US- Process Management, Objectives & Advancements Quiz

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1. Finding out what your bases ______ or maximum simultaneous deployment capability is the first step in creating a _______

Explanation

The question is asking for the first step in creating an IDP (Individual Development Plan) and suggests that it involves finding out what your bases worst case scenario or maximum simultaneous deployment capability is. This implies that understanding the worst possible outcome or the maximum workload that can be handled at once is crucial in developing a plan to address and prepare for such situations. Therefore, the correct answer is "worst case scenario, IDP."

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US- Process Management, Objectives & Advancements Quiz - Quiz

Do you know what is contingency planning? How much do you know about JOPES, or Joint Planning and Execution System? What is JOPES used for in the US? Check out our online quiz to test your knowledge and learn interesting trivia. Don't forget to collect your certificate of completion at... see morethe end of the quiz.
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2. ______ details a UTC's specific manpower requirments by functional account code, AFSC and guide.

Explanation

This statement suggests that "Manpower force Element" is the correct answer. It describes a specific document or process that outlines the manpower requirements of a UTC (Unit Type Code) in terms of functional account code, AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), and guide. This document or process likely helps in managing and allocating the necessary manpower resources for the UTC.

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3. ______ defines the standard equipment movements requirements for each UTC. The _____ provides a description, quantity and movement characteristics. Contains the increments, items, suffix items and AALPS data for the UTC.

Explanation

The correct answer is LOGDET, logistics detail. LOGDET refers to the system that defines the standard equipment movement requirements for each UTC (Unit Type Code). It provides a description, quantity, and movement characteristics, including increments, items, suffix items, and AALPS (Automated Air Load Planning System) data for the UTC. In other words, LOGDET is responsible for specifying the logistics details related to equipment movements within the UTC.

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4. Two types of UTC's

1 - Such a UTC would describe a deployable type unit of fixed composition.

2 - Has incomplete data and no associated movement characterisics

Explanation

The answer "standard, non standard" refers to the two types of UTCs mentioned in the question. The first type is a standard UTC, which describes a deployable unit with a fixed composition. This means that it is a well-defined and commonly used type of UTC. The second type is a non-standard UTC, which has incomplete data and lacks associated movement characteristics. This implies that it is not a commonly used or well-defined UTC, and may have limited or unclear information available.

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5. _______ responsible for developing and maintaing standard manpower and logistics detail for each UTC it has been assigned. Appointed in writing by MEFPAK responsible agency.

Explanation

A Pilot Unit is responsible for developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics detail for each UTC it has been assigned. It is appointed in writing by the MEFPAK responsible agency.

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6. _______ is the AF process for developing and describing standard, predefined manpower and equipment force capabilities and determining the deployment characteristics of these capabilities in support of JOPES.

Standard unit descriptions/force capabilities are collected in two components, MANFOR and LOGFOR.

Explanation

The correct answer is Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging (MEFPAK). MEFPAK is the AF process for developing and describing standard, predefined manpower and equipment force capabilities and determining the deployment characteristics of these capabilities in support of JOPES. This process collects standard unit descriptions and force capabilities in two components, MANFOR and LOGFOR.

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7. Four parts to the Deployment Organizational Structure

Explanation

The correct answer is the list of four parts that make up the Deployment Organizational Structure. These parts include the Deployment Control Center, which oversees and coordinates the entire deployment process. The Cargo Deployment Function handles the transportation and logistics of deploying equipment and supplies. The Personnel Deployment Function manages the deployment of personnel, ensuring they are properly trained and equipped. Lastly, the Unit Deployment Control Center is responsible for coordinating the deployment of specific military units. Together, these four parts work together to ensure a smooth and efficient deployment process.

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8. ____ has to monitor the timely and correct processing of cargo and personnel in order to meet the time constraints of the deployment schedule of events.

Explanation

The IDO (Installation Deployment Officer) is responsible for overseeing the timely and accurate handling of cargo and personnel to ensure they are processed correctly according to the deployment schedule. This involves closely monitoring the progress of the deployment events and making sure that everything is on track and meets the time constraints.

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9. ______ is the primary deployment  work center and heart of the deployment organization. Is the installation focal point for identifying, verifying and distributing tasking information before and during execution.

Explanation

The Deployment Control Center is considered the primary deployment work center and the heart of the deployment organization. It serves as the installation focal point for identifying, verifying, and distributing tasking information before and during execution. This means that it is responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment process, ensuring that all necessary tasks are assigned and executed efficiently. The Deployment Control Center plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and effective deployment of resources and personnel.

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10. ________ is established to provide a uniform system for identifying training, coding and placing augmentee personnel to meet manning requirements for installation level exercises, contingencies, wartime, or emergency situations.

Explanation

The READY augmentee program is established to provide a uniform system for identifying training, coding, and placing augmentee personnel to meet manning requirements for installation level exercises, contingencies, wartime, or emergency situations. This program ensures that there is a standardized process in place to quickly and efficiently deploy additional personnel when needed, ensuring that the installation is adequately staffed and prepared for any situation that may arise.

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11. How many deployers are required to stand up a PDF line? What AFI governs this?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that according to the rule of thumb, 25 deployers are required to stand up a PDF line. The rule of thumb is a general guideline or estimation that is commonly used in certain situations where precise calculations are not necessary. In this case, it suggests that 25 deployers would be sufficient for the task at hand. However, it is important to note that this explanation is based on the information provided in the question, and further context or details may be necessary for a more accurate explanation.

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12. The PDF line must include_______

Explanation

The PDF line must include information about medical and deployment eligibility. This means that the PDF document should provide details about the medical requirements and qualifications that individuals need to meet in order to be eligible for deployment. It is important for individuals to have a clear understanding of these criteria before they can be considered for deployment in certain situations.

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13. ______ is the transportation manager for the DOD and is responsible for providing global transportation. Includes AMC, MSC, and SDDC.

Explanation

USTRANSCOM, which stands for United States Transportation Command, is the transportation manager for the DOD (Department of Defense). It is responsible for providing global transportation services and overseeing various entities such as AMC (Air Mobility Command), MSC (Military Sealift Command), and SDDC (Surface Deployment and Distribution Command). USTRANSCOM plays a crucial role in coordinating and executing transportation operations to support the military's logistical needs worldwide.

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14. _______ is the JFC's focal point for joint air and space operations planning and execution, it is highly structured to pperate as a fully integrated facility and is staffed to meet all of the joint forces air component commanders responsibilities.

Explanation

The Air Operations Center (AOC) is the focal point for joint air and space operations planning and execution. It is highly structured and operates as a fully integrated facility. The AOC is staffed to meet all of the joint forces air component commanders responsibilities.

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15. The _____ is an AOC which involves other nations.

Explanation

CAOC stands for Combined Air Operations Center. It is an AOC (Air Operations Center) that involves other nations. A CAOC is a multinational command and control center where air operations are planned, coordinated, and executed. It brings together personnel from different countries to collaborate and conduct joint air operations. The inclusion of "combined" in the term CAOC emphasizes the involvement of multiple nations working together towards a common objective.

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16. _______ is considered to be the contingency flow master for theater air mobility operations, provides direction and guidance to the Air Mobility Division to coordinate with TACC on all USTRANSCOM air mobility mission ensuring the most effective use of resources in accomplishing JTF, theater and USTRANSCOM missions.

Explanation

DM4 is considered to be the contingency flow master for theater air mobility operations. They provide direction and guidance to the Air Mobility Division to coordinate with TACC on all USTRANSCOM air mobility missions, ensuring the most effective use of resources in accomplishing JTF, theater, and USTRANSCOM missions.

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17. Works in conjuntion with the DM4, coordinates with the DDOC and manages and controls intratheater airlift and air refueling resources.

Explanation

The Air Mobility Division is responsible for working together with the DM4, coordinating with the DDOC, and managing and controlling intratheater airlift and air refueling resources. This division focuses on ensuring efficient and effective transportation of personnel and equipment within a theater of operations, supporting military operations and logistics.

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18. The _____ oversees the execution of theater transportation priorities. Single focal point for customers at the combatant command, service and major shipper level.

Connected with the TCC elements by an integrated C4 system.

Explanation

The Deployment and Distribution Theater is responsible for overseeing the execution of theater transportation priorities. It serves as a single focal point for customers at the combatant command, service, and major shipper level. It is connected with the TCC elements by an integrated C4 system.

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19. Is the essential process that transitions deploying forces, consisting of personnel, epuipment and material arriving in theater into forces capable of meeting the CCDR's operational requirments.

Explanation

JRSOI stands for Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration. It is the essential process that transitions deploying forces, consisting of personnel, equipment, and material arriving in theater, into forces capable of meeting the CCDR's operational requirements. This process includes receiving and accounting for personnel and equipment, staging them in a secure location, preparing them for onward movement, and integrating them into the operational environment. JRSOI ensures that the necessary resources are in place and ready to support the mission objectives of the CCDR.

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20. Teams will receive and beddown forces, is an intial deplyoment element of personnel and equipment within a UTC.

Explanation

The correct answer is ADVON teams. ADVON stands for Advanced Echelon, which refers to the initial deployment element of personnel and equipment within a Unit Type Code (UTC). ADVON teams are responsible for receiving and beddown of forces, meaning they are the first group to arrive at a deployment location and set up the necessary infrastructure and resources for the rest of the unit to follow. They play a crucial role in establishing a base of operations and ensuring a smooth transition for the rest of the team.

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21. The ______ process ends when the unit commander reports the unit is ready for operations and the unit is integrated with its higher headquarters.

What does this explain?

Explanation

This answer explains that the completion of the jrsoi process is indicated when the unit commander reports that the unit is ready for operations and has been integrated with its higher headquarters. This signifies that the unit has undergone the necessary steps and preparations to be fully integrated and ready to carry out its assigned tasks and missions.

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22. Total means of destructive and disruptive force which a military unit can apply to the opponent at a given time.

Explanation

Combat power refers to the combined strength and capability of a military unit to exert destructive and disruptive force on an opponent. It encompasses various factors such as weaponry, equipment, training, morale, leadership, and tactics. The higher the combat power of a unit, the greater its ability to overcome and defeat the enemy in battle. This term is commonly used to assess and compare the effectiveness and potential outcomes of military operations.

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23. ______ is the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in ove area to another area, another location within the area or to the home station.

Explanation

Redeployment refers to the process of transferring a unit, an individual, or supplies from one area to another area, another location within the same area, or to the home station. This can occur in various contexts such as military operations, organizational restructuring, or logistical planning. It involves moving resources or personnel to different locations in order to meet changing needs or objectives. Redeployment can be a strategic decision made to optimize resources, enhance operational efficiency, or respond to new requirements.

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24. Assist planners in developing a redeployment plan at the employment site as soon as possible before redeployment orders are published.

Explanation

RAT teams, or Rapid Action Teams, are groups of individuals who are trained to assist planners in developing a redeployment plan at the employment site as soon as possible before redeployment orders are published. These teams work quickly and efficiently to ensure that all necessary preparations are made and that the redeployment process can proceed smoothly. By having RAT teams in place, planners can effectively coordinate and organize the redeployment efforts, ensuring that everything is in order before the orders are officially released.

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25. The mission of _______ is to coordinate the redeployment effort, getting cargo and personnel back home or to a forward location. Personnel should be knowledgeable in DSOE prepartion via LOGMOD Stand Alone.

Explanation

The RAT Team's mission is to coordinate the redeployment effort, ensuring that cargo and personnel are transported back home or to a forward location. The team members should have knowledge and expertise in DSOE preparation through the use of LOGMOD Stand Alone.

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26. The ______ is probably where you'll find documents that a unit deployed with and that can be used for redeployment. Knowing what equipment remains or needs to be returned to other units is key.

Explanation

The Reception Control Center is the likely place to find documents that a unit deployed with and that can be used for redeployment. This is important for keeping track of the equipment that remains or needs to be returned to other units.

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27. The ____ is the primary automated suite supporting and enabling the redeployment process. Tools required are LOGMOD stand alone, PERSCO module of DCAPES/Manper B, AALPS, and CMOS. AMC aerial ports may use GATES or Web GATES.

Explanation

The IDS (Installation Deployment System) is the primary automated suite supporting and enabling the redeployment process. It utilizes various tools such as LOGMOD stand alone, PERSCO module of DCAPES/Manper B, AALPS, and CMOS. In addition, AMC aerial ports have the option to use GATES or Web GATES for their redeployment processes.

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28. Support Agreements may be between different government agencies; different services and different commands.

Explanation

Support agreements can indeed be established between different government agencies, services, and commands. These agreements allow for cooperation and collaboration between these entities, enabling them to share resources, expertise, and support in order to achieve common goals or address shared challenges. These agreements are often necessary in complex government structures where different agencies or commands may have overlapping responsibilities or require assistance from one another. Therefore, the statement is true.

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29. There are three volumes in JOPES.

Explanation

The statement is true because JOPES (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) is a military system that consists of three volumes. These volumes provide guidance and procedures for planning and executing joint military operations.

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30. Contingency planning and CAP share common planning activities and are interrelated.

Explanation

Contingency planning and CAP (Crisis Action Planning) are both planning activities that are closely connected. Contingency planning involves developing strategies and actions to address potential future events or crises. CAP, on the other hand, is a specific type of contingency planning that focuses on immediate response and decision-making during a crisis. While CAP is a subset of contingency planning, both involve similar processes and considerations, making them interrelated. Therefore, the statement that contingency planning and CAP share common planning activities and are interrelated is true.

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31. Contingency planning facilitates the transition to CAP.

Explanation

Contingency planning refers to the process of preparing for potential future events or circumstances that may disrupt normal operations. By having a contingency plan in place, organizations can effectively respond to unexpected situations and minimize the impact on their operations. In the context of the question, CAP refers to the Continuity of Operations Plan, which is a set of procedures and protocols put in place to ensure that essential functions can continue during and after a crisis. Therefore, it can be inferred that contingency planning indeed facilitates the transition to CAP, making the statement "True."

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32. _______ encompasses the activities associated with development of OPLANS for the deployment, employment, ans sustainment of apportioned forces in response to a hypothetical situation identified in joint strategic planning documents.

Explanation

Contingency planning refers to the activities involved in developing OPLANS (operational plans) for the deployment, employment, and sustainment of apportioned forces in response to a hypothetical situation identified in joint strategic planning documents. It is a process that helps organizations prepare for and respond to potential future events or emergencies, ensuring that they have plans in place to mitigate risks and handle unexpected situations effectively. Contingency planning is crucial for ensuring readiness and preparedness in the face of uncertain circumstances.

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33. _______ planning involves an incident or situation involving a threat to the United States, its territories, citizens, military forces, possesions, or vital interests.

Explanation

Crisis action planning involves developing strategies and actions to address incidents or situations that pose a threat to the United States, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions, or vital interests. This type of planning focuses on rapidly responding to and managing crises, such as natural disasters, terrorist attacks, or military conflicts. It involves coordinating resources, making quick decisions, and implementing measures to mitigate the impact of the crisis and protect national security. Crisis action planning is essential for ensuring effective response and safeguarding the well-being and interests of the country.

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34. ________ encompasses the activities associated with the time sensitive development of OPORD's for the deployment, employment, and sustainment of assigned, attached, and allocated forces and resources in response to an actual situation that may result in actual military operations.

Explanation

Crisis action planning refers to the activities involved in the timely development of operational orders (OPORD's) for the deployment, employment, and sustainment of assigned, attached, and allocated forces and resources. It is specifically designed to address actual situations that may lead to military operations.

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35. _________ is defined as "joint capability to create and revise plans rapidly and systematically, as circumstances require." It is the engine for adaptive change.

Explanation

Adaptive planning refers to the joint capability of creating and revising plans quickly and systematically based on the changing circumstances. It serves as the driving force behind adaptive change, allowing organizations to adjust their strategies and actions according to the evolving needs and challenges. Adaptive planning enables flexibility and agility in decision-making, ensuring that plans can be adjusted promptly to address emerging situations and achieve desired outcomes.

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36. When does the CJCS issue and ALERTORD to the JPEC?

Explanation

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) issues an ALERTORD (Alert Order) to the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) when they receive notification from the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF). This indicates that the CJCS takes action based on the information or instructions provided by the SECDEF. The ALERTORD serves as a directive to the JPEC regarding a specific alert or readiness status that needs to be implemented or maintained.

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37. ___________ is a document prepared periodocally by the executive branch for congress wich outlines the major national security concerns of the Unites States and how the administration plans to deal with them.

Explanation

The document referred to in the question is called the national security strategy. It is prepared by the executive branch and presented to congress periodically. The purpose of this document is to outline the major national security concerns of the United States and provide an overview of how the administration plans to address these concerns. The national security strategy serves as a roadmap for the government's approach to protecting the country's interests and ensuring its security.

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38. ___________ is issued by the CJCS as a deliverable to the Secretary of Defense briefly outlining the strategic aims of the armed services.

Explanation

The National Military Strategy is issued by the CJCS as a deliverable to the Secretary of Defense briefly outlining the strategic aims of the armed services. It serves as a guidance document that provides a comprehensive overview of the military's objectives and priorities. The National Military Strategy helps to align the efforts of the armed services towards achieving common goals and ensures that they are working in a coordinated manner. It is an important tool for strategic planning and decision-making at the highest levels of military leadership.

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39. The ________ chief source of guidance is the National Security Strategy document.

Explanation

The National Military Strategy is the chief source of guidance because it outlines the military's approach and priorities in alignment with the broader National Security Strategy. It provides a comprehensive understanding of the military's role in achieving national security objectives, including the use of force and military capabilities. This strategy document helps in shaping military plans, resource allocation, and decision-making processes to ensure the military's actions are in line with the overall national security goals and objectives.

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40. The __________ is the primary vehicle through which the CJCS translates the national security strategy into planning guidance.

Explanation

The joint strategic capabilities plan is the primary vehicle through which the CJCS translates the national security strategy into planning guidance. This plan outlines the capabilities and resources needed to achieve the strategic objectives and provides a roadmap for the military to align its efforts with the overall national security strategy. It helps in identifying gaps, prioritizing resources, and coordinating the efforts of different military branches and agencies to ensure a unified approach towards achieving national security objectives.

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41. A __________ is an operational plan in an abbreviated format that may require considerable expansion or alteration to convert it into an OPLAN.

Explanation

A concept plan is a condensed operational plan that serves as a starting point and may need to be further developed or modified to become an OPLAN. It provides a basic outline or framework for the overall strategy and objectives, but lacks the detailed specifics and implementation details that an OPLAN would have. The concept plan acts as a preliminary blueprint that can be expanded upon and refined to create a more comprehensive and actionable OPLAN.

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42. The objective of _________________ is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an OPORD if necessary.

Explanation

Concept planning is the process of developing operational and support concepts that can be quickly expanded into an operational order (OPORD) if needed. This involves creating a framework for how the mission will be executed, including identifying resources, defining tasks, and determining timelines. The objective of concept planning is to have a solid foundation in place that can be easily adapted and scaled up if the situation requires it. This allows for efficient and effective decision-making and execution of operations.

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43. At base level, logistics planners are assigned to the ___________________ in the LRS.

Explanation

At base level, logistics planners are assigned to the deployment and distribution flight in the LRS. This means that their primary responsibility is to plan and coordinate the deployment and distribution of resources, personnel, and equipment for the flight. They ensure that everything is properly organized and executed to support the mission objectives. This role requires strong organizational and logistical skills to effectively manage the movement of resources and ensure smooth operations.

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44. ____________ is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property.

Explanation

LGRD is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property.

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45. __________  is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP to counter a perceived threat.

Explanation

An operations plan is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP to counter a perceived threat. This plan outlines the specific actions, strategies, and resources that will be utilized to address the threat and achieve the desired objectives. It provides a comprehensive overview of the proposed operations, including the timeline, allocation of resources, and coordination with other entities involved. The operations plan serves as a guide for the CCDR and their team to effectively execute their mission and mitigate the perceived threat.

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46. An _________ must include all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting TPFDD. It may be used as the basis of a campaign plan (if required) and then developed into an OPORD.

Explanation

An operations plan is a comprehensive document that includes all necessary annexes, appendices, and a supporting Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD). It serves as the foundation for a campaign plan, if necessary, and can be further developed into an operational order (OPORD). The operations plan outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required for the successful execution of a military operation. It provides a detailed roadmap for commanders and staff to coordinate and synchronize their efforts in achieving mission success.

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47. A ____________ is prepared as taksed by the supported CCRD's in support of their concept plans. They are prepared by supporting CCDRs; subordinate JFC's component commanders, or other agencies.

Explanation

A supporting plan is prepared as tasked by the supported CCRD's in support of their concept plans. These plans are prepared by supporting CCDRs, subordinate JFC's component commanders, or other agencies. The purpose of a supporting plan is to provide detailed guidance and instructions on how to execute and support the concept plans of the supported CCRD's. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and responsibilities of the supporting entities to ensure the successful implementation of the concept plans.

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48. The _____________ provides the Air Staff and AF commanders with current policies, planning factors and allocated forces for conducting and supporting wartime operations.

It comes from the JSCP.

Explanation

The War Mobilization Plan is a document that provides the Air Staff and AF commanders with current policies, planning factors, and allocated forces for conducting and supporting wartime operations. It is derived from the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP), which outlines the military strategy and objectives for the Department of Defense. The War Mobilization Plan is essential for coordinating and organizing resources during times of conflict, ensuring that the Air Force is prepared and equipped to fulfill its mission in a wartime scenario.

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49. Volumes ____________ of the WMP provide the guidance you'll need to develop plans. Volumes _____________ contain information from already published plans.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1,3,5,2,4. This suggests that volumes 1, 3, and 5 of the WMP provide the guidance needed to develop plans, while volumes 2 and 4 contain information from already published plans.

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50. __________ Within the WMP, the basic plan addresses the general situation, mission, concept of operations, and execution tasks for Air Force forces in regional conflicts.

Explanation

The correct answer is Volume 1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes. This volume of the WMP contains the basic plan, which outlines the general situation, mission, concept of operations, and execution tasks for Air Force forces in regional conflicts. It also includes supporting annexes that provide additional details and information. This volume serves as a foundational document for the WMP and provides a comprehensive overview of the Air Force's approach to regional conflicts.

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51. Within the WMP, is a three part reference document containing a listing of all active plans with TPFDDs.

Explanation

The correct answer is Volume 2 Plans Listing and Summary. This document is a part of the WMP (Warfighter's Mission Planner) and it contains a comprehensive listing of all active plans with TPFDDs (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data). It provides a summary of these plans, allowing users to easily access and reference the information they need.

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52. _________ Within the WMP, has five parts. Part 1 contains combat forces, Part 2 is the Air Force unit type code UTC availability and contains all postured UTC capability in the Air Force. Part 3 contains the Air Force RSP authorization document. Part 4 contains the comprehensive AEF Rotational Force Schedule for combat and support forces. Part 5 contains the US Air Force Rotational Force Allocation Plan.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Volume 3, Combat and Support Forces" because it is stated in the passage that Part 4 of the WMP contains the comprehensive AEF Rotational Force Schedule for combat and support forces. Therefore, Volume 3 of the WMP, which is titled "Combat and Support Forces," is the correct answer.

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53. ______________ Within the WMP, is governed by AFI 25-101 War Reserve material (WRM) Program Guidance and Procedure. WMP-4 documents the deployment, positioning and employment of activity of Air Force aviation units for each geographical location having aircraft passing through or operation from it in support of all regional OPLANs and certain CONPLAN's.

Explanation

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54. ________ Within the WMP, provides approved US Air Force planning factors to compute expenditures of all war consumables

Explanation

Volume 5, Basic Planning Factors and Data within the WMP provides approved US Air Force planning factors to calculate the costs of all war consumables. This volume likely contains essential information and guidelines for determining the expenses associated with various resources and materials required for military operations. It serves as a reference document for budgeting and financial planning purposes within the US Air Force.

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55. _________ is a broad document published by the President and National Security Council (NSC), outlining the defense, economic, internal and international security objectives of the United States.

Explanation

The National Security Strategy is a comprehensive document that is published by the President and National Security Council (NSC) of the United States. It outlines the country's defense, economic, internal, and international security objectives. This strategy serves as a broad framework for guiding the nation's security policies and actions, addressing both domestic and global challenges. It provides a roadmap for protecting the nation's interests and promoting its values on the global stage.

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56. ____________ is issued by the Chairman of the Joint Cheifs of Staff as a deliverable to the Secretary of Defense briefly outlining the strategic aims of the armed services.

Explanation

The National Military Strategy is issued by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff to provide a concise overview of the strategic goals of the armed services. This document serves as a deliverable to the Secretary of Defense, outlining the strategic aims and objectives of the military. It helps to align the efforts of the armed services and provides a framework for their operations and decision-making. The National Military Strategy plays a crucial role in guiding the military's actions and ensuring the effective use of resources to achieve national security objectives.

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57. The NMS's chief source of guidance is the _______ document.

Explanation

The NMS, or National Military Strategy, relies heavily on the national security strategy document for guidance. This document outlines the country's overall approach to national security, including its goals, priorities, and strategies. By aligning with the national security strategy, the NMS ensures that its actions and plans are in line with the broader national security objectives. This helps to create a unified and coordinated approach to addressing security challenges and achieving national security goals.

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58. The JSCP is the primary vehicle through which the CJCS translates the national security strategy into planning guidance.

Explanation

The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) serves as the main tool for the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) to convert the national security strategy into planning guidance. This means that the JSCP plays a crucial role in ensuring that the objectives and goals outlined in the national security strategy are effectively translated into actionable plans and strategies. Therefore, the statement is true.

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59. An ________ is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP to counter a perceived threat.

Explanation

An operations plan is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP (Concept of Operations) to counter a perceived threat. This plan outlines the specific actions and strategies that will be implemented to address the threat and achieve the desired objectives. It provides a detailed roadmap for the CCDR and his/her team to follow in order to effectively counter the perceived threat and mitigate any potential risks or challenges. The operations plan serves as a comprehensive guide that ensures coordination and alignment of efforts towards a common goal.

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60. An _________ must include all requried annexes, appendices and a supporting TPFDD. It may be used as the basis of a campaign plan and then developed into an OPORD.

Explanation

An operations plan is a comprehensive document that includes all necessary annexes, appendices, and a supporting Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD). This plan serves as the foundation for a campaign plan and can be further developed into an operational order (OPORD). It outlines the objectives, tasks, resources, and timelines needed to execute a specific operation. By including all the necessary components and supporting information, an operations plan provides a detailed and organized approach to achieving mission success.

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61. __________ is defined as sound operational and support concepts that can be readily expanded into an OPORD if necessary.

Explanation

Concept planning is defined as sound operational and support concepts that can be readily expanded into an OPORD if necessary. This means that concept planning involves developing well-thought-out strategies and ideas that can be easily translated into a detailed operational order (OPORD) if the need arises. It is an important aspect of military planning, as it ensures that there is a solid foundation for future actions and operations. Concept planning allows for flexibility and adaptability, enabling quick and efficient decision-making in dynamic situations.

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62. _________ is a type of plan that involves military operations in a peacetime or permissive environment.

Explanation

The term "funcplan" refers to a functional plan, which is a type of plan that focuses on military operations carried out during peacetime or in an environment where there are minimal restrictions. This plan outlines the specific functions, tasks, and objectives that need to be accomplished in order to achieve the desired outcome in a peaceful or permissive setting. It helps in organizing and coordinating military activities during non-combat situations.

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63. Functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD.

Explanation

Functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD. This means that functional plans follow the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) procedures and formats that are specifically designed for a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) without a Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD). Therefore, the statement "Functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD" is true.

Submit
64. ___________ are prepared as taksed by the supported CCRD's in support of their contingency plans.

Explanation

Supporting plans are prepared in accordance with the instructions given by the supported CCRD's (Critical Capability Requirements Documents) to assist and complement their contingency plans. These supporting plans are designed to provide additional support and resources to the CCRD's in order to effectively execute their contingency plans during times of crisis or emergency.

Submit
65. ___________ request that the Combatant Commander create and submit his/her CCDR's estimate containing COA recommendations in response to the crisis. It directs the preparation of preliminary deployment estimates for both the supported and supporting commanders. It also establishes command relationships and provides the mission, objectives and known contraints.

Explanation

A WARNORD is a request for the Combatant Commander to create and submit their estimate containing Course of Action (COA) recommendations in response to a crisis. It also directs the preparation of preliminary deployment estimates for both supported and supporting commanders, establishes command relationships, and provides the mission, objectives, and known constraints.

Submit
66. A _______ primary purpose is to direct that execution planning activities begin before formal selection of a COA by the National Command Authorities (NCA).

Explanation

A PLANORD's primary purpose is to initiate execution planning activities prior to the formal selection of a COA by the National Command Authorities (NCA). This means that a PLANORD serves as a directive to start planning for the execution of a specific course of action before the NCA officially chooses that COA. It ensures that the necessary preparations and coordination are underway in advance, allowing for a smoother and more efficient execution process once the COA is selected.

Submit
67. The SECDEF approves and transmits an _______ to the supported commander and JPEC announcing the selected COA. This order will describe the COA sufficiently to allow the supported commander and JPEC to begin or continue the detailed planning necessary to deploy forces.

Explanation

The SECDEF approves and transmits an Alert Order (ALORD) to the supported commander and JPEC announcing the selected COA. This order will describe the COA sufficiently to allow the supported commander and JPEC to begin or continue the detailed planning necessary to deploy forces.

Submit
68. _______ this order is issued by the authority and direction of the SECDEF and directs the deployment and/or employment of forces. If the _______ was preceded by a detailed ALORD or PLANORD, then the _________ simply directs the deployment and employment of forces.

Explanation

An Execution Order (EXORD) is an order issued by the authority and direction of the SECDEF (Secretary of Defense) that directs the deployment and/or employment of forces. If the EXORD was preceded by a detailed ALORD (Alert Order) or PLANORD (Planning Order), then the EXORD simply directs the deployment and employment of forces. In other words, an EXORD is a directive that outlines specific actions and tasks for military forces to carry out in order to execute a mission or operation.

Submit
69. The __________ is the appropriate instrument to change force structure during an operation.

Explanation

A deployment order (DEPORD) is the appropriate instrument to change force structure during an operation. A DEPORD specifies the specifics of a unit's movement, including the timing, destination, and composition of forces. It allows for the reorganization and redistribution of forces to meet the operational needs and objectives. By issuing a DEPORD, commanders can effectively adjust the force structure to adapt to changing circumstances, such as shifting priorities, new threats, or evolving operational requirements.

Submit
70. _________ is the electronic data portion ofa contingency plan that coexists in JOPE/DCAPES. It contains detailed requirements, capabilities and movement data that support Air Force, Joint and combined plans.

Explanation

The electronic data portion of a contingency plan that coexists in JOPE/DCAPES is called Time Phased Force Deployment Data. This data contains detailed requirements, capabilities, and movement data that support Air Force, Joint, and combined plans. It is an essential component of contingency planning as it provides crucial information for the deployment of forces in a timely and organized manner.

Submit
71. _________ and designated functional managers own the data in the TPFDD's that support their JSCP taskings, operations and exercises. They have overall control of TPFDD development, distribution, security level, maintenance and overall quality.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
72. Each TPFDD is maintained under a separate __________ in JOPES. If you don't have access to JOPES/DCAPES, the written portion of the _______ contains a computer product called the __________, located at appendix ____  annex _____ of the OPLAN.

Explanation

In JOPES, each TPFDD is maintained under a separate plan identification designator. If access to JOPES/DCAPES is not available, the written portion of the OPLAN contains a computer product called the TPFDDL, located at appendix 1 annex A.

Submit
73. A ____________ is a seven character, alphanumeric code that links a unit to a specific force capability entry line in a JOPES TPFDD

Explanation

A Unit Line Number is a seven character, alphanumeric code that links a unit to a specific force capability entry line in a JOPES TPFDD. This code is used to identify and track units within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and ensure accurate deployment and allocation of resources. The Unit Line Number serves as a unique identifier for each unit and helps in organizing and managing the force capabilities effectively.

Submit
74. ________ is the latest date, relative to C-Day, that a force requirement must arrive at the destination to properly support the operation.

Explanation

The required delivery date refers to the latest date, in relation to C-Day, by which a force requirement must reach its destination in order to effectively support the operation. It indicates the deadline for the arrival of the force requirement to ensure timely and proper support for the operation.

Submit
75. ________ is the process that allows the supported commander to incorporate changes made since it was initially refined and validated in the TPFDD.

Explanation

TPFDD maintenance is the process that allows the supported commander to incorporate changes made since the TPFDD (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data) was initially refined and validated. This means that any modifications or updates that have been made to the TPFDD can be integrated into the planning and execution of military operations. TPFDD maintenance ensures that the information in the TPFDD remains accurate and up-to-date, reflecting any changes in forces, resources, or deployment plans.

Submit
76. The ______ module of LOGMOD  provides users with an automated capability to plan, schedule, and monitor the deployment actions that support the movement of forces and provides a C2 capability.

Explanation

The deployment schedule of events (DSOE) module of LOGMOD is designed to assist users in planning, scheduling, and monitoring deployment actions. It automates these processes and provides a command and control (C2) capability for the movement of forces. This module ensures that all necessary events are included in the deployment schedule and allows for efficient coordination and management of deployment operations.

Submit
77. Per  AFI _____ the _____ is responsible for managing the outflow of cargo and personnel for the base.

Explanation

The given answer, "10-403, IDO," is the correct answer because according to AFI (Air Force Instruction) 10-403, the IDO (Installation Deployment Officer) is responsible for managing the outflow of cargo and personnel for the base.

Submit
78. _______ will prioritize the movment of cargo and passengers as directed in the DSOE.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
79. _____ is the DOD's automated system that integrates the strategic command, control, communications, computers and intelligence (C4I) functions.

Explanation

The Global Command and Control System (GCCS) is the Department of Defense's automated system that integrates various functions such as strategic command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I). It is a comprehensive system that allows for efficient and effective coordination and management of military operations.

Submit
80. ______ is the DOD directed single, integrated joint C2 system for conventional operation planning and execution. It includes policies, procedures, reporting structures and personnel supported by the C4I systems and is used by the joint community to conduct joint planning during peace and crisis.

Explanation

JOPES (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) is the DOD directed single, integrated joint C2 system for conventional operation planning and execution. It encompasses policies, procedures, reporting structures, and personnel supported by the C4I systems. JOPES is utilized by the joint community to conduct joint planning during both peace and crisis situations.

Submit
81. _____ is the Air Forces war plannign system and provides and Air Force feed to JOPES.

Explanation

DCAPES (Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments) is the Air Force's war planning system that integrates and coordinates various aspects of military operations. It provides the Air Force feed to the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), which is a Department of Defense system used for planning and executing military operations. DCAPES helps in strategic planning, resource allocation, and mission execution by providing real-time information and analysis.

Submit
82. ________ provides the AF with the ability to view or edit OPLAN related data from JOPES.

Explanation

AFJET stands for Air Force Joint Engineering Toolkit. It is a software tool that provides the Air Force (AF) with the ability to view or edit Operational Plan (OPLAN) related data from the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). This tool helps the AF in managing and analyzing OPLAN data, allowing them to make informed decisions and effectively plan and execute joint operations.

Submit
83. ________ is the DCAPES module for managing UTC's. This module has three tools. One for registration, one for UTC maintenance and one for reports.

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit Type Management Module. This module is specifically designed for managing UTC's (Unit Type Codes). It consists of three tools: one for registration, one for UTC maintenance, and one for generating reports. This module allows for efficient management and organization of different unit types within the DCAPES system.

Submit
84. ________ interprets WAAR requirments to produce the WCDO to support wartime operations.

Explanation

LOGFAC stands for Logistics Feasibility Analysis Capability, which is a system that interprets WAAR (Wartime Automatic Account Reconciliation) requirements and generates the WCDO (Wartime Cost and Distribution Objectives) to support wartime operations. It is responsible for analyzing the feasibility of logistical operations during wartime and providing the necessary cost and distribution objectives to ensure smooth operations. LOGFAC plays a crucial role in planning and executing logistics activities during times of war.

Submit
85. ________ ensures aircraft/cargo passenger loads don't exceed proper weight and balance.  Integrated Deployment System

Explanation

AALPS stands for Aircraft/Airborne Load Planning System, which is a software system used to ensure that the weight and balance of aircraft and cargo passenger loads are within the proper limits. It helps in calculating the weight distribution and positioning of passengers, cargo, and fuel to maintain the stability and safety of the aircraft during flight. By using AALPS, airlines and cargo operators can optimize their load planning process and ensure that the aircraft is not overloaded or imbalanced, which could lead to potential safety risks.

Submit
86. ________ is a logistics planning program that receives and maintains the cargo and personnel details for UTC's and taskings.  Integrated Deployment System

Explanation

LOGMOD is a logistics planning program that is responsible for receiving and maintaining the cargo and personnel details for UTC's (Unit Type Codes) and taskings. It helps in effectively managing and organizing the logistics operations by keeping track of the necessary information related to cargo and personnel.

Submit
87. ______ is not a module of LOGMOD, rather it is a backup of LOGMOD

Explanation

LSA (Logistics Support Analysis) is not a module of LOGMOD (Logistics Modernization Program), but rather it is a backup of LOGMOD. This means that LSA serves as a support analysis for LOGMOD, providing additional backup and assistance in logistics management and modernization. It is important to understand the distinction between the two, as LSA plays a complementary role to LOGMOD rather than being an integral part of it.

Submit
88. ______ automates passenger and deployment cargo processing during deployments and contingencies.  Integrated Deployment System

Explanation

The CMOS Cargo Movement Operations System automates passenger and deployment cargo processing during deployments and contingencies. This system is designed to streamline and simplify the movement of cargo, ensuring efficient and timely delivery. By automating these processes, it eliminates the need for manual paperwork and reduces the risk of errors or delays. The CMOS Cargo Movement Operations System plays a crucial role in facilitating smooth operations and logistics during deployments and contingencies.

Submit
89. ______ modules manages force package UTC data at Base Level. It provides requirments/personnel data to LOGMOD via the levy and personnel information files. Integrated Deployment System

Explanation

DCAPES/Manper B modules manage force package UTC data at the Base Level. These modules provide the required personnel data and requirements to LOGMOD through the levy and personnel information files. The Integrated Deployment System is not mentioned in the question and is therefore not the correct answer.

Submit
90. _______ provides visibility of Special Assignement Airlift Mission (SAAM), Joint Airborne/Air Transportability Training (JA/ATT), Operational Support Aircraft (OSA), contigency, exercise, Guard and Reserve missions and visibility of short term Air Refueling, Denton, Oppurtune, SAAM and reserve requirments.

Explanation

The Single Mobility System (SMS) provides visibility of various missions and requirements such as Special Assignment Airlift Mission (SAAM), Joint Airborne/Air Transportability Training (JA/ATT), Operational Support Aircraft (OSA), contingency, exercise, Guard and Reserve missions, and short-term Air Refueling, Denton, Opportune, SAAM, and reserve requirements. The SMS is a system that helps manage and track these missions and requirements, ensuring efficient and effective transportation and logistics operations.

Submit
91. _______ is  a hard copy reflecting a units mission and the basis for the unit capability reporting. It summarizes tasking requirements established in approved plans and directives.

Explanation

A Sorts Doc Statement is a hard copy document that reflects a unit's mission and serves as the basis for the unit's capability reporting. It provides a summary of the tasking requirements that have been established in approved plans and directives. The Sorts Doc Statement is used to ensure that the unit is able to effectively carry out its mission and meet the necessary reporting standards.

Submit
92. ______ commanders assess mearsurments against their mission set to determine if they provide a realistic indication of the unit's readiness. All measured units continuously monitor changes in the overall unit level, resource categories levels and unit location. The report is monthly.

Explanation

The given answer, "Sorts Report," is a plausible explanation for the question. The passage mentions that commanders assess measurements against their mission set to determine the unit's readiness. They continuously monitor changes in unit level, resource categories, and unit location. The report is stated to be monthly. Based on this information, it can be inferred that the "Sorts Report" is a report that provides an assessment of the unit's readiness by analyzing various measurements and factors.

Submit
93. __________ is a JCS controlled, automated data system primarily created to provide the President, SECDEF and JCS with authoritative identification, location, and resource information.

Explanation

SORTS (Status of Resources and Training System) is a JCS controlled, automated data system primarily created to provide the President, SECDEF (Secretary of Defense), and JCS (Joint Chiefs of Staff) with authoritative identification, location, and resource information. SORTS allows for the efficient tracking and reporting of the status of military resources, such as personnel, equipment, and training readiness. It helps ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available to decision-makers, enabling them to make informed decisions regarding military operations and resource allocation.

Submit
94. ______ is the Air Forces only reporting tool which assists the AEF Center in planning configuring, scheduling, preparing and assessing AEFS.

Explanation

The correct answer is ART AEF Reporting Tool. ART is the Air Forces only reporting tool that helps the AEF Center in various tasks such as planning, configuring, scheduling, preparing, and assessing AEFS (Air Expeditionary Force Structure). This tool is specifically designed to streamline and enhance the reporting process, making it easier for the AEF Center to manage and analyze data related to AEFS.

Submit
95. ________ areas to be considered within this reporting tool are personnel, equipement, training, and equipment condition.

Explanation

The given correct answer "ART" refers to the acronym for "Areas to be considered within this reporting tool." The acronym represents the key areas that need to be taken into account when using the reporting tool, which include personnel, equipment, training, and equipment condition. These areas are crucial for effective reporting and analysis within the tool, ensuring that all relevant factors are considered and evaluated accurately.

Submit
96. _____ provides the POTUS, SECDEF and JCS with authoritative identification, location and resource information. Measures daily resource status of operative forces.

Explanation

SORTS stands for Status of Resources and Training System. It is a system that provides the President of the United States (POTUS), Secretary of Defense (SECDEF), and Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) with accurate and up-to-date information regarding the identification, location, and resource status of operative forces. This system helps in monitoring and assessing the daily resource status of the military forces, ensuring that the necessary resources are available for effective operations.

Submit
97. With regard to WRM materials, their are two types.

_____ are those assets required, gets you through the first 30 days.

_____ is the total OPLAN/CONPLAN/Bomber forward operating locations requirements.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Starter and Swing stock." In the context of WRM materials, there are two types: Starter stock and Swing stock. Starter stock refers to those assets that are required and can get you through the first 30 days. Swing stock, on the other hand, refers to the total OPLAN/CONPLAN/Bomber forward operating locations requirements.

Submit
98. WRM equipment must be marked with a ________.

Explanation

WRM equipment must be marked with a solid black triangle. This marking is used to indicate that the equipment contains hazardous materials or poses a potential danger to people or the environment. The solid black triangle serves as a warning sign, alerting individuals to take caution and follow appropriate safety protocols when handling or interacting with the equipment.

Submit
99. __________ identify how and where a particular aircraft weapon system will be used or list the wartime taskings.

Explanation

Source documents provide information that helps identify how and where a particular aircraft weapon system will be used or list the wartime taskings. These documents could include technical specifications, operational manuals, mission briefings, and other relevant information. By studying these source documents, military personnel can gain a comprehensive understanding of the weapon system's capabilities, limitations, and intended applications. This knowledge is crucial for effective deployment and utilization of the weapon system in various operational scenarios.

Submit
100. ________ tells what the specific combat/support aircraft activity will be for and intallation in support of current war plans. It tells how many times aircraft will land and take off at a base and how many aircarft will be stationed there. Produced from and classified by the WMP-4.

Explanation

The WAAR (Wartime Aircraft Activity Report) provides specific information about the combat/support aircraft activity for an installation in support of current war plans. It includes details such as the number of times aircraft will land and take off at a base, as well as the number of aircraft stationed there. The report is produced from and classified by the WMP-4.

Submit
101. _______ identifies actual units required to support an OPLAN and indicates where the units come from and ports of debarkation.

Tells you who, what, where, when and how.

Explanation

The correct answer is TPFDD, which stands for Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data. TPFDD is a planning tool that identifies the specific units needed to support an OPLAN (Operational Plan), as well as where these units will come from and the ports of debarkation they will use. It provides detailed information on who, what, where, when, and how the deployment will take place. TPFDD is crucial for effective logistics planning and ensuring that the necessary resources are available in the right place at the right time.

Submit
102. Consumables are a category of WRM. The ______ is the document that provides pre-positioning objectives for consumables.

Explanation

The correct answer is "War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)". This document outlines the objectives for distributing consumables during a war. It helps in planning and pre-positioning the necessary resources to ensure that the required consumables are readily available in the right locations during a conflict. The WCDO aims to optimize the distribution process and ensure efficient utilization of resources.

Submit
103. _______ identifies and authorizes WRM vehicle and equipment items. Items identified in the ______ are in addition to POS and deployment assets.

Explanation

The Wartime Plans and Additive Requirements Report (WPARR) is a document that identifies and authorizes WRM (War Reserve Material) vehicle and equipment items. It serves as a supplement to the POS (Property of Supply) and deployment assets. The WPARR includes additional items that are specifically required during wartime operations.

Submit
104. _______ is the focal point for all WRM matters.

Installation Office of Primary Responsibility for WRM
Validates and maintains WRM documents
Conducts Surveillance visits
Conducts annual WRM review board
Establishes WRM training program

Explanation

The correct answer is "War Reserve Material Officer, War Reserve Material NCO." These individuals are responsible for all matters related to War Reserve Material (WRM). They validate and maintain WRM documents, conduct surveillance visits, conduct annual WRM review boards, and establish WRM training programs. They serve as the focal point for all WRM matters within the organization.

Submit
105. Appointed in writing, attends training.
Day to day WRM business
Stores, maintains and documents WRM equipment
Responsible for mainting units WRM
Participates in WRM review boars and surveillance visits
Initiates/coordinates writing requirements for WRM assets
Ensures reconstitution actions

Explanation

The given answer "War Reserve Material Manager" is the correct answer because the description provided in the question matches the responsibilities and tasks typically associated with this role. The individual appointed in this position is responsible for storing, maintaining, and documenting war reserve material (WRM) equipment. They also participate in WRM review boards and surveillance visits, and ensure reconstitution actions are taken as necessary. Additionally, they may initiate and coordinate the writing requirements for WRM assets.

Submit
106. _______ deployment planning and execution and applicable MAJCOM supplements provide guidance for ________ development.

Explanation

The question is asking for the correct answer to complete the sentence. The correct answer is "10-403, IDP." This suggests that 10-403 and IDP are related to deployment planning and execution and provide guidance for development.

Submit
107. The installation Wing Commander through the _____ defines the local processes, pocedures, infrastructure, and resources used to deploy forces. The _____ develps the _____ for the installation wing commander.  _____ must analyze inputs from all assigned units and develop local operations guidance on how units will deplyo from the installation.

Explanation

The installation Wing Commander through the IDP (Installation Deployment Plan) defines the local processes, procedures, infrastructure, and resources used to deploy forces. The IDO (Installation Deployment Officer) develops the IDP for the installation wing commander. The IDO must analyze inputs from all assigned units and develop local operations guidance on how units will deploy from the installation.

Submit
108. _____ must have the flexibility to process a single individual and be robust enough to cover the bases largest possible deployment, or maximum simultaneous deployment capability.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
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Finding out what your bases ______ or maximum simultaneous deployment...
______ details a UTC's specific manpower requirments by functional...
______ defines the standard equipment movements requirements for each...
Two types of UTC's1 - Such a UTC would describe a deployable type unit...
_______ responsible for developing and maintaing standard manpower and...
_______ is the AF process for developing and describing standard,...
Four parts to the Deployment Organizational Structure
____ has to monitor the timely and correct processing of cargo and...
______ is the primary deployment  work center and heart of the...
________ is established to provide a uniform system for identifying...
How many deployers are required to stand up a PDF line? What AFI...
The PDF line must include_______
______ is the transportation manager for the DOD and is responsible...
_______ is the JFC's focal point for joint air and space operations...
The _____ is an AOC which involves other nations.
_______ is considered to be the contingency flow master for theater...
Works in conjuntion with the DM4, coordinates with the DDOC and...
The _____ oversees the execution of theater transportation priorities....
Is the essential process that transitions deploying forces, consisting...
Teams will receive and beddown forces, is an intial deplyoment element...
The ______ process ends when the unit commander reports the unit is...
Total means of destructive and disruptive force which a military unit...
______ is the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed...
Assist planners in developing a redeployment plan at the employment...
The mission of _______ is to coordinate the redeployment effort,...
The ______ is probably where you'll find documents that a unit...
The ____ is the primary automated suite supporting and enabling the...
Support Agreements may be between different government agencies;...
There are three volumes in JOPES.
Contingency planning and CAP share common planning activities and are...
Contingency planning facilitates the transition to CAP.
_______ encompasses the activities associated with development of...
_______ planning involves an incident or situation involving a threat...
________ encompasses the activities associated with the time sensitive...
_________ is defined as "joint capability to create and revise plans...
When does the CJCS issue and ALERTORD to the JPEC?
___________ is a document prepared periodocally by the executive...
___________ is issued by the CJCS as a deliverable to the Secretary of...
The ________ chief source of guidance is the National Security...
The __________ is the primary vehicle through which the CJCS...
A __________ is an operational plan in an abbreviated format that may...
The objective of _________________ is to develop sound operational and...
At base level, logistics planners are assigned to the...
____________ is responsible for the centralized command and control,...
__________  is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP to...
An _________ must include all required annexes, appendices, and a...
A ____________ is prepared as taksed by the supported CCRD's in...
The _____________ provides the Air Staff and AF commanders with...
Volumes ____________ of the WMP provide the guidance you'll need to...
__________ Within the WMP, the basic plan addresses the general...
Within the WMP, is a three part reference document containing a...
_________ Within the WMP, has five parts. Part 1 contains combat ...
______________ Within the WMP, is governed by AFI 25-101 War Reserve...
________ Within the WMP, provides approved US Air Force planning...
_________ is a broad document published by the President and National...
____________ is issued by the Chairman of the Joint Cheifs of Staff as...
The NMS's chief source of guidance is the _______ document.
The JSCP is the primary vehicle through which the CJCS translates the...
An ________ is a written description of the CCDR's CONOP to counter a...
An _________ must include all requried annexes, appendices and a...
__________ is defined as sound operational and support concepts that...
_________ is a type of plan that involves military operations in a...
Functional plans are written using the JOPES procedures and formats...
___________ are prepared as taksed by the supported CCRD's in support...
___________ request that the Combatant Commander create and submit...
A _______ primary purpose is to direct that execution planning...
The SECDEF approves and transmits an _______ to the supported...
_______ this order is issued by the authority and direction of the...
The __________ is the appropriate instrument to change force structure...
_________ is the electronic data portion ofa contingency plan that...
_________ and designated functional managers own the data in the...
Each TPFDD is maintained under a separate __________ in JOPES. If you...
A ____________ is a seven character, alphanumeric code that links a...
________ is the latest date, relative to C-Day, that a force...
________ is the process that allows the supported commander to...
The ______ module of LOGMOD  provides users with an automated...
Per  AFI _____ the _____ is responsible for managing the outflow...
_______ will prioritize the movment of cargo and passengers as...
_____ is the DOD's automated system that integrates the strategic...
______ is the DOD directed single, integrated joint C2 system for...
_____ is the Air Forces war plannign system and provides and Air Force...
________ provides the AF with the ability to view or edit OPLAN...
________ is the DCAPES module for managing UTC's. This module has...
________ interprets WAAR requirments to produce the WCDO to support...
________ ensures aircraft/cargo passenger loads don't exceed proper...
________ is a logistics planning program that receives and maintains...
______ is not a module of LOGMOD, rather it is a backup of LOGMOD
______ automates passenger and deployment cargo processing during...
______ modules manages force package UTC data at Base Level. It...
_______ provides visibility of Special Assignement Airlift Mission...
_______ is  a hard copy reflecting a units mission and the basis...
______ commanders assess mearsurments against their mission set to...
__________ is a JCS controlled, automated data system primarily...
______ is the Air Forces only reporting tool which assists the AEF...
________ areas to be considered within this reporting tool are...
_____ provides the POTUS, SECDEF and JCS with authoritative...
With regard to WRM materials, their are two types._____ are those...
WRM equipment must be marked with a ________.
__________ identify how and where a particular aircraft weapon system...
________ tells what the specific combat/support aircraft activity will...
_______ identifies actual units required to support an OPLAN and...
Consumables are a category of WRM. The ______ is the document that...
_______ identifies and authorizes WRM vehicle and equipment items....
_______ is the focal point for all WRM matters.Installation Office of...
Appointed in writing, attends training.Day to day WRM businessStores,...
_______ deployment planning and execution and applicable MAJCOM...
The installation Wing Commander through the _____ defines the local...
_____ must have the flexibility to process a single individual and be...
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