior vena cava, right atrium, triscupid valves, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk to pulmonary circulation, return via pulmonary veins to left atrium, bicuspid valves, left ventricle and outh through the ascending aorta
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains the sequence of blood flow through the heart and the circulatory system. It starts with the inferior vena cava, which brings deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium. From there, the blood flows through the tricuspid valves into the right ventricle. The blood is then pumped into the pulmonary trunk, which leads to the pulmonary circulation in the lungs. After oxygenation in the lungs, the blood returns to the heart via the pulmonary veins, entering the left atrium. It then passes through the bicuspid valves into the left ventricle. Finally, the oxygenated blood is pumped out of the heart through the ascending aorta to the systemic circulation.

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  • 16. 

    The direction and rate of diffusion of an ion is influenced by the

    • Concentration gradient

    • Hydrostatic pressure gradient

    • Electrical gradient

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The direction and rate of diffusion of an ion is influenced by the concentration gradient, which refers to the difference in concentration between two areas. It is also influenced by the hydrostatic pressure gradient, which is the difference in pressure between two areas. Additionally, the electrical gradient, which is the difference in electrical charge between two areas, also affects the direction and rate of ion diffusion. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in determining the direction and rate of ion diffusion.

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  • 17. 

    Digestion means

    • Splitting large chemical compounds in foods into simpler substances that can be absorbed

    • Absorption of small molecular weight end products into body fluids

    • Hydrolysis

    • Only A and C

    • Only B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Only A and C
    Explanation
    Digestion refers to the process of breaking down large chemical compounds present in food into simpler substances through hydrolysis. This allows for the absorption of small molecular weight end products into body fluids. Therefore, the correct answer is "only A and C" as it includes both the splitting of large chemical compounds and hydrolysis, which are essential processes in digestion.

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  • 18. 

    Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion in that active transport

    • Moves a substance against a concentration gradient

    • Requires a carrier

    • Requires energy from magnesius adenosine triphosphate (Mg ATP)

    • Is exemplified by the movement of sodium and potassium across cell membranes

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion in multiple ways. Firstly, active transport moves a substance against its concentration gradient, meaning it moves from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. On the other hand, facilitated diffusion moves substances along their concentration gradient, from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Secondly, active transport requires a carrier protein to transport the substance across the cell membrane, while facilitated diffusion does not require a carrier protein. Lastly, active transport requires energy in the form of magnesium adenosine triphosphate (Mg ATP), whereas facilitated diffusion does not require energy. The movement of sodium and potassium across cell membranes is an example of active transport. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct explanations of the differences between active transport and facilitated diffusion.

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  • 19. 

    Extreme excitement in a patient may have the following effects on organ systems:

    • Increased blood pressure

    • Increases gastrointestinal activity

    • Relaxation of smooth muscles in bronchi

    • A and C

    • B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and C
    Explanation
    Extreme excitement in a patient can lead to increased blood pressure and relaxation of smooth muscles in the bronchi. Increased blood pressure is a common physiological response to excitement and can be caused by the release of stress hormones such as adrenaline. Relaxation of smooth muscles in the bronchi can result in bronchodilation, allowing for easier breathing. These effects on the organ systems are represented by options A and C.

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  • 20. 

    An enzyme that hydrolyzes polysaccharides is

    • Lipase

    • Amylase

    • Protease

    • Trypsin

    • Pepsin

    Correct Answer
    A. Amylase
    Explanation
    Amylase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that specifically hydrolyzes polysaccharides. Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple sugar molecules bonded together. Amylase breaks down these polysaccharides into smaller sugar molecules through a process called hydrolysis. Lipase, protease, trypsin, and pepsin are enzymes that are involved in the digestion of lipids, proteins, and peptides respectively, but they do not hydrolyze polysaccharides.

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  • 21. 

    The sympathetic innervation to the face and head structures is transmitted via nerves that have cells of origin in the

    • Submandibular ganglion

    • Superior cervical ganglion

    • Oxic ganglion

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior cervical ganglion
    Explanation
    The sympathetic innervation to the face and head structures is transmitted via nerves that have cells of origin in the superior cervical ganglion. This ganglion is located in the neck region and is responsible for sending sympathetic signals to various structures in the face and head. The sympathetic nervous system helps regulate various bodily functions including blood pressure, heart rate, and pupil dilation. By having cells of origin in the superior cervical ganglion, the sympathetic nerves can efficiently transmit signals to the face and head structures, allowing for appropriate physiological responses in these areas.

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  • 22. 

    Rate of gastric emptying is affected by

    • The quantity of liquid in chyme

    • Neural and hormonal reflexes from the small intestine

    • The quantity of chyme present in the small intestine

    • A and C

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    The rate of gastric emptying is affected by multiple factors. Firstly, the quantity of liquid in chyme plays a role in determining how quickly the stomach empties its contents. Secondly, neural and hormonal reflexes from the small intestine also influence gastric emptying rate. Finally, the quantity of chyme present in the small intestine affects the rate at which the stomach empties. Therefore, all of the above factors (A and C) have an impact on the rate of gastric emptying.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a function of the pancreas?

    • Secretion of digestive enzymes

    • Secretion of insulin

    • Secretion of bile

    • Secretion of glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretion of bile
    Explanation
    Bile is formed in the liver and stored in the gallbladder

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  • 24. 

    Calcium homeostasis is maintained by

    • Mineralocorticoids and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

    • Aldosterone and parathyroid hormone

    • Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

    • Calcitonin and glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin are both involved in maintaining calcium homeostasis. Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating the release of calcium from bones, increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and stimulating the production of active vitamin D, which enhances calcium absorption in the intestines. On the other hand, calcitonin decreases blood calcium levels by inhibiting the release of calcium from bones and increasing calcium excretion in the kidneys. Together, these hormones work to regulate calcium levels in the body and ensure that they remain within a narrow range.

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  • 25. 

    Mean arterial blood pressure is regulated by

    • Neural mechanisms that control constriction of the arteries

    • Principle of capillary dynamics that regulate blood volume

    • Renal and hormonal mechanisms that regulate blood volume and arteriolar constriction

    • All of the above

    • Two of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Mean arterial blood pressure is regulated by neural mechanisms that control constriction of the arteries, principles of capillary dynamics, and renal and hormonal mechanisms. In addition, mean arterial pressure (the approximate average of systolic and diastolic pressures) is affected by the cardiac output. Cardiac output is the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute.

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  • 26. 

    Conduction occurs when a stimulus reduces the membrane potential to a critical level. This level is called

    • Summation

    • Threshold

    • Action potential

    • Facilitation

    • Refractory period

    Correct Answer
    A. Threshold
    Explanation
    When a stimulus reduces the membrane potential to a critical level, it triggers a response called conduction. This critical level is referred to as the threshold. Once the threshold is reached, an action potential is generated, which allows the electrical signal to propagate along the neuron. The other options, such as summation, facilitation, and refractory period, are not directly related to the reduction of membrane potential and the initiation of conduction. Therefore, the correct answer is threshold.

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  • 27. 

    The neurotransmitter substance released at the postganglionic terminal of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is

    • Norepinephrine

    • Epinephrine

    • Cholinesterase

    • Acetylcholine

    • Gamma-aminobutyric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter substance released at the postganglionic terminal of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. It is responsible for transmitting signals from the nerve endings to the target organs, leading to parasympathetic responses such as rest and digest.

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  • 28. 

    Reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts is regulated by

    • Adrenocorticotropic hormone

    • Antidiuretic hormone

    • Aldosterone

    • Angiotensin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antidiuretic hormone
    Explanation
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates the reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts. ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland in response to low blood volume or high blood osmolarity. It acts on the cells lining the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts, increasing their permeability to water. This allows more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, reducing urine output and helping to maintain water balance in the body.

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  • 29. 

    The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can be accurately described by all of the following except

    • It damages T4 lymphocytes

    • It weakens the immune system in ways that allow opportunistic infections to kill the person that is infected

    • HIV is an unstable virus and can be killed by Lysol tm, Chlorox tm, and proper sterilization methods

    • If a person tests HIV negative, their blood and body fluids will contain the virus

    • Most scientists think that if a person tests positive for HIV-1 antibodies that they will eventually develop AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. If a person tests HIV negative, their blood and body fluids will contain the virus
    Explanation
    The statement that if a person tests HIV negative, their blood and body fluids will contain the virus is incorrect. When a person tests negative for HIV, it means that the virus is not present in their blood or body fluids at the time of testing. Testing negative for HIV indicates that the person is not infected with the virus.

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  • 30. 

    All of the following are derived from endoderm except

    • Epithelial parts of the respiratory system

    • Epithelial parts of the gastrointestinal system

    • Epithelium in the mouth

    • Epithelium of the pharynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Epithelium in the mouth
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "epithelium in the mouth". The mouth is derived from ectoderm, not endoderm. The respiratory system, gastrointestinal system, and pharynx are all derived from endoderm.

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  • 31. 

    Important centers for control of respiration and dardiovascular function are located in the

    • Pons

    • Medulla

    • Midbrain

    • Thalamus

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla
    Explanation
    The medulla is the correct answer because it is a vital part of the brainstem that controls essential functions such as respiration and cardiovascular function. It contains nuclei that regulate the rate and depth of breathing, as well as control blood pressure and heart rate. Damage to the medulla can lead to severe respiratory and cardiovascular problems, highlighting its crucial role in maintaining these vital functions. The pons, midbrain, and thalamus are also important regions of the brain, but they do not have the same level of control over respiration and cardiovascular function as the medulla does.

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  • 32. 

    Oxygen is carried in the blood

    • As oxyhemoglobin

    • Dissolved in plasma

    • As carbaminohemoglobin

    • Both A and B

    • Both A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Oxygen is carried in the blood both as oxyhemoglobin and dissolved in plasma. Oxyhemoglobin is formed when oxygen binds to hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells. This allows for efficient transport of oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues. Additionally, a small amount of oxygen can dissolve directly in the plasma, allowing for a small fraction of oxygen to be transported this way. Therefore, both A (oxyhemoglobin) and B (dissolved in plasma) are correct answers.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?

    • Epidermis

    • Nervous system

    • Adrenal medulla

    • Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

    • Connective tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Connective tissue
    Explanation
    Connective tissue is derived from mesoderm. During embryonic development, the mesoderm gives rise to various tissues and organs, including connective tissue. Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support, structure, and connects different parts of the body. It includes various types of cells, fibers, and ground substance. Examples of connective tissue include bone, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and blood.

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  • 34. 

    The nerve responsible for constriction of the pupil of the eye is

    • Optic nerve

    • Oculomotor nerve

    • Abducents nerve

    • Vagus nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Oculomotor nerve
    Explanation
    The oculomotor nerve is responsible for constriction of the pupil of the eye. This nerve controls the muscles that regulate the size of the pupil, allowing it to constrict or dilate in response to changes in light intensity or visual focus. The optic nerve, on the other hand, is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. The abducens nerve controls the lateral movement of the eye, while the vagus nerve is primarily involved in regulating functions of the internal organs.

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  • 35. 

    In long bones, the process whereby cartilage cells are replaced by bone cells, organic matrix is laid down, and calcium and phosphate are deposited is known as

    • Intramembranous ossification

    • Endochondral ossification

    • Osteoporosis

    • Erythropoiesis

    • Diaphyseal formation

    Correct Answer
    A. Endochondral ossification
    Explanation
    Endochondral ossification is the correct answer because it is the process by which long bones develop and grow. It involves the replacement of cartilage cells with bone cells, the deposition of organic matrix, and the accumulation of calcium and phosphate. This process is essential for the formation and development of the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones. Intramembranous ossification, on the other hand, is the process by which flat bones, such as the skull, are formed. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in bone density, erythropoiesis is the production of red blood cells, and diaphyseal formation is not a recognized term in bone development.

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  • 36. 

    With inspiration

    • Volume of the lungs increases, pressure increases

    • Volume of the lungs decreases, pressure increases

    • Volume of the lungs increases, pressure decreases

    • Volume of the lungs decreases, pressure decreases

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume of the lungs increases, pressure decreases
    Explanation
    As the size of the thorax and lungs increases, the pressure within the lungs decreases to a level below that of air according to Boyle's Law. The pressure that is decreased is intrapulmonic pressure

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  • 37. 

    Respiratory tidal volume is

    • The amount of air exchanged in the lungs with a normal breath

    • Approximately 1 liter

    • The maximum amount of air that can be inspired

    • The volume of air left in the lungs after expiration

    • The reserve lung volume

    Correct Answer
    A. The amount of air exchanged in the lungs with a normal breath
    Explanation
    The respiratory tidal volume refers to the amount of air that is exchanged in the lungs during a normal breath. It is the volume of air that is inhaled and exhaled during each respiratory cycle. This measurement is typically around 1 liter in adults.

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  • 38. 

    Cardiac output is the product of the

    • Heart rate and peripheral resistance

    • Heart rate and stroke volume

    • Heart rate and strength of contraction

    • Heart rate and vascular dilation

    Correct Answer
    A. Heart rate and stroke volume
    Explanation
    Cardiac output refers to the amount of blood that the heart pumps per minute. It is determined by the heart rate, which is the number of times the heart beats per minute, and the stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat. Therefore, the correct answer is "heart rate and stroke volume" because these two factors directly contribute to the calculation of cardiac output.

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  • 39. 

    During inspiration

    • Intrapleural pressure decreases while intraalveolar pressure increases

    • Both intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressure decrease

    • Intrapleural pressure increases while intraalveolar pressure decreases

    • Both intrapleural and intra-alveolar pressure increase

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrapleural pressure increases while intraalveolar pressure decreases
    Explanation
    During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, causing the volume of the thoracic cavity to increase. This increase in volume leads to a decrease in intrapleural pressure, as the pleural space expands. At the same time, the expansion of the thoracic cavity also leads to an increase in the volume of the alveoli in the lungs. This increase in volume causes a decrease in intraalveolar pressure. Therefore, during inspiration, intrapleural pressure increases while intraalveolar pressure decreases.

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  • 40. 

    All of the following are concerned with protein digestion except

    • Pepsin

    • Trypsin

    • Chymotrypsin

    • Carboxypolypeptidase

    • Amylase

    Correct Answer
    A. Amylase
    Explanation
    Amylase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes carbohydrates.

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  • 41. 

    Which hormone is LESS involved in a stress reaction?

    • Epinephrine

    • Norepinephrine

    • Cortisone

    • Thyroxin

    • Adrenocorticotropin

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroxin
    Explanation
    Thyroxin is less involved in a stress reaction compared to the other hormones listed. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are both released during stress and are responsible for the "fight or flight" response. Cortisone, also known as cortisol, is a stress hormone that helps regulate the body's response to stress. Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) is a hormone that stimulates the release of cortisol. Thyroxin, on the other hand, primarily regulates the body's metabolism and is not directly involved in the stress response.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following valves prevent backflow of deoxygenated blood?

    • Pulmonary and aortic valves

    • Pulmonary and right atrioventricular valves

    • Right and left atrioventricular valves

    • Aortic and left atrioventricular valves

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary and right atrioventricular valves
    Explanation
    The pulmonary valve prevents the backflow of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, while the right atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve prevents the backflow of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium. Therefore, the correct answer is pulmonary and right atrioventricular valves.

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  • 43. 

    Functions of the kidney include all of the following except

    • Regulation of hydrogen ion concentration

    • Regulation of body fluid volumes

    • Regulation of serum calcium levels

    • Regulation of serum sodium levels

    • Removal of urea, creatinine, and other metabolic end products

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulation of serum calcium levels
    Explanation
    The kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of various substances in the body. It regulates hydrogen ion concentration, body fluid volumes, serum sodium levels, and removes metabolic end products like urea and creatinine. However, the regulation of serum calcium levels is primarily controlled by the parathyroid gland and bone. The parathyroid gland releases parathyroid hormone (PTH) to regulate calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, the kidney does not directly regulate serum calcium levels, making it the exception among the given options.

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  • 44. 

    Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and the secretory glands of the nose and palate is transmitted via the

    • Trigeminal nerve

    • Abducens nerve

    • Facial nerve

    • Glossopharyngeal nerve

    • Vagus nerve

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial nerve
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and the secretory glands of the nose and palate is transmitted via the facial nerve. The facial nerve carries the parasympathetic fibers that control the production of tears and the secretion of mucus in the nose and palate. This nerve also controls the muscles of facial expression and carries taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

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  • 45. 

    Ovulation

    • Is dependent on a high concentration of LH in the blood

    • Occurs exactly 12 days after the end of menstruation

    • Occurs in one of the uterine tubes

    • Is dependent on high concentrations of estrogen in the blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Is dependent on a high concentration of LH in the blood
    Explanation
    Ovulation is dependent on a high concentration of LH in the blood. LH, or luteinizing hormone, is responsible for triggering the release of an egg from the ovary during ovulation. When the LH levels rise, it signals the ovary to release a mature egg, which can then be fertilized by sperm. Therefore, the presence of a high concentration of LH in the blood is necessary for ovulation to occur.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is NOT associated with a skeletal muscle?

    • Sarcolemma

    • Myofibrils

    • Intercalated disk

    • Mitochondria

    • Actin and myosin

    Correct Answer
    A. Intercalated disk
    Explanation
    The intercalated disk is not associated with skeletal muscles. Intercalated disks are unique structures found in cardiac muscle tissue, not in skeletal muscle tissue. These disks play a crucial role in coordinating the contraction of cardiac muscle cells, allowing them to function as a synchronized unit. In contrast, skeletal muscles do not have intercalated disks. Skeletal muscles are characterized by the presence of sarcolemma, myofibrils, actin and myosin, and mitochondria, which are all involved in muscle contraction and energy production.

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  • 47. 

    Cortisol

    • Increases the flux of amino acids in the body

    • Mobilizes stored fat

    • Promotes gluconeogenesis

    • All of the above

    • Only A and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Cortisol is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body's response to stress. It has several effects on metabolism, including increasing the flux of amino acids, mobilizing stored fat, and promoting gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources). These actions help provide the body with the necessary resources to cope with stress and maintain energy levels. Therefore, all of the given options (increasing amino acid flux, mobilizing stored fat, and promoting gluconeogenesis) are correct effects of cortisol.

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  • 48. 

    The swallowing mechanism involves which of the following cranial nerves?

    • Trigeminal

    • Facial

    • Glossopharyngeal

    • Vagus and hypoglossal

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The swallowing mechanism involves the activation of multiple cranial nerves. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation in the face and mouth during swallowing. The facial nerve controls the muscles responsible for closing the eyes and lips during swallowing. The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates the muscles of the pharynx and helps in initiating the swallowing reflex. The vagus nerve plays a crucial role in coordinating the muscles of the throat and esophagus during swallowing. Lastly, the hypoglossal nerve controls the movement of the tongue, which is essential for pushing the food back into the throat. Therefore, all of these cranial nerves are involved in the swallowing mechanism.

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  • 49. 

    Aldosterone

    • Increases reabsorption of water in the distal tubule of the kidney

    • Increases reabsorption of sodium and secretion of potassium

    • Increases reabsorption of sodium and hydrogen ions

    • Decreases reabsorption of sodium in the proximal tubule

    • Increases reabsorption of glucose in the proximal tubule

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases reabsorption of sodium and secretion of potassium
    Explanation
    Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that plays a crucial role in regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure. One of its main functions is to increase the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubule of the kidney, which helps to retain sodium and water in the body. Additionally, aldosterone also stimulates the secretion of potassium in the distal tubule, which helps to maintain the balance of potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is that aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and secretion of potassium.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 16, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Vloseva

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