HIPAA Healthcare Management! Trivia Questions Quiz
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Quantitative research methodologies can usually be substituted for qualitative research methodologies.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Quantitative research methodologies and qualitative research methodologies are distinct approaches that cannot be easily substituted for one another. Quantitative research focuses on numerical data and statistical analysis, while qualitative research emphasizes subjective experiences and in-depth understanding. Each methodology has its own strengths and limitations, making them suitable for different research objectives and contexts. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that quantitative research methodologies can usually be substituted for qualitative research methodologies.Rate this question:
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- 2.
“If a treatment is shown to be effective on the basis of evidence-based medicine then that is enough reason to use it.”
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement is false because while evidence-based medicine is an important factor in determining the effectiveness of a treatment, it should not be the sole reason for using it. Other factors such as the potential risks and side effects, cost-effectiveness, patient preferences, and the overall benefit to the individual should also be considered before deciding to use a treatment. Evidence-based medicine provides a foundation for making informed decisions, but it should be used in conjunction with other factors to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In a structured interview, all of the following may occur, except
- A.
Specific areas of interest are covered
- B.
Important information may be missed
- C.
Each person interviewed will cover the same material
- D.
The person being interviewed engages in a monologue narrative
Correct Answer
D. The person being interviewed engages in a monologue narrativeExplanation
In a structured interview, the interviewer asks specific questions and the person being interviewed is expected to respond to those questions. The purpose of a structured interview is to gather specific information and assess the candidate's qualifications. Therefore, it is unlikely that the person being interviewed would engage in a monologue narrative where they freely talk without being prompted by the interviewer.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In conducting a research study to investigate the harmful effects of an intervention or exposure, which type of research study would not be appropriate to use?
- A.
Cohort study
- B.
Randomized controlled trial
- C.
Case-control study
- D.
Case series
Correct Answer
B. Randomized controlled trialExplanation
A randomized controlled trial would not be appropriate to use when investigating the harmful effects of an intervention or exposure because it involves randomly assigning participants to either an intervention or control group. This means that participants in the intervention group would be exposed to the potentially harmful intervention, which would not be ethical if the harmful effects are already known or suspected. In such cases, other study designs like cohort studies, case-control studies, or case series would be more appropriate to assess the harmful effects without exposing participants to unnecessary risks.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well designed N-of-1 randomized trial?
- A.
The patient has an acute condition
- B.
The condition being treated would not place the patient at risk for serious harm if left untreated
- C.
The treatment(s) under consideration act and cease acting quickly
- D.
Both the patient and the researcher (clinician) are blinded to which treatment is being administered at each time
Correct Answer
A. The patient has an acute conditionExplanation
A well-designed N-of-1 randomized trial typically involves patients with chronic conditions rather than acute conditions. Acute conditions are short-term and typically resolve on their own or with standard treatments, making it less suitable for an N-of-1 trial. N-of-1 trials are more commonly used for chronic conditions where long-term treatment effects need to be evaluated.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The tendency of data to cluster around a single value is referred to as the ______________ of the data.
- A.
Arithmetic mean
- B.
Central tendency
- C.
Median
- D.
Mode
Correct Answer
B. Central tendencyExplanation
Central tendency refers to the tendency of data to cluster or concentrate around a single value. It is a measure that represents the center or average of a distribution. The arithmetic mean, median, and mode are all measures of central tendency that help to summarize and describe a dataset. However, in this context, the term "central tendency" is used to describe the overall clustering tendency of the data.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A group of researchers undertake a research project. They devise a series of experiments to test their hypothesis. Their initial findings do not support their hypothesis. They repeat their experiments a number of times and the results of their later experiments support their hypothesis with statistical significance. The researchers write a paper describing only their later experiments and statistically significant results and submit it for publication. What type of bias may be taking place here?
- A.
Publication bias
- B.
Faulty comparator bias
- C.
Selective (outcome) reporting bias
Correct Answer
C. Selective (outcome) reporting biasExplanation
The bias that may be taking place in this scenario is selective (outcome) reporting bias. This occurs when researchers selectively report only the results that support their hypothesis, while disregarding or omitting the initial findings that did not support it. By doing so, they present a biased view of the research, potentially leading to misleading conclusions or overestimating the significance of their results.Rate this question:
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- 8.
One of the differences between a bar chart and a histogram is that in a _______________ rearranging the bars changes the relationships among the data, whereas in a ____________________ rearranging the bars does not change the relationships among the data. Another difference between a bar chart and a histogram is that in a ________________ the data are nominal, but in a ______________________ the data are continuous.
- A.
Histogram: bar chart: bar chart: histogram
- B.
Histogram: bar chart: histogram: bar chart
- C.
Bar chart: histogram: bar chart: histogram
- D.
Bar chart: histogram: histogram: bar chart
Correct Answer
A. Histogram: bar chart: bar chart: histogramExplanation
In a histogram, rearranging the bars changes the relationships among the data because the bars represent different ranges or intervals of continuous data. In contrast, in a bar chart, rearranging the bars does not change the relationships among the data because the bars represent distinct categories or groups. Additionally, in a histogram, the data are continuous, meaning they can take on any value within a range, while in a bar chart, the data are nominal, meaning they are categorical or qualitative in nature.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Concluding that a relationship exists between variables when, in fact, it does not, is referred to as what type of error?
- A.
Type I error
- B.
Type II error
- C.
Type III error
- D.
Type IV error
Correct Answer
A. Type I errorExplanation
A Type I error refers to mistakenly concluding that a relationship exists between variables when, in reality, it does not. This error occurs when a statistical test incorrectly rejects the null hypothesis, which states that there is no relationship between the variables being studied. It is also known as a false positive, as it leads to the incorrect belief that there is a significant relationship or effect when there is actually none.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How many standard deviations above and below the mean contains 95% of the population (or sample)?
- A.
2.94 standard deviations
- B.
1.96 standard deviations
- C.
3.15 standard deviations
- D.
4.26 standard deviations
Correct Answer
B. 1.96 standard deviationsExplanation
The answer of 1.96 standard deviations is correct because in a normal distribution, approximately 95% of the data falls within 2 standard deviations of the mean. This is known as the 95% confidence interval. Therefore, if we divide this range equally on both sides of the mean, we get approximately 1.96 standard deviations above and below the mean.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Leadership is required in the health industry because:
- A.
Problems of cost, quality and access need to be solved.
- B.
Government policies need to be evaluated.
- C.
Too many people work in hospitals.
- D.
Many technologies are complicated.
- E.
Healthcare costs are too high.
Correct Answer
A. Problems of cost, quality and access need to be solved.Explanation
Leadership is required in the health industry because problems of cost, quality, and access need to be solved. The health industry is faced with the challenge of providing affordable and accessible healthcare services without compromising on the quality of care. Effective leadership is necessary to identify and address these issues, develop strategies to reduce costs, improve the quality of care, and ensure that healthcare services are accessible to all individuals. Without strong leadership, the health industry may struggle to overcome these challenges and provide efficient and effective healthcare services to the population.Rate this question:
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- 12.
There are several phases of leadership thought, the first phase is?
- A.
The Great Phase
- B.
The Behavioral Phase
- C.
The Situational Leadership Phase
- D.
The Great Man and Trait Phase
- E.
The Collective Phase
Correct Answer
D. The Great Man and Trait PhaseExplanation
The correct answer is "The Great Man and Trait Phase". This phase of leadership thought focuses on the belief that leaders possess inherent qualities and traits that make them great leaders. It suggests that leadership is a result of individual characteristics and that great leaders are born, not made. This phase emphasizes the importance of traits such as intelligence, confidence, charisma, and assertiveness in determining leadership effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A theory has undergone ______________and practical scrutiny at various levels of intensity to determine its value, truth and validity.
- A.
Scientific
- B.
Formal
- C.
Long term practice
- D.
Modeling
- E.
Publication
Correct Answer
A. ScientificExplanation
The theory has been subjected to scientific scrutiny, which involves rigorous testing and evaluation to determine its value, truth, and validity. This process includes conducting experiments, collecting data, analyzing results, and peer review by experts in the field. Scientific scrutiny ensures that the theory is based on evidence and can withstand scrutiny from the scientific community.Rate this question:
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- 14.
McGregor theorized Theory X and Theory Y workers, Theory X workers would be considered:
- A.
Enthusiastic
- B.
Ignored
- C.
Lazy
- D.
Satisfied
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. LazyExplanation
According to McGregor's Theory X, workers are considered lazy. This theory assumes that employees are inherently unmotivated and will avoid work whenever possible. It suggests that workers need to be closely monitored and controlled to ensure productivity. This view portrays employees as lacking ambition and needing external motivation to perform their tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "lazy."Rate this question:
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- 15.
In the Competency Based Leadership Model, Bennis suggests four actions or behaviors successful leaders employ, they are creating attention through vision; creating meaning through communication;______________________; and self-development.
- A.
Being accountable
- B.
Becoming a person of trust
- C.
Creating culture
- D.
Delegating to subordinates
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Becoming a person of trustExplanation
In the Competency Based Leadership Model, Bennis suggests that successful leaders employ the action of becoming a person of trust. This means that leaders should build trust among their team members by consistently demonstrating integrity, honesty, and reliability. By being trustworthy, leaders can create a positive and supportive work environment where team members feel comfortable and confident in their leader's abilities. Trust is essential for effective communication, collaboration, and overall team success.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Conflict management styles can be__________________.
- A.
Modified
- B.
Learned
- C.
Simultaneous
- D.
Moderated
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. LearnedExplanation
Conflict management styles can be learned. This means that individuals can acquire the knowledge, skills, and techniques necessary to effectively manage and resolve conflicts. By studying and practicing different conflict management strategies, individuals can improve their ability to handle conflicts in a constructive and productive manner. Learning conflict management styles allows individuals to better understand the underlying causes of conflicts, communicate effectively, and find mutually beneficial solutions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The comparison of beneficence to ______________ is a higher order set of constructs in the Omnibus Leadership Model.
- A.
Beneficiary
- B.
Contingencies
- C.
Malevolence
- D.
Justice
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. MalevolenceExplanation
The comparison of beneficence to malevolence is a higher order set of constructs in the Omnibus Leadership Model. Beneficence refers to the act of doing good or promoting well-being, while malevolence refers to the act of wishing harm or evil upon others. The comparison of these two concepts within the leadership model suggests that leaders should strive to promote good and well-being, rather than engaging in harmful or evil actions. This highlights the importance of ethical and compassionate leadership in the model.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A _____________ is a mentee that will eventually take on the responsibilities of the mentor in a professional position.
- A.
Mentor
- B.
Telemachus
- C.
Protégé
- D.
Leader
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. ProtégéExplanation
A protégé is a mentee that will eventually take on the responsibilities of the mentor in a professional position. A protégé is someone who is guided and supported by a mentor to develop their skills, knowledge, and abilities in a specific field or profession. The mentor provides guidance, advice, and opportunities for the protégé to grow and succeed. Over time, the protégé gains the necessary experience and expertise to eventually step into the mentor's role and become a mentor themselves.Rate this question:
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- 19.
To reduce the potential for litigation, the keys to dealing with non-performing employees by health leaders are _____________, collaboration with the human resources department, legal counsel and senior leadership.
- A.
Coaching
- B.
Continuing Education
- C.
Documentation
- D.
Performance Improvement Plans
Correct Answer
C. DocumentationExplanation
Documentation is the correct answer because keeping thorough and accurate records of an employee's performance issues, disciplinary actions, and any other relevant information can help protect the organization from potential litigation. It provides evidence of the steps taken to address the employee's non-performance and can be used to support any decisions made by the health leaders. By collaborating with the human resources department, legal counsel, and senior leadership, the health leaders can ensure that the documentation is comprehensive and in line with legal requirements.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The U.S. healthcare system can best be described as:
- A.
Expensive
- B.
Fragmented
- C.
Market-oriented
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The U.S. healthcare system can be described as expensive because healthcare costs in the country are significantly higher compared to other developed nations. It is also fragmented as it consists of multiple private and public entities, making it complex and lacking coordination. Additionally, the system is market-oriented, with a significant role played by private insurance companies and a focus on profit-making. Therefore, the answer "All of the above" accurately describes the U.S. healthcare system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For most privately insured Americans, health insurance is:
- A.
Employer-based
- B.
Financed by the government
- C.
Privately purchased
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Employer-basedExplanation
Most privately insured Americans obtain their health insurance through their employers. This means that their employers offer health insurance as a benefit, and the cost is shared between the employer and the employee. This is a common arrangement in the United States, where employers often negotiate group health insurance plans for their employees. It is different from government-financed insurance programs like Medicaid or Medicare, and also from privately purchased insurance plans that individuals buy directly from insurance companies. Therefore, the correct answer is "Employer-based."Rate this question:
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- 22.
Health policies are used in what capacity?
- A.
Regulation of behaviors
- B.
Allocation of income, services, or goods
- C.
Both a and b
- D.
Neither a nor b
Correct Answer
C. Both a and bExplanation
Health policies are used in both the regulation of behaviors and the allocation of income, services, or goods. Health policies aim to guide and influence individual and collective behaviors related to health, such as promoting healthy habits and preventing risky behaviors. They also play a role in determining how resources, income, services, and goods are distributed within the healthcare system, ensuring equitable access and allocation. Therefore, health policies serve the purpose of both regulating behaviors and allocating resources.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Capitation removes the incentive to
- A.
Control costs
- B.
Provide unnecessary services.
- C.
File a reimbursement claim
- D.
Underutilize health care
Correct Answer
B. Provide unnecessary services.Explanation
Capitation is a payment model where healthcare providers receive a fixed amount of money per patient, regardless of the services provided. In this model, there is no financial incentive for providers to control costs or underutilize healthcare. However, there is an incentive to provide unnecessary services in order to maximize revenue. Therefore, the correct answer is "provide unnecessary services."Rate this question:
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- 24.
According to the CDC, which factor contributes most to premature death in the U.S. population?
- A.
Lifestyle and behaviors
- B.
Lack of medical care
- C.
Social and environmental factors
- D.
Genetic makeup
Correct Answer
A. Lifestyle and behaviorsExplanation
Lifestyle and behaviors contribute most to premature death in the U.S. population because they encompass a wide range of factors such as smoking, poor diet, lack of physical activity, and substance abuse. These choices and habits directly impact overall health and increase the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease, cancer, and diabetes. By making healthier choices and adopting positive behaviors, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of premature death.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The core functions of public health include
- A.
Disease Prevention
- B.
Health promotion
- C.
Health protection
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The core functions of public health include disease prevention, health promotion, and health protection. Disease prevention involves implementing measures to reduce the occurrence and transmission of diseases. Health promotion focuses on empowering individuals and communities to improve their health and well-being through education and awareness campaigns. Health protection involves ensuring the safety and security of the population by monitoring and responding to potential health threats. Therefore, all of the options mentioned - disease prevention, health promotion, and health protection - are correct answers.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Lack of insurance can result in:
- A.
Decreased utilization of lower cost preventive services
- B.
Increased need for more expensive, emergency health care
- C.
The spread of infectious diseases
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Lack of insurance can result in decreased utilization of lower cost preventive services because individuals without insurance may not have access to regular check-ups and screenings, leading to undiagnosed conditions and missed opportunities for early intervention. This can ultimately result in increased healthcare costs as untreated conditions may progress and require more expensive emergency care. Additionally, without insurance, individuals may delay seeking medical attention for infectious diseases, increasing the risk of spreading these diseases to others. Therefore, all of the given options are potential consequences of lacking insurance.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following activities should be performed by the Board of Directors?
- A.
Calculating patient care fees
- B.
Determining staffing patterns
- C.
Recruiting new medical staff
- D.
Hiring the CEO
Correct Answer
D. Hiring the CEOExplanation
The Board of Directors should be responsible for hiring the CEO because this is a crucial decision that directly impacts the overall management and direction of the organization. The CEO plays a key role in setting the strategic vision, making important decisions, and overseeing the day-to-day operations. Therefore, it is essential for the Board of Directors to be involved in the hiring process to ensure that the right candidate is selected to lead the organization effectively.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Approximately what percentage of GDP is spent on health care?
- A.
6%
- B.
16%
- C.
26%
- D.
36%
Correct Answer
B. 16%Explanation
The correct answer is 16%. This suggests that approximately 16% of a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is allocated towards healthcare expenditures. This percentage indicates the significant financial commitment that a country makes towards providing healthcare services to its population. It implies that healthcare is a significant sector and a priority for the government in terms of resource allocation and investment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Medical cost inflation is influenced by all of the following factors except:
- A.
Waste and abuse
- B.
Increase in elderly population
- C.
Decrease in uninsured
- D.
Growth of technology
Correct Answer
C. Decrease in uninsuredExplanation
The decrease in uninsured individuals does not directly influence medical cost inflation. Medical cost inflation is driven by factors such as waste and abuse, an increase in the elderly population, and the growth of technology. While a decrease in uninsured individuals may lead to increased demand for healthcare services, it does not directly impact the overall cost of medical care.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In the United States it is illegal to sell an organ to a buyer because:
- A.
The selling of an organ for money is considered immoral
- B.
The selling of an organ for profit can lead to other health issues that society has to absorb at a later time
- C.
It is not illegal to see an organ in the United States
- D.
There are greater person’s in need who may not have financial resources
Correct Answer
D. There are greater person’s in need who may not have financial resourcesExplanation
The correct answer suggests that one reason why it is illegal to sell organs in the United States is because there are other individuals who are in need of organs but may not have the financial resources to purchase them. This implies that allowing organ sales could lead to a situation where only the wealthy can afford life-saving organs, further exacerbating existing inequalities in access to healthcare.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If a certain culture suggests that medical information be supplied to the male in the family first rather than the female, the physician should
- A.
Be cultural sensitive and find the senior adult male in the family
- B.
Make every attempt to accommodate the cultural issues, but when in doubt, inform the most available family member
- C.
Disregard cultural awareness and reply on state laws for guidance
- D.
Avoid cultural stereotyping and do not assume all members act equally
Correct Answer
D. Avoid cultural stereotyping and do not assume all members act equallyExplanation
The correct answer suggests that the physician should avoid cultural stereotyping and not assume that all members of the family act equally. This means that the physician should not automatically assume that the medical information should be supplied to the male in the family first, but rather should consider each individual's preferences and needs. By avoiding cultural stereotyping, the physician can ensure that they are providing the best care and respecting the cultural beliefs and practices of the family.Rate this question:
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- 32.
In regards to collective bargaining, which of the follow is true:
- A.
It is a union requirement that this process be available to employees
- B.
It is usually an adversarial process
- C.
The employer will set the conditions of the meeting
- D.
When continued dispute is the outcome, there is always an appeal process
Correct Answer
B. It is usually an adversarial processExplanation
Collective bargaining is a process where representatives from a labor union negotiate with employers on behalf of employees to determine working conditions, wages, and other employment terms. The statement "It is usually an adversarial process" suggests that collective bargaining often involves a confrontational or oppositional approach, where both parties may have conflicting interests and engage in negotiations with a competitive mindset. This implies that there may be disagreements, conflicts, and tensions during the bargaining process as each side tries to secure the best possible outcome for their respective interests.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Decision making regarding intangible assets is similar for both for profit and not-for-profit organizations
- A.
True, both have the same government constraints on them
- B.
True, both for profit and not for profit organizations answer to the same stakeholders
- C.
False, not-for-profit organizations may have to weigh stakeholder values with the cost of the intangible item
- D.
False, intangible asset decision making is the same regardless of organization
Correct Answer
C. False, not-for-profit organizations may have to weigh stakeholder values with the cost of the intangible itemExplanation
The correct answer is false because not-for-profit organizations may have to consider the values of their stakeholders when making decisions about intangible assets, in addition to the cost of the asset. This is because not-for-profit organizations often have a diverse range of stakeholders, including donors, volunteers, and the community they serve, whose values and expectations may need to be taken into account when making decisions about intangible assets.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An organization’s effectiveness can be decreased by leadership when the organization’s leadership:
- A.
Views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default.
- B.
Engages in hiring practices that promote diversity
- C.
Views a person as an individual outside of one’s culture
- D.
All of the above will decrease organizations effectiveness.
Correct Answer
A. Views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default.Explanation
When leadership views individuals of a certain race as being homogenous and fitting in with other members of the racial group by default, it can decrease an organization's effectiveness. This is because such a perspective ignores the unique qualities, skills, and experiences that each individual brings to the table. It perpetuates stereotypes and prevents the organization from benefiting from the diverse perspectives and ideas that individuals from different backgrounds can offer. By not recognizing and valuing individual differences, the organization may miss out on innovation, collaboration, and the ability to effectively address the needs and preferences of a diverse customer base.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is the most important tool for determining an individual’s annual salary and/or salary bonus?
- A.
Longevity of the employee.
- B.
Performance appraisals
- C.
Your personal relationship with the employee.
- D.
Disciplinary actions
Correct Answer
B. Performance appraisalsExplanation
Performance appraisals are the most important tool for determining an individual's annual salary and/or salary bonus. This is because performance appraisals provide a systematic evaluation of an employee's job performance, including their achievements, skills, and competencies. By assessing an employee's performance, employers can objectively measure their contributions to the organization and make informed decisions regarding salary adjustments and bonuses. Longevity of the employee may be a factor in determining salary, but it is not the most important tool. Personal relationships and disciplinary actions are not directly related to an individual's performance and should not be the primary basis for determining salary and bonuses.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Information support systems allow a leader to:
- A.
Integrate information from various sources to make decisions
- B.
Save money by moving away from paper based retrieval systems
- C.
Are constantly changing and are burdensome to providers
- D.
See daily and hourly reports on activities inside the facility
Correct Answer
C. Are constantly changing and are burdensome to providers -
- 37.
The overall goal of environmental analysis is to position the organization within its:
- A.
Food Chain
- B.
Life Cycle Model
- C.
TOWS Analysis
- D.
Environment
Correct Answer
D. EnvironmentExplanation
The overall goal of environmental analysis is to position the organization within its environment. Environmental analysis involves studying the external factors that can impact the organization's operations, such as economic, social, political, and technological factors. By understanding the environment in which the organization operates, it can identify opportunities and threats, and make informed decisions to effectively position itself in the market. This analysis helps the organization to adapt and respond to changes in the environment, and ultimately achieve its goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Managers in health service organizations hold authority as:
- A.
Figurehead, liaison, arbitrator, mentor, and legal advisor
- B.
Interpersonal rolls, informational roles and decision roles
- C.
Only that which is described by the chief executive officer
- D.
The 1st link is managing process change
Correct Answer
B. Interpersonal rolls, informational roles and decision rolesExplanation
Managers in health service organizations hold authority in various roles. Interpersonal roles involve interacting with others, such as being a figurehead, liaison, and arbitrator. Informational roles involve gathering and disseminating information, such as being a mentor and legal advisor. Decision roles involve making important decisions, such as those related to managing process change. Therefore, the correct answer is that managers hold authority in interpersonal roles, informational roles, and decision roles.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The CEO may engage in direct contract relationships if he or she is
- A.
Vested with legal capacity
- B.
Vested with the authority of the board
- C.
Has a law degree and license
- D.
Formerly served as the contract officer
Correct Answer
B. Vested with the authority of the boardExplanation
The CEO may engage in direct contract relationships if he or she is vested with the authority of the board. This means that the CEO has been given the power and permission by the board of directors to enter into contracts on behalf of the company. The board trusts the CEO's judgment and decision-making abilities in contractual matters, allowing them to directly engage in contract relationships without needing to seek further approval. This authority is typically granted to the CEO as part of their role and responsibilities within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The P-value is used to determine:
- A.
Confidence interval
- B.
Significance
- C.
Error
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. SignificanceExplanation
The P-value is used to determine the significance of a statistical test. It measures the probability of obtaining the observed data, or more extreme results, if the null hypothesis is true. A small P-value indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, suggesting that the results are statistically significant. Therefore, the correct answer is "Significance."Rate this question:
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- 41.
The F-Ratio “can be used” to determine
- A.
Confidence interval
- B.
Significance
- C.
Level of Error
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Level of ErrorExplanation
The F-Ratio can be used to determine the level of error in a statistical analysis. It is a measure of the variability between groups compared to the variability within groups. A higher F-Ratio indicates a larger difference between groups and a lower level of error in the analysis. Therefore, the F-Ratio is useful in assessing the accuracy and reliability of statistical findings.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following types of variables are best used in a parametric test
- A.
Continues variables
- B.
Dichotomous variables
- C.
Categorical; variables
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Continues variablesExplanation
Continuous variables are best used in parametric tests because they have a wide range of values and can be measured on a continuous scale. Parametric tests assume that the data follows a specific distribution, such as the normal distribution, and continuous variables are more likely to meet this assumption. Additionally, parametric tests rely on calculations that require interval or ratio level data, which continuous variables provide. Dichotomous variables and categorical variables do not meet these requirements and are typically better suited for non-parametric tests.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A regression analysis is best used in which scenario
- A.
When you are looking at the differences between males and females and ER use
- B.
When comparing the outcomes of NPs, MDs and Pas across primary care loads
- C.
When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital
- D.
When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town
Correct Answer
C. When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospitalExplanation
A regression analysis is best used when determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital. Regression analysis helps to identify the relationship between a dependent variable (costs) and independent variables (factors). By analyzing the data, it can provide insights into which factors have a significant impact on costs in a large hospital setting. This analysis can help healthcare administrators and managers make informed decisions to optimize cost management and improve efficiency in the hospital.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A T-test is best used in which scenario
- A.
When you are looking at the differences between males and females and ER use
- B.
When comparing the outcomes of NPs, MDs and Pas across primary care loads
- C.
When determining factors affecting costs in a large hospital
- D.
When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town
Correct Answer
D. When comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across townExplanation
A T-test is best used when comparing your hospital costs to that of a similar size hospital across town. A T-test is a statistical test that is used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two groups. In this scenario, the T-test would be appropriate to compare the costs of your hospital to the costs of another hospital in the same town of similar size. This test would help identify if there is a significant difference in costs between the two hospitals.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which alpha represents a 99% confidence interval in statistics:
- A.
.05
- B.
.01
- C.
.001
- D.
.10
Correct Answer
B. .01Explanation
The alpha level represents the level of significance in hypothesis testing. A 99% confidence interval means that there is a 99% probability that the true population parameter falls within the interval. In statistics, a commonly used alpha level for a 99% confidence interval is .01. This means that there is a 1% chance of making a Type I error, which is rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which statement best represents the null hypothesis statement
- A.
The evidence is not supported
- B.
There is no difference between variables
- C.
There is support of the statistical finding
- D.
There is a difference
Correct Answer
B. There is no difference between variablesExplanation
The statement "There is no difference between variables" best represents the null hypothesis statement. In hypothesis testing, the null hypothesis assumes that there is no significant difference or relationship between the variables being studied. It is the default assumption that researchers aim to either accept or reject based on the evidence gathered from the data.Rate this question:
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- 47.
If the standard deviation is greater than the mean, this is hard support for:
- A.
A normal distribution
- B.
A data set with (probably) both skewness and kurtosis in the distribution
- C.
Missing data
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. A data set with (probably) both skewness and kurtosis in the distributionExplanation
If the standard deviation is greater than the mean, it suggests that the data set has a wider spread and more variability. This is a characteristic of distributions that have both skewness and kurtosis, indicating that the data is not normally distributed. Therefore, the correct answer is a data set with (probably) both skewness and kurtosis in the distribution.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following are measures of central tendancy
- A.
Mean, median, mode and standard deviation
- B.
Confidence interval, p-value, f-ratio and t-statistics
- C.
Mean square error, means square treatment and error sum of squares
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Mean, median, mode and standard deviationExplanation
Mean, median, mode, and standard deviation are all measures of central tendency. The mean is the average value of a set of data, the median is the middle value when the data is arranged in order, and the mode is the most frequently occurring value. These measures provide information about the typical or central value of a dataset. Standard deviation, on the other hand, measures the spread or variability of the data around the mean. Therefore, all four options are measures of central tendency.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A chi square is best used with which kind of data:
- A.
Continuous data
- B.
Dichotomous data
- C.
Interval data
- D.
Ratio data
Correct Answer
B. Dichotomous dataExplanation
A chi square is best used with dichotomous data because it is a statistical test that compares observed frequencies with expected frequencies to determine if there is a significant difference between the two. Dichotomous data consists of two mutually exclusive categories, such as yes/no or true/false, which makes it suitable for chi square analysis. This test can determine if the observed frequencies deviate significantly from what would be expected by chance, indicating a relationship or association between the variables being studied. Therefore, chi square is commonly used to analyze categorical data with two categories.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which organization created the CPT codes?
- A.
American College of Healthcare Executives
- B.
American Medical Association
- C.
Heath Care Finance Administration (HCFA)
- D.
World Health Organization
Correct Answer
B. American Medical AssociationExplanation
The American Medical Association (AMA) created the CPT codes. CPT stands for Current Procedural Terminology, and these codes are used to describe medical procedures and services provided by healthcare professionals. The AMA developed the CPT coding system to standardize and streamline the reporting of medical procedures, allowing for accurate billing and reimbursement.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 31, 2013Quiz Created by
Courtney1382
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