CT Physics 2 Hhh
Ct resistry review physichs
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Filment sizes for modern CT x-ray tubes range between
- A.
0.5 and 1.2 mm
- B.
2.0 and 3.0 mm
- C.
5.5 and 7.8 mm
- D.
25.0 and31.5 mm
Correct Answer
A. 0.5 and 1.2 mmExplanation
The correct answer is 0.5 and 1.2 mm. This range represents the filament sizes for modern CT x-ray tubes. The filament size is important in determining the resolution and image quality of the CT scan. A smaller filament size allows for better spatial resolution and improved image detail. On the other hand, a larger filament size may result in decreased resolution and poorer image quality. Therefore, the range of 0.5 and 1.2 mm is considered optimal for modern CT x-ray tubes.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The mathematical process that allows MDCT images to be reconstructed at any point along the acquired volume is commonly referred to ass
- A.
Iteration
- B.
Filtered back-projection
- C.
Fourier reconstruction
- D.
Z-filtering
Correct Answer
D. Z-filteringExplanation
The mathematical process that allows MDCT images to be reconstructed at any point along the acquired volume is commonly referred to as z-filtering. Z-filtering is a technique used in computed tomography (CT) imaging to selectively filter the data along the z-axis, which represents the patient's body. This filtering process helps to remove artifacts and noise, resulting in clearer and more accurate reconstructed images. It is an essential step in the reconstruction process of MDCT images.Rate this question:
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- 3.
During ct x-ray exposure, the product of the seleted mA setting and the scan time is called
- A.
Effective mAs
- B.
Peak mAs
- C.
Absorbed mAs
- D.
Constant mAs
Correct Answer
D. Constant mAsExplanation
The product of the selected mA setting and the scan time is called constant mAs. This term refers to the consistent product of these two variables during the entire duration of the CT x-ray exposure. It is used to determine the total radiation dose delivered to the patient during the scan.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The matematical manipulations required during the reconstruction of a ct image are accomplished using a (n)
- A.
Algorithm
- B.
Kerenel
- C.
Mathematical filter function
- D.
1 and 2
- E.
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer
E. 1,2 and 3Explanation
The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3. During the reconstruction of a CT image, mathematical manipulations are required. These manipulations are accomplished using an algorithm, a kernel, and a mathematical filter function.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The electronic combination of signals from adjacent detectors to form a CT image is called
- A.
Binning
- B.
Interpolaation
- C.
Z-filtering
- D.
Partial volume averaging
Correct Answer
A. BinningExplanation
Binning is the correct answer because it refers to the process of combining signals from adjacent detectors in a computed tomography (CT) scan to form an image. This technique helps to improve the image quality and reduce noise by increasing the signal-to-noise ratio. Binning involves summing the signals from neighboring detectors and assigning the combined value to a single pixel in the image. This process helps to enhance the spatial resolution and overall image clarity in CT imaging.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The streaking artifact that occurs in the area of the posterior fossa during a CT examination of the brain may be referred to as
- A.
Cupping
- B.
Boiled egg
- C.
Stairstep
- D.
The Hounsfield bar
Correct Answer
D. The Hounsfield barExplanation
The streaking artifact that occurs in the area of the posterior fossa during a CT examination of the brain is referred to as the Hounsfield bar. The Hounsfield bar is a term used to describe streaking artifacts caused by beam hardening, which is a phenomenon that occurs when the X-ray beam passing through different tissues gets attenuated differently. This causes streaks of high density in the image, which appear as a bar-like artifact in the posterior fossa region.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following 3D imaging techniques is utilized to provide "fly-through" images during CT colonography
- A.
Orthographic volume rendering
- B.
Shaded surface display
- C.
Perspective volume rendering
- D.
Minimum intensity projection (min-IP)
Correct Answer
C. Perspective volume renderingExplanation
Perspective volume rendering is the correct answer because it is a 3D imaging technique commonly used in CT colonography to provide "fly-through" images. This technique utilizes a perspective projection to create realistic images that simulate the experience of flying through the colon. It takes into account the viewer's position and angle, allowing for a more immersive and accurate visualization of the colon.Rate this question:
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- 8.
An MDCT image is reconstructed using a 512 matrix and aDFOV of 38 cm. if the detector collimation is set to a section width of 1.25 mm, what is the volume of each voxel?
- A.
0.69mm
- B.
0.93mm
- C.
1.26 mm
- D.
1.68mm
Correct Answer
B. 0.93mmExplanation
The volume of each voxel can be calculated by multiplying the section width by the pixel size. In this case, the section width is given as 1.25 mm and the pixel size can be calculated by dividing the DFOV (38 cm) by the matrix size (512). Converting the DFOV to mm (38 cm = 380 mm), the pixel size is 380 mm / 512 = 0.74 mm. Multiplying the section width (1.25 mm) by the pixel size (0.74 mm) gives us a volume of 0.925 mm^3. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.93mm.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following sttements about collimation of the CT x-ray beam is false?
- A.
Collimation of the x-ray beam occurs both before and after the patients
- B.
Collimation of the beam occurs in the z-axis, thus affecting slice thickness
- C.
Increases in collimation increase the intensity of the primary beam
- D.
Collimation of the ct x-ray beam is used to limit the detection of scatter radiation
Correct Answer
C. Increases in collimation increase the intensity of the primary beamExplanation
Collimation of the CT x-ray beam is used to limit the detection of scatter radiation, not to increase the intensity of the primary beam. Collimation helps to reduce scatter radiation and improve image quality by narrowing the x-ray beam to only the necessary area of interest. Increasing collimation would result in a narrower beam, which reduces scatter radiation but does not affect the intensity of the primary beam.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The major disadvantage of the back-projection method of image reconstruction is the appearance of the
- A.
Partial volume effect
- B.
Ring artifact
- C.
Gibb phenomenon
- D.
Star artifact
Correct Answer
D. Star artifactExplanation
The major disadvantage of the back-projection method of image reconstruction is the appearance of star artifacts. Star artifacts are unwanted bright streaks or spokes radiating from high-contrast objects in the image. These artifacts are caused by the incomplete sampling of the Fourier space during the reconstruction process, leading to inaccurate representation of high-frequency information. The star artifacts can degrade the image quality and make it difficult to interpret the reconstructed image accurately.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In the formula used to calculate the linear attenuation coefficient, I=Ioe-ux, the symbol Io identifies:
- A.
Euler constant
- B.
Incident intensity
- C.
Absorber thickness
- D.
Transmitted intensity
Correct Answer
C. Absorber thicknessExplanation
In the formula used to calculate the linear attenuation coefficient, the symbol Io represents the incident intensity. The incident intensity refers to the initial intensity of the radiation before it interacts with the absorber. It is the intensity of the radiation beam that is directed towards the absorber. The equation calculates the transmitted intensity (I) after it passes through the absorber, using the incident intensity (Io), the absorber thickness (x), and the linear attenuation coefficient (u).Rate this question:
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- 12.
A high-resolution comb is utilized by an MSCT detector array in an effort to reduce:
- A.
Scatter radiation
- B.
Patient radiation dose
- C.
Low spatial frequency signal
- D.
High spatial frequency signal
Correct Answer
A. Scatter radiationExplanation
In MSCT (Multislice Computed Tomography) imaging, scatter radiation refers to the unwanted scattered photons that can degrade the quality of the image. By utilizing a high-resolution comb, the MSCT detector array aims to reduce scatter radiation. This comb helps in blocking or absorbing the scattered photons, allowing only the desired primary photons to reach the detector. This ultimately improves the image quality by reducing noise and increasing the clarity of the scanned area.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When choosing a scan field of view, the CT technologist is controlling the
- A.
Diameter of data acquistion
- B.
Number activated detectors within the array
- C.
Correction factors for the specific area of anatomic interest
- D.
1and 2
- E.
1,2,3
Correct Answer
E. 1,2,3Explanation
The correct answer is 1,2,3. When choosing a scan field of view, the CT technologist is controlling the diameter of data acquisition, the number of activated detectors within the array, and correction factors for the specific area of anatomic interest. These factors determine the extent of the scan and the amount of data acquired during the scan.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The geometric efficiency of a CT detector is influenced primarily by the
- A.
Atomic number of the detector material
- B.
Size of the detector element
- C.
Size of the tube filament
- D.
Amount of interspace material between detectors
Correct Answer
D. Amount of interspace material between detectorsExplanation
The geometric efficiency of a CT detector is primarily influenced by the amount of interspace material between detectors. This is because the interspace material can cause scattering of the X-ray photons, leading to a decrease in the efficiency of the detector in capturing the photons. Therefore, minimizing the amount of interspace material between detectors can improve the geometric efficiency of the CT detector. The other factors mentioned (atomic number of the detector material, size of the detector element, and size of the tube filament) may have some influence on image quality or sensitivity, but they are not the primary factors affecting the geometric efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following factors may affect the attenuation of an object during CT data acquisition?
- A.
Beam pitch
- B.
MA
- C.
KVp
- D.
Algorithm
Correct Answer
C. KVpExplanation
kVp stands for kilovolt peak, which is a measure of the peak voltage of the X-ray beam used in CT scanning. The higher the kVp, the greater the penetration of the X-ray beam through the object being scanned. This increased penetration reduces the attenuation of the X-ray beam, resulting in less absorption and scattering by the object. Therefore, kVp can affect the attenuation of an object during CT data acquisition.Rate this question:
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- 16.
An image that is reconstructed a second time with some change in technical factor is said to be
- A.
Reiterated
- B.
Post-processed
- C.
Retrospective
- D.
Reformatted
Correct Answer
C. RetrospectiveExplanation
When an image is reconstructed a second time with some change in technical factors, it is referred to as "retrospective." This term implies that the reconstruction is being done retrospectively, or after the initial reconstruction, with alterations to the technical parameters. It suggests a retrospective analysis or adjustment of the image based on new information or requirements. The other options, "reiterated," "post-processed," and "reformatted," do not specifically convey the notion of a second reconstruction with technical changes.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The FDK algorithm may be applied to MSCT acquisition data to overcome image artifacts from
- A.
Patient motion
- B.
Beam hardening
- C.
Paartial volume averaging
- D.
Beam divergence
Correct Answer
D. Beam divergenceExplanation
The FDK algorithm is a reconstruction technique used in computed tomography (CT) imaging. It is used to overcome image artifacts caused by various factors such as patient motion, beam hardening, partial volume averaging, and beam divergence. Beam divergence refers to the spreading out of the X-ray beam as it travels from the X-ray source to the detectors. This can lead to blurring and loss of image resolution. By applying the FDK algorithm to CT acquisition data, the effects of beam divergence can be minimized, resulting in improved image quality.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The polyenergetic x-ray beam emitted from a cT x-ray tube is susceptible to artifacts due to the phenomenon known as
- A.
Beam hardening
- B.
Density bloom
- C.
Kerma
- D.
Partial volume
Correct Answer
A. Beam hardeningExplanation
Beam hardening is the correct answer because it refers to the phenomenon where the x-ray beam becomes more energetic as it passes through an object, causing the lower energy photons to be absorbed more than the higher energy ones. This leads to a change in the overall energy spectrum of the x-ray beam, resulting in artifacts such as streaks or dark bands in the image.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Daily air or water calibration performed to evaluate which of the following components of image quality
- A.
Contrast resolution
- B.
Temporal resolution
- C.
Uniformity
- D.
Linearity
Correct Answer
D. LinearityExplanation
Linearity refers to the ability of a system to produce output that is directly proportional to the input. In the context of image quality, linearity refers to the accuracy of the system in reproducing different shades of gray. Daily air or water calibration is performed to evaluate linearity by ensuring that the system is producing consistent and accurate gray levels throughout the image. This helps in maintaining the quality and reliability of the images produced by the system.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The limiting resolution is determined (MTF) at a pint where the signal frequency corresponding to a particular object has reached
- A.
10%
- B.
20%
- C.
50%
- D.
100%
Correct Answer
A. 10%Explanation
The limiting resolution is determined at a point where the signal frequency corresponding to a particular object has reached 10%. This means that the resolution of the system is limited and cannot accurately distinguish between two points on the object that are closer than 10% of the signal frequency. In other words, the system is only able to resolve details on the object that are larger than 10% of the signal frequency.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not a part of the ct tube?
- A.
Tungsten target
- B.
Collimator
- C.
Rotating anode
- D.
Filiament
Correct Answer
B. CollimatorExplanation
A collimator is not a part of the CT tube. The CT tube consists of a tungsten target, rotating anode, and filament. The tungsten target generates the x-rays, the rotating anode allows for continuous x-ray production, and the filament heats up and releases electrons to create the x-rays. The collimator, on the other hand, is a separate component that is used to control the size and shape of the x-ray beam. It helps to limit the radiation exposure to the patient and improve image quality by reducing scatter radiation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
X-rays are produced whenever fas-moving electrons collide with any form of matter because
- A.
The electron splits into two-x-ray photons of equal enery up in impact with the matter
- B.
The electron loses kinetic enery which is converted into the emission of an x-ray photon
- C.
The electron converts the electron it collides with in to an xprayphoton
- D.
1 and 2
- E.
2 only
Correct Answer
E. 2 onlyExplanation
When fast-moving electrons collide with matter, they lose kinetic energy. This lost energy is then converted into the emission of an x-ray photon. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of th following is FALSE regarding CT systmes
- A.
They are limited to non-oblique transverse scanning
- B.
They cannot generate a straight coronal or sagittal image
- C.
They have no moving parts
- D.
1 and3
- E.
1 2 3
Correct Answer
E. 1 2 3Explanation
CT systems are not limited to non-oblique transverse scanning, as they can also generate oblique images. They can generate straight coronal or sagittal images, so statement 2 is false. However, CT systems do have moving parts, such as the rotating gantry and the patient table, so statement 3 is also false. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 2 3.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 3D SSD
- A.
Helical image data is well suited for 3d ssd because there is minimal misregistration or gaps
- B.
The volume data, from which the 3d ssd is generated, is created by combining transverse, sagittal, and coronal reconstructions
- C.
The tissue surface may be selected by using a threshold value equal to the tissue's ct number
- D.
Patient motion during the scan is detrimental to the quality of th 3d images
Correct Answer
B. The volume data, from which the 3d ssd is generated, is created by combining transverse, sagittal, and coronal reconstructionsExplanation
The volume data, from which the 3D SSD is generated, is not created by combining transverse, sagittal, and coronal reconstructions. This statement is false because 3D SSD (shaded surface display) is a technique used to create a three-dimensional representation of an object or structure from volumetric data. The volume data is obtained directly from the CT scan and does not require combining different reconstructions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
In which technique are tissues other than the surface of a structure excluded by setting a treshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold
- A.
Volume rendering
- B.
Multi-planar reconstruction
- C.
Maximum intensity projection
- D.
3d shaded surface display
Correct Answer
D. 3d shaded surface displayExplanation
The correct answer is 3D shaded surface display. In this technique, tissues other than the surface of a structure are excluded by setting a threshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold. This allows for the creation of a 3D representation of the surface of the structure, with shading applied to enhance the visualization of the surface contours.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is TRUE regading the slice thickness of an image reconstructed from a helical scan
- A.
On a multi-row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation
- B.
On a single -row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation
- C.
On a single-row detector scanner, the thickness can be varied retrospectively
Correct Answer
B. On a single -row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimationExplanation
On a single-row detector scanner, the thickness of the image reconstructed from a helical scan is equal to the beam collimation. This means that the thickness of the slice in the reconstructed image will be the same as the width of the x-ray beam used during the scan.Rate this question:
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- 27.
An increase in ---------does NOT occure in the resulting images when applying a sharp,or high-pass reconstruction filter during the image reconstruction of CT raw data
- A.
Contrast resolution
- B.
Edge enhancement
- C.
The appearance of noise
Correct Answer
A. Contrast resolutionExplanation
When applying a sharp or high-pass reconstruction filter during the image reconstruction of CT raw data, an increase in contrast resolution does not occur in the resulting images. Contrast resolution refers to the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between objects with similar densities. In this case, the sharp or high-pass reconstruction filter is primarily used to enhance the edges of structures in the image, resulting in improved edge enhancement. However, it does not directly affect the contrast resolution, which is the ability to differentiate between subtle differences in density. Therefore, an increase in contrast resolution does not occur when applying this type of filter.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The------determines the intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera
- A.
Intensifying grid
- B.
Pixel values in the image data
- C.
Magnifying power of the lens
- D.
1 and 3
- E.
2 only
Correct Answer
E. 2 onlyExplanation
The intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera is determined by the pixel values in the image data. The pixel values represent the brightness or darkness of each pixel in the image, and they can be used to control the intensity of the laser beam. The intensifying grid and magnifying power of the lens may affect other aspects of the image, but they do not directly determine the intensity of the laser beam.Rate this question:
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- 29.
MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do NOT
- A.
Perform converntional CT scans
- B.
Perform helical CT scans
- C.
Use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction
- D.
Perform localizer scan
Correct Answer
C. Use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstructionExplanation
MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do not use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction. Filtered back projection is an older technique that reconstructs images by projecting the data onto a two-dimensional plane. However, MDCT scanners with 64 slices use more advanced methods such as iterative reconstruction, which improves image quality and reduces artifacts by iteratively refining the image based on mathematical algorithms.Rate this question:
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- 30.
MIP images
- A.
Are most frequently used for visualizing air-filed spaces
- B.
Can NOT be run in a cine loop
- C.
Are most accurate when a large volume of interest is selected
- D.
Do not demonstrate detail beneath the brightes pixel
Correct Answer
D. Do not demonstrate detail beneath the brightes pixelExplanation
MIP images, or Maximum Intensity Projection images, are commonly used for visualizing air-filled spaces in medical imaging. However, they have a limitation in that they do not demonstrate detail beneath the brightest pixel. This means that if there is a bright area in the image, such as a bone or a dense structure, the MIP image will not show any details beyond that point. This is important to keep in mind when interpreting MIP images, as it may lead to a lack of information in certain areas of the image.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following does Not occur when reconstruction FOV is decreased
- A.
Spatial resolution is increased
- B.
Pixel size is increased
- C.
Noise in the image increased
- D.
1 and 2
- E.
2 only
Correct Answer
E. 2 onlyExplanation
When the reconstruction FOV is decreased, the spatial resolution is not increased. The spatial resolution refers to the ability of an imaging system to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. When the FOV is decreased, the system is capturing a smaller area, resulting in fewer details being captured and therefore a decrease in spatial resolution. The pixel size, on the other hand, is increased when the FOV is decreased, as the same area is now represented by a smaller number of pixels. Additionally, noise in the image is also increased when the FOV is decreased, as the smaller area being captured has a higher likelihood of containing random variations or artifacts.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A set of images is reconstructed with a 150 mm DFO. Second with a 300 mm DFOV.
- A.
The resolution of the second set of images is better than the firs set
- B.
The apparent noise in the second set more pronounced than the first set
- C.
The patient dose of the first set of images is higher than the second set
- D.
1 and 3
- E.
1 2 3
Correct Answer
E. 1 2 3Explanation
When reconstructing a set of images, the DFO (Detector Field of View) determines the size of the image. A larger DFO results in a larger image, while a smaller DFO results in a smaller image. In this case, the second set of images has a larger DFO (300 mm) compared to the first set (150 mm). Therefore, the second set of images will have a better resolution since it covers a larger area. Additionally, since the second set has a larger DFO, it will also have more pronounced noise compared to the first set. Finally, since the first set has a smaller DFO, it requires more radiation exposure to cover the same area, resulting in a higher patient dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.Rate this question:
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- 33.
For a given distance of coverage, which of the following is TRUE
- A.
As reconstruction FOV increases, pt dose increases
- B.
As pitch increases, pt dose decreases
- C.
As slice thickness increases, pt dose decreases
- D.
1 and 2
- E.
2 and 3
Correct Answer
E. 2 and 3Explanation
As the reconstruction field of view (FOV) increases, more data needs to be acquired and processed, resulting in an increase in patient dose. This is because a larger FOV requires more X-ray exposures to cover the entire area, leading to increased radiation exposure for the patient.
As the slice thickness increases, the patient dose decreases. This is because a thicker slice requires fewer X-ray exposures compared to a thinner slice to cover the same distance of coverage. Therefore, the patient is exposed to less radiation when a thicker slice is used, resulting in a decrease in patient dose.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following intravenous contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest over all plasma iodine concentration
- A.
Drip infusion
- B.
Bolus technique
- C.
Biphasic technique
- D.
CT portography
Correct Answer
B. Bolus techniqueExplanation
The bolus technique provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration among the given options. In this method, a large volume of contrast agent is injected rapidly into the bloodstream, resulting in a high concentration of iodine in the plasma. This allows for better visualization of blood vessels and organs during imaging procedures, such as CT scans. Drip infusion involves a slow and continuous administration of the contrast agent, while the biphasic technique involves both a rapid injection and a subsequent slower infusion. CT portography is a specific imaging technique that uses contrast agent to visualize the portal venous system.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Advantages of a saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include
- A.
Reduction in required contrast agent dose
- B.
Reduction in the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)
- C.
Reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in a vasculature
- D.
3 and 2
- E.
1,2, and 3
Correct Answer
E. 1,2, and 3Explanation
A saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material has several advantages. Firstly, it can help reduce the required dose of contrast agent, which can be beneficial for patients with renal impairment or those who are at a higher risk of adverse reactions. Secondly, it can reduce the incidence of contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN), a condition where the contrast agent can cause kidney damage. Lastly, it can help reduce streaking artifacts that may occur from the dense contrast agent in the vasculature, improving the quality of the imaging results.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed -----in nature
- A.
Stochastic
- B.
Nonstochastic
- C.
Negligible
- D.
Somatic
Correct Answer
A. StochasticExplanation
The correct answer is stochastic. Stochastic refers to a random or probabilistic relationship between radiation exposure and its harmful effects. This means that the effects of radiation exposure cannot be predicted with certainty, as they depend on chance and probability. Stochastic effects include the development of cancer, genetic mutations, and other long-term health risks.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material
- A.
Acid-fast bacillus isolation
- B.
Contact isolation
- C.
Enteric precautions
- D.
Drainage-secretion precautions
Correct Answer
C. Enteric precautionsExplanation
Enteric precautions are specifically designed to protect against infection transmitted through fecal material. Enteric refers to the intestines, and enteric precautions involve measures such as proper hand hygiene, wearing gloves, using dedicated equipment, and maintaining proper sanitation to prevent the spread of pathogens found in feces. This type of isolation technique is important in healthcare settings to prevent the transmission of diseases such as Clostridium difficile (C. diff) and norovirus, which can be spread through contaminated fecal matter.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed
- A.
CTDI w
- B.
CTDI100
- C.
CTDI vol
- D.
MSAD
Correct Answer
A. CTDI wExplanation
CTDI w stands for Computed Tomography Dose Index weighted. It is a radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening. This means that it considers how different tissues absorb radiation differently, resulting in a more accurate assessment of the radiation dose delivered during a CT scan. CTDI w is an important parameter in evaluating and optimizing radiation dose in CT imaging.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:
- A.
Prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material
- B.
Multiple myeloma
- C.
Diabetes
- D.
1 only
- E.
1 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. Prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast materialExplanation
Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include a prior life-threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material. This means that if a patient has had a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis in the past when exposed to iodinated contrast material, it is not safe to administer it again. This is because there is a high risk of a similar life-threatening reaction occurring again.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from helically acquired CT examination
- A.
Roentgens (R)
- B.
Curies
- C.
R-cm
- D.
MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)
Correct Answer
D. MGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter)Explanation
The unit mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter) is used to express the total patient dose from helically acquired CT examination. This unit combines the measurement of absorbed dose (in milligrays) with the measurement of distance (in centimeters) to represent the total dose received by the patient during the CT scan. The other options, such as roentgens (R), curies, and R-cm, are not commonly used to express the total patient dose in CT examinations.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following technical changes would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a CT examination?
- A.
Increase in matrix size
- B.
Change from soft tissue to bone algorithm
- C.
Decrease of tube from 360 to 180 degress rotation
- D.
Decrease in DFOV
Correct Answer
C. Decrease of tube from 360 to 180 degress rotationExplanation
Decreasing the tube rotation from 360 to 180 degrees would serve to decrease patient radiation dose during a CT examination. This is because reducing the tube rotation angle means that fewer X-ray beams are emitted, resulting in a lower radiation dose to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Risk factors for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN) include:
- A.
Pheochromocytoma
- B.
Allergy to shellfish
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
1 and 2
- E.
3 only
Correct Answer
E. 3 onlyExplanation
The correct answer is 3 only because dehydration is a known risk factor for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity (CIN). Pheochromocytoma and allergy to shellfish are not directly related to CIN.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The International Normalized Ration (INR) is calculated to standardize which of the following laboratory values?
- A.
PT
- B.
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C.
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D.
GFR
Correct Answer
A. PTExplanation
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is calculated to standardize the prothrombin time (PT), which measures the time it takes for blood to clot. By standardizing the PT, the INR allows for consistent interpretation of clotting times across different laboratories and testing methods. This is important for monitoring patients on anticoagulant therapy, such as those taking warfarin, to ensure their blood is clotting within the desired range to prevent bleeding or clotting disorders.Rate this question:
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- 44.
An intathecal injection prior to a CT examination of the lumber spine places iodinated contrast material directly into the:
- A.
Subarachnoid space
- B.
Dura mater
- C.
Vertebral foramen
- D.
Subdural space
Correct Answer
A. Subarachnoid spaceExplanation
An intrathecal injection is a procedure where contrast material is injected directly into the subarachnoid space, which is the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater in the spinal cord. This injection allows for better visualization of the spinal cord and nerve roots during a CT examination of the lumbar spine. The subarachnoid space is the most appropriate location for the injection as it provides optimal distribution of the contrast material for accurate imaging. The other options, such as the dura mater, vertebral foramen, and subdural space, are not the correct locations for the injection in this context.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate tissue opacification during contrast-enhanced CT examinations is
- A.
2-8mg/ml
- B.
12-20 mg/ml
- C.
30-42 mg/ml
- D.
75-105 mg/ml
Correct Answer
A. 2-8mg/mlExplanation
The range of serum iodine concentration for adequate tissue opacification during contrast-enhanced CT examinations is 2-8mg/ml. This range ensures that the iodine-based contrast agent is present in sufficient concentration in the bloodstream to provide clear visualization of the tissues and organs during the CT scan. Higher concentrations may lead to overexposure and potential side effects, while lower concentrations may result in inadequate opacification and poor image quality. Therefore, the ideal range for adequate tissue opacification is 2-8mg/ml.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A(n)----------contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate into charged paticles in solution
- A.
Neutral
- B.
Non-ionic
- C.
Osmolar
- D.
Ionic
Correct Answer
B. Non-ionicExplanation
A non-ionic contrast material is described as one that does not dissociate into charged particles in solution. This means that it does not carry an electrical charge when dissolved in a solution. This is in contrast to an ionic contrast material, which does dissociate into charged particles when dissolved. The term "non-ionic" refers to the lack of electrical charge, making it a suitable choice for certain medical procedures where the presence of charged particles could interfere with the desired outcome.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Effective dose is a relative radiation dose measurement term that accounts for the
- A.
Beam pitch
- B.
Tissue radiosensitivity
- C.
Detector pitch
- D.
Collimation
Correct Answer
B. Tissue radiosensitivityExplanation
The effective dose is a relative radiation dose measurement term that takes into account the tissue radiosensitivity. This means that it considers the varying sensitivity of different tissues to radiation. Some tissues are more sensitive to radiation and can be more easily damaged, while others are more resistant. Therefore, the effective dose calculation takes into consideration the potential harm that radiation can cause to different tissues, allowing for a more accurate assessment of the overall radiation dose received by an individual.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Urticaria is which of the following
- A.
Severe nausea with associated vomiting
- B.
Urinary tract infection
- C.
Hives
- D.
Bronchospasm
Correct Answer
C. HivesExplanation
Urticaria refers to hives, which are raised, itchy, and red bumps on the skin. This condition is characterized by an allergic reaction, often triggered by certain foods, medications, or environmental factors. Severe nausea with associated vomiting, urinary tract infection, and bronchospasm are unrelated to urticaria and do not describe its symptoms or characteristics.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following angiocatheter sizes may be safely used for the automated power injection of iodinated contrast agents at flow rates higher than 3mL/sec
- A.
18-gauge
- B.
20-gauge
- C.
22-gauge
- D.
1 and3
- E.
1 and 2
Correct Answer
E. 1 and 2Explanation
The correct answer is "1 and 2". The 18-gauge and 20-gauge angiocatheter sizes may be safely used for the automated power injection of iodinated contrast agents at flow rates higher than 3mL/sec. This means that these two sizes are able to handle the higher flow rates without causing any complications or issues during the injection process. The 22-gauge angiocatheter size is not suitable for flow rates higher than 3mL/sec and may not be able to handle the increased pressure and volume of the contrast agent.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Used in determining the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media, the term________refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociated in solution
- A.
Solublility
- B.
Osmolality
- C.
Concentration
- D.
Iodination
Correct Answer
B. OsmolalityExplanation
Osmolality refers to the number of ions formed when a substance dissociates in a solution. It is used to determine the biologic effect of iodinated contrast media. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles per kilogram of solvent, and it helps to assess the osmotic pressure exerted by the contrast media in the body. By measuring osmolality, healthcare professionals can determine the potential impact of the contrast media on the osmotic balance and potential adverse effects on the body.Rate this question:
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