CompTIA Security+ Practice Exam (3)

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Which of the following represents the greatest benefit of using S/MIME /Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension)?
- It allows users to send encrypted and digitally sign e-mail messages.
- It allows users to send anonymous e-mails.
- It allows users to send e-mails with a return receipt.
- It expedites the delivery of e-mail.

CompTIA Security+ Practice Exam (3) - Quiz

About This Quiz

Comptia Security+ Practice Exam (3)
Full length Comptia Security+ Practice Exam. Take this exam like thereal exam to see if you are completely prepared for the real exam. Time yourself to 90 minutes to get a feel of thepressures of the real exam. The practice test is designed to reflectthe final exam.

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2.

Which of the following can be used to retain connection data, user information, history of sites visited, and can be used by attackers for spoofing an on-line identity?
- HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL).
- Cookies.
- HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)/l.0 Caching.
- VCard v3.0.
Correct Answer

A. Cookies.

Explanation

Cookies were originally developed by Netscape as a convenience feature to save user settings across multiple sites, servers, and webpages. For example, some cookies save passwords and login information so a user doesn't have to enter it every time they visit a page. Since cookies contain valuable information like: user name, IP address, browser, and operating system a hacker can use cookie information for spoofing.

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3.

What do you call the action when a person masquerades as a reputable hardware technician in order to pick up a server for repairs?
- This is known as a Trojan horse.
- This is known as a man-in-the-middle attack.
- This is known as a phishing attack.
- This is known as social engineering.
Correct Answer

A. This is known as social engineering.

Explanation

Social engineering is the correct answer because it involves manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information. In this scenario, the person is pretending to be a reputable hardware technician to gain access to the server for repairs. This manipulation and deception of the person's identity is characteristic of social engineering tactics. A Trojan horse refers to a type of malicious software, a man-in-the-middle attack involves intercepting communication, and phishing is the act of tricking individuals into revealing sensitive information through deceptive emails or websites.

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4.

What is the scenario called that an attacker uses to persuade a user to execute an action to be successful?
- This is known as a back door.
- This is known as password guessing.
- This is known as man-in-the-middle.
- This is known as social engineering.
Correct Answer

A. This is known as social engineering.

Explanation

Social engineering is a scenario in which an attacker manipulates and deceives a user to gain unauthorized access or obtain sensitive information. It involves psychological manipulation and exploiting human vulnerabilities rather than technical means. In this case, the attacker persuades the user to execute an action, which ultimately leads to the attacker's success. This can include tactics such as impersonating a trusted individual, creating a sense of urgency, or using persuasive techniques to trick the user into disclosing information or performing actions that they shouldn't.

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5.

Which types of attachments should be filtered from e-mails to minimize the danger of viruses?
- Text files.
- Image files.
- Sound files.
- Executable files.
Correct Answer

A. Executable files.

Explanation

Many newer viruses spread using email. The infected system includes an attachment to any e-mail that you send to another user. The recipient opens this file thinking it is something you legitimately sent them. When they open the file, the virus infects the target system. Many times the virus is in an executable attachment.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 78

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6.

Identify an efficient social engineering defensive strategy?
- You should implement training and awareness strategy.
- You should implement escorting of guests strategy.
- You should implement badge security system strategy.
- You should implement marking of documents strategy.
Correct Answer

A. You should implement training and awareness strategy.

Explanation

An efficient social engineering defensive strategy involves implementing a training and awareness strategy. This means educating employees about the various tactics used in social engineering attacks and raising their awareness about the potential risks and consequences. By providing training, employees can learn how to identify and respond to social engineering attempts, such as phishing emails or phone calls. This strategy helps to create a vigilant and informed workforce that is less likely to fall victim to social engineering attacks, ultimately enhancing the overall security of the organization.

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7.

Which of the following is often used to encrypt e-mail messages?
- S/MIME
- BIND
- DES
- SSL
Correct Answer

A. S/MIME

Explanation

Secure MIME (S/MIME) is a standard used for encrypting e-mail. S/MIME can also contain signature data. S/MIME provides encryption, integrity, and authentication when used in conjunction with PKI.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 368

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8.

What does a web client and server require in order for an SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) connection to be established between them automatically?
- A shared password.
- A certificate signed by a trusted root CA (Certificate Authority).
- An address on the same subnet.
- A common operating system.
Correct Answer

A. A certificate signed by a trusted root CA (Certificate Authority).

Explanation

For an SSL connection to compete, the web client and server should have a trusted certificate to confirm authenticity. A shared password, address on the same subnet, and a common operating system are ludicrous answers because they defy the reason why SSL exists.

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9.

Which of the following can be used to track a user's browsing habits on the Internet?
- Digital certificates
- Cookies
- ActiveX controls
- Web server cache
Correct Answer

A. Cookies

Explanation

Cookies are text files that a browser maintains on the user's hard disk. A cookie will typically contain information about the user. Cookies are used to provide persistent, customized web experience for each visit. Cookies do contain username and passwords for each site you visit or login into. Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 135

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10.

What does the security administrator wants to prevent by ensuring that the users' password cannot be seen by passersby?
- The security administrator wants to stop a man-in-the-middle attack.
- The security administrator wants to stop shoulder surfing.
- The security administrator wants to stop dumpster diving.
- The security administrator wants to stop phishing.
Correct Answer

A. The security administrator wants to stop shoulder surfing.

Explanation

The security administrator wants to prevent users' passwords from being seen by passersby in order to stop shoulder surfing. Shoulder surfing is a form of attack where an individual tries to obtain sensitive information, such as passwords, by looking over someone's shoulder while they are entering it. By ensuring that passwords cannot be seen by passersby, the security administrator can mitigate the risk of unauthorized individuals gaining access to user accounts.

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11.

You are in the process of auditing the security position of the company and detect that users are able to access the accounting data of the company. How can this be solved?
- You have to implement a host based intrusion detection system to address this problem.
- You have to ensure that the user rights and security groups are changed.
- You have to implement a host based intrusion prevention system to address this problem.
- You have to ensure that the file level audit settings are changed.
Correct Answer

A. You have to ensure that the user rights and security groups are changed.

Explanation

To solve the issue of users accessing the accounting data of the company, it is necessary to change the user rights and security groups. By modifying the permissions and access levels of users, unauthorized individuals will no longer be able to access the sensitive accounting data. This solution focuses on managing user privileges and restricting access to sensitive information, effectively mitigating the security vulnerability identified during the audit. Implementing a host-based intrusion detection system, host-based intrusion prevention system, or changing file level audit settings would not directly address the problem of unauthorized access to accounting data.

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12.

Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols? (Choose two)
- PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol).
- SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).
- L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol).
- SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
- PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).
Correct Answer(s)

A. L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol).
A. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).

Explanation

PPTP and L2TP are both VPN tunneling protocols. L2TP is more sophisticated and gaining more popularity. Incorrect answers: PPP is an encapsulation protocol usually associate with ISDN and SLIP s an old protocol used for direct serial line connections between two computers.

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13.

Which of the following steps in the SSL (Secure Socket Layer) protocol allows for client and server authentication, MAC (Mandatory Access Control) and encryption algorithm negotiation, and selection of cryptographic keys?
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) alert protocol.
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) change cipher spec protocol.
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) record protocol.
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) handshake protocol.
Correct Answer

A. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) handshake protocol.

Explanation

SSL Handshake Protocol
* runs before any application data is transmitted
* provides mutual authentication
* establishes secret encryption keys
* establishes secret MAC keys

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14.

Which of the following protocols is used to secure web transactions?
- S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)
- XML (Extensible Makeup Language)
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
- SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
Correct Answer

A. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

Explanation

The Secure Socket Layer is used to establish a secure communication connection between two TCP-based machines. This protocol uses the handshake method. When a connection request is made to the server, the server sends a message back to the client indicating a secure connection is needed. The client then sends the server a certificate indicating the capabilities of the client. The server then evaluates the certificate and responds with a session key and an encrypted private key. The session is secure after this process.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 365

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15.

Which of the following can be used to create a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?
- PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol).
- PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).
- SLIP (Serial Line Internet Protocol).
- ESLIP (Encrypted Serial Line Internet Protocol).
Correct Answer

A. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol).

Explanation

Point to point tunneling protocol was originally proposed by Microsoft and its associates and it works by embedding its very own network protocol within the TCP/IP packets.

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16.

What is clearance into a confidential section known as that only permit access to certain data within that section?
- It is known as dual control.
- It is known as need to know.
- It is known as separation of duties.
- It is known as acceptable use.
Correct Answer

A. It is known as need to know.

Explanation

The term "need to know" refers to the principle that individuals are only granted access to confidential information if they have a legitimate need for it in order to perform their job responsibilities. This principle ensures that sensitive data is only shared with those who require it and helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches. Dual control, separation of duties, and acceptable use are all important concepts in information security, but they do not specifically address the idea of limiting access to certain data within a confidential section.

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17.

Which of the following can be used to exploit the clear text nature of an Instant-Messaging session?
- Packet sniffing.
- Port scanning.
- Cryptanalysis.
- Reverse engineering.
Correct Answer

A. Packet sniffing.

Explanation

Since only clear unencrypted text is being sent across the world through multitudes of WAN equipment and routers; it is easy for someone to sniff your conversation and eavesdrop on every single word you type.

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18.

What can an attacker can determine which network services are enabled on a target system?
- Installing a rootkit on the target system.
- Checking the services file.
- Enabling logging on the target system.
- Running a port scan against the target system.
Correct Answer

A. Running a port scan against the target system.

Explanation

A TCP/IP network makes many of the ports available to outside users through the router. These ports will respond in a predictable manner when queried. An attacker can systematically query a network to determine which services and ports are open. This process is called port scanning, and it can reveal a great deal about your network. Port scans can be performed both internally and externally. Many routers, unless configured appropriately, will let all of the protocols pass through them.

Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 69

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19.

Where would a social engineering attack be most efficient? (Choose TWO)
- It will be efficient in an environment with a help desk whose personnel have a little training.
- It will be efficient in an environment with committed information technology (IT) security staff.
- It will be efficient in a public building that contains shared office space.
- It will be efficient in a military facility with computer equipment containing biometrics.
- It will be efficient in a locked, windowless building.
Correct Answer(s)

A. It will be efficient in an environment with a help desk whose personnel have a little training.
A. It will be efficient in a public building that contains shared office space.

Explanation

A social engineering attack involves manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or systems. In an environment with a help desk whose personnel have little training, attackers can exploit the lack of knowledge and easily deceive or manipulate the employees to obtain sensitive information. Similarly, in a public building with shared office space, there is a higher likelihood of encountering individuals who may be less cautious about security protocols, making it easier for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities and gain access to confidential information.

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20.

A stranger enters the head offices of Certkiller .com pretending to be a communications technician. A packet sniffer is then connected to the network switch in the wiring closet and hidden behind the switch against a wall. This process is known as?
- It is an example of social engineering
- It is an example of a vulnerability scan.
- It is an example of a man in the middle attack.
- It is an example of a penetration test.
Correct Answer

A. It is an example of social engineering

Explanation

The scenario described in the question involves a stranger entering the premises and pretending to be a communications technician in order to gain unauthorized access to the network. This manipulation of human behavior and trust is known as social engineering. Social engineering involves exploiting psychological manipulation techniques to deceive individuals into divulging confidential information or granting unauthorized access to systems. In this case, the stranger is using social engineering tactics to gain access to the network by pretending to be someone they are not.

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21.

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSH (Secure Shell)?
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 22
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 69
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 179
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 17
Correct Answer

A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 22

Explanation

SSH uses port 22 and TCP for connections.

Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 127

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22.

What is the biggest benefit to using RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) for a multi-site VPN (Virtual Private Network) that supports a large number of remote users?
- RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) provides for a centralized user database.
- RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) provides for a decentralized user database.
- No user database is required with RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service).
- User database is replicated and stored locally on all remote systems.
Correct Answer

A. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) provides for a centralized user database.

Explanation

Since RADIUS keeps its credentials and keys in a centralized database, it's ideal for a large population of remote users. RADIUS authenticates the dial-in user by means of a private symmetric key; and stores a user profile to grant user authorization.

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23.

Which of the following is an alternative to using telnet?
- DES (Data Encryption Standard).
- S-Telnet.
- SSH (Secure Shell).
- PKI (Public Key Infrastructure).
Correct Answer

A. SSH (Secure Shell).

Explanation

Secure Shell is like telnet in the sense that an administrator may enter commands into a remote server, except that it uses an encrypted and authenticated connection [(RSA) cryptography for connection and authentication; and IDEA, Blowfish, or DES for data stream encryption.] instead of Telnet's cleartext.

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24.

What should be installed for HTTPS in order to function properly on a web site?
- You should install a security token.
- You should install a Symmetric key.
- You should install a Digital certificate.
- You should install a 3DES encryption.
Correct Answer

A. You should install a Digital certificate.

Explanation

A digital certificate is required for HTTPS to function properly on a website. A digital certificate is a type of security credential that verifies the authenticity of a website and enables secure communication between the website and the user's browser. It contains information about the website, such as its domain name and public key, and is issued by a trusted certificate authority. The digital certificate ensures that the website is legitimate and that the data transmitted between the website and the user is encrypted and secure.

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25.

Which of the following can be used to authenticate and encrypt IP (Internet Protocol) traffic?
- ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
- S/MIME (Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)
- IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)
- IPv2 (Internet Protocol version 2)
Correct Answer

A. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

Explanation

IPSec provides secure authentication and encryption of data and headers. IPSec can work in tunneling mode or transport mode. In tunneling mode, the data or payload and message headers are encrypted. Transport mode encrypts only the payload. Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 127

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26.

What can be used to make the information unreadable to those who don't have the correct key?
- Non-repudiation protects the confidentiality of data.
- Encryption protects the confidentiality of data.
- Hashing protects the confidentiality of data
- Digital signatures protect the confidentiality of data.
Correct Answer

A. Encryption protects the confidentiality of data.

Explanation

Encryption is a method used to convert readable data into unreadable form, known as ciphertext, using an encryption algorithm and a key. Only individuals with the correct key can decrypt the ciphertext and convert it back into its original, readable form. Therefore, encryption is used to make the information unreadable to those who don't have the correct key, ensuring the confidentiality of data.

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27.

What can be done to stop the malicious code being carried out in e-mail clients?
- You can ensure that regular updates are executed.
- You can ensure that the preview screens are disabled.
- You can ensure that the spam and anti-virus filters are used.
- You can ensure that the e-mail client characteristics are disabled.
Correct Answer

A. You can ensure that the spam and anti-virus filters are used.

Explanation

Regular updates, disabling preview screens, and disabling e-mail client characteristics may help in preventing some forms of malicious code, but the most effective measure to stop malicious code in e-mail clients is to use spam and anti-virus filters. These filters can identify and block potentially harmful emails, attachments, or links, reducing the risk of malware infections or other security threats.

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28.

What is the main DISADVANTAGE of using a third party mail relay?
- Spammers can utilize the relay.
- The relay limits access to specific users.
- The relay restricts the types of e-mail that maybe sent.
- The relay restricts spammers from gaining access.
Correct Answer

A. Spammers can utilize the relay.

Explanation

Using a third party email relay can put you in an advantage of getting unnecessary spam. Anyone on the internet can relay an unsolicited email through an SMTP server, and the message will appear to be legitimate coming from the email server, and it makes it much more difficult to trace the spammer.

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29.

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)?
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 80
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 80
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 443
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 69
Correct Answer

A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) transport layer protocol and port 443

Explanation

Secure Sockets Layer is secure, so it would be natural to assume that it uses the connection orientated TCP instead of UDP. Secondly, TCP port 80 is HTTP, which stands for (hyper text transfer protocol) TCP port 443 is HTTPS which stands for hyper text transfer protocol over secure socket layer'

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30.

Which of the following are used to prove where ActiveX controls originated from?
- Encryption.
- Their location on the web server.
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer).
- Digital signatures.
Correct Answer

A. Digital signatures.

Explanation

ActiveX controls are digitally signed with an Authenticode signature, verified by a Certificate Authority. The controls are restricted by that signature only, not by the web browser settings.

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31.

What will the SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) enabled server do first when a user clicks to browse a secure page?
- Use its digital certificate to establish its identity to the browser.
- Validate the user by checking the CRL (Certificate Revocation List).
- Request the user to produce the CRL (Certificate Revocation List).
- Display the requested page on the browser, then provide its IP (Internet Protocol) address for verification
Correct Answer

A. Use its digital certificate to establish its identity to the browser.

Explanation

The Secure Socket Layer is used to establish a secure communication connection between two TCP-based machines. This protocol uses the handshake method. When a connection request is made to the server, the server sends a message back to the client indicating a secure connection is needed. The client then sends the server a certificate indicating the capabilities of the client. The server then evaluates the certificate and responds with a session key and an encrypted private key. The session is secure after this process.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 365

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32.

Which of the following is responsible for displaying an install dialog box for an ActiveX component?
- The user's browser setting.
- The meta tag.
- The condition of the sandbox.
- The negotiation between the client and the server.
Correct Answer

A. The user's browser setting.

Explanation

ActiveX components are downloaded to the client hard disk, potentially allowing additional security breaches. Web browsers can be configured so that they require confirmation to accept an ActiveX control.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 135

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33.

What is a possible cause of an SMTP server being the source of e-mail spam in a company?
- A possible cause could be that the administrator account was not protected.
- A possible cause could be that the remote access to the install directory of the e-mail applications was not removed.
- A possible cause could be that anonymous relays have not been disabled.
- A possible cause could be that the X.400 connectors have not been password protected.
Correct Answer

A. A possible cause could be that anonymous relays have not been disabled.

Explanation

A possible cause of an SMTP server being the source of e-mail spam in a company could be that anonymous relays have not been disabled. This means that anyone, including spammers, can use the server to send emails without authentication. By disabling anonymous relays, the server would require authentication for sending emails, reducing the risk of spam being sent through the server.

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34.

With regard to viruses and hoaxes, which of the following is TRUE? (Choose the best answer)
- Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.
- Hoaxes are harmless pranks and should be ignored
- Hoaxes can help educate user about a virus.
- Hoaxes carry a malicious payload and can be destructive.
Correct Answer

A. Hoaxes can create as much damage as a real virus.

Explanation

Hoaxes do have the possibility of causing as much damage as viruses. Many hoaxes instruct the recipient to forward the message to everyone that they know and thus causes network congestion and heavy e-mail activity. Hoaxes also often instruct the user to delete files on their computer that may cause their computer or a program to quit functioning.

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35.

Which of the following is the primary attribute associated with e-mail hoaxes?
- E-mail hoaxes create unnecessary e-mail traffic and panic in non-technical users.
- E-mail hoaxes take up large amounts of server disk space.
- E-mail hoaxes can cause buffer overflows on the e-mail server.
- E-mail hoaxes can encourage malicious users.
Correct Answer

A. E-mail hoaxes create unnecessary e-mail traffic and panic in non-technical users.

Explanation

Although answer choices B,C,D have a degree of truth to them; the BEST answer is A. Email hoaxes often create unnecessary traffic because they ask users to forward an email to everyone in address book, and whether it is a computer virus or a blind, crippled, starving, cancer victim child suffering from Herpes it creates undue panic and emotion in the work setting.

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36.

What type of port scan is used to determine which ports are in a listening state and then performs a two way handshake?
- TCP (transmission Control Protocol) SYN (Synchronize) scan
- TCP (transmission Control Protocol) connect scan
- TCP (transmission Control Protocol) fin scan
- TCP (transmission Control Protocol) null scan
Correct Answer

A. TCP (transmission Control Protocol) SYN (Synchronize) scan

Explanation

In SYN scanning, a TCP SYN packet is sent to the port(s) to be scanned. If the port responds with a TCP SYN ACK packet, then the port is listening. If it replies with a TCP RST packet, then it is not.

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37.

Which of the following defines the ability to verify that an e-mail message received has not been modified in transit?
- Authorization
- Non-repudiation
- Integrity
- Cryptographic mapping
Correct Answer

A. Integrity

Explanation

Integrity defines the ability to verify that an e-mail message received has not been modified in transit. This means that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. Integrity ensures that the content of the email remains intact and unchanged from the moment it was sent to the moment it was received. It is an important aspect of email security to ensure that the information being communicated is reliable and trustworthy.

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38.

Which of the following is the greatest vulnerability of using Instant Messaging clients?
- Theft of root user credentials.
- Disconnection from the file server.
- Hostile code delivered by file transfer.
- Slow Internet connections.
- Loss of email privileges.
Correct Answer

A. Hostile code delivered by file transfer.

Explanation

IM clients can also be compromised by malicious code, Trojan Horse programs, and traditional DoS attacks. Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 197

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39.

Identify the logs that will illustrate the unapproved usage attempts after the implementation of a file audit?
- The Application will show the usage attempts that are not approved.
- The Performance will show the usage attempts that are not approved.
- The System will show the usage attempts that are not approved.
- The Security will show the usage attempts that are not approved.
Correct Answer

A. The Security will show the usage attempts that are not approved.

Explanation

The Security logs will provide information about the usage attempts that are not approved. These logs specifically focus on security-related events and activities, such as unauthorized access attempts or violations of security policies. Therefore, they are the most relevant logs to identify unapproved usage attempts after the implementation of a file audit.

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40.

Identify the step that is often disregarded during an auditing process?
- Auditing all system events is frequently disregarded.
- Permitting auditing on the system is frequently disregarded.
- Deciding the events that need to be audit is frequently disregarded.
- Regularly reviewing event logs is frequently disregarded.
Correct Answer

A. Regularly reviewing event logs is frequently disregarded.

Explanation

During an auditing process, one step that is often disregarded is regularly reviewing event logs. Event logs contain important information about system activities and can provide valuable insights into any potential security breaches or unauthorized access. However, due to time constraints or lack of awareness, many auditors fail to regularly review these logs. This oversight can lead to missed opportunities to identify and address security issues, making it a common step that is disregarded during the auditing process.

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41.

With which privileges are ActiveX control executed?
- Current user account
- Administrator account
- Guest account
- System account
Correct Answer

A. Current user account

Explanation

When you're online and you execute an ActiveX control; the only thing that can control it, are the individual user settings of the current user.

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42.

Identify the series of steps in the auditing process?
- You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing to record the events.
- You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing on the object and respond as alerts are generated.
- You should consider setting auditing on the object and respond as alerts are produced.
- You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing on objects and review event logs.
Correct Answer

A. You should consider enabling auditing. Then you can set auditing on objects and review event logs.

Explanation

The correct answer is to consider enabling auditing, setting auditing on objects, and reviewing event logs. This series of steps ensures that auditing is enabled, events are recorded, and alerts are generated. By reviewing the event logs, any suspicious activities or security breaches can be identified and appropriate actions can be taken.

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43.

Which of the following is a possible technical impact of receiving large quantifies of spam?
- DoS (Denial of Service).
- Processor under utilization.
- Reduction in hard drive space requirements.
- Increased network throughput.
Correct Answer

A. DoS (Denial of Service).

Explanation

In systems where no email filters are set up, it is possible for some users to receive over a hundred unsolicited emails a day! If every user on a network received that much email, the human time necessary to sort through those emails will be Herculean. The system resources required to: process, download, and store such email can potentially reduce a networks availability to zero; thus denying service.

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44.

Which of the following protocols is used to encrypt traffic between a web browser and web server?
- IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)
- HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
- SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
- VPN (Virtual Private Network)
Correct Answer

A. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

Explanation

The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is used to establish a secure communication connection between two TCP-based machines.
Reference: Mike Pastore and Emmett Dulaney, Security+ Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Alameda, Sybex, 2004, p 365

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45.

Evaluating cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files and log files illustrates which process?
- You should identify stateful packet filtering.
- You should identify host based intrusion detection.
- You should identify network based intrusion detection.
- You should identify file integrity auditing.
Correct Answer

A. You should identify file integrity auditing.

Explanation

The process of evaluating cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files, and log files is known as file integrity auditing. This process involves calculating and comparing hash values of files to ensure that they have not been tampered with or modified. By identifying file integrity auditing as the correct answer, it suggests that this process is specifically focused on verifying the integrity of files rather than other security measures such as stateful packet filtering, host-based intrusion detection, or network-based intrusion detection.

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46.

Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols?
- IPSec (Internet Protocol Security), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
- IPSec (Internet Protocol Security), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
- L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
- PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)
Correct Answer

A. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), L2TP (Layer Two Tunneling Protocol), and IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

Explanation

It's obvious that L2TP and PPTP are tunneling protocols because the word tunneling is in the acronyms for their name, but IPSec is also considered a tunneling protocol because it creates a secure tunnel connection.

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47.

Certkiller .com makes use of remote users to connect securely from their homes to the company network. Identify the encryption technology that will ensure that you are able to connect securely to the network?
- The PPTP will enable a secure connection.
- The IPSec will enable a secure connection.
- The PPPoE will enable a secure connection.
- The L2TP will enable a secure connection.
Correct Answer

A. The IPSec will enable a secure connection.

Explanation

The correct answer is "The IPSec will enable a secure connection." IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a widely-used encryption technology that provides secure communication over the internet. It ensures the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data transmitted between remote users and the company network. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol), PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet), and L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) are also used for secure connections, but IPSec is considered more secure and reliable.

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48.

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support e-mail communication using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)?
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 110 to all inbound and outbound connections.
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 110 to all inbound connections.
- UDP (User Datagram Protocol) port 25 to all inbound connections
- TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 25 to all inbound and outbound connections.
Correct Answer

A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) port 25 to all inbound and outbound connections.

Explanation

TCP port 25 is reserved for SMTP while port 110 is for POP3.

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49.

Which security does L2TP tunneling reply on?
- It will reply on L2F.
- It will reply on IPSec.
- It will reply on SSH.
- It will reply on SSL.
Correct Answer

A. It will reply on IPSec.

Explanation

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) tunneling relies on IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) for security. IPSec provides encryption and authentication for the data transmitted over the L2TP tunnel, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the communication. SSH (Secure Shell) and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) are also security protocols, but they are not specifically used for L2TP tunneling. Therefore, the correct answer is that L2TP tunneling relies on IPSec for security.

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CompTIA Security+ Practice Exam (3)

Which of the following represents the greatest benefit of using S/MIME /Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension)?

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Which of the following can be used to retain connection data, user information, history of sites visited, and can be used by attackers for spoofing an on-line identity?

What do you call the action when a person masquerades as a reputable hardware technician in order to pick up a server for repairs?

What is the scenario called that an attacker uses to persuade a user to execute an action to be successful?

Which types of attachments should be filtered from e-mails to minimize the danger of viruses?

Identify an efficient social engineering defensive strategy?

Which of the following is often used to encrypt e-mail messages?

What does a web client and server require in order for an SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) connection to be established between them automatically?

Which of the following can be used to track a user's browsing habits on the Internet?

What does the security administrator wants to prevent by ensuring that the users' password cannot be seen by passersby?

You are in the process of auditing the security position of the company and detect that users are able to access the accounting data of the company. How can this be solved?

Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols? (Choose two)

Which of the following steps in the SSL (Secure Socket Layer) protocol allows for client and server authentication, MAC (Mandatory Access Control) and encryption algorithm negotiation, and selection of cryptographic keys?

Which of the following protocols is used to secure web transactions?

Which of the following can be used to create a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

What is clearance into a confidential section known as that only permit access to certain data within that section?

Which of the following can be used to exploit the clear text nature of an Instant-Messaging session?

What can an attacker can determine which network services are enabled on a target system?

Where would a social engineering attack be most efficient? (Choose TWO)

A stranger enters the head offices of Certkiller .com pretending to be a communications technician. A packet sniffer is then connected to the network switch in the wiring closet and hidden behind the switch against a wall. This process is known as?

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSH (Secure Shell)?

What is the biggest benefit to using RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) for a multi-site VPN (Virtual Private Network) that supports a large number of remote users?

Which of the following is an alternative to using telnet?

What should be installed for HTTPS in order to function properly on a web site?

Which of the following can be used to authenticate and encrypt IP (Internet Protocol) traffic?

What can be used to make the information unreadable to those who don't have the correct key?

What can be done to stop the malicious code being carried out in e-mail clients?

What is the main DISADVANTAGE of using a third party mail relay?

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)?

Which of the following are used to prove where ActiveX controls originated from?

What will the SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) enabled server do first when a user clicks to browse a secure page?

Which of the following is responsible for displaying an install dialog box for an ActiveX component?

What is a possible cause of an SMTP server being the source of e-mail spam in a company?

With regard to viruses and hoaxes, which of the following is TRUE? (Choose the best answer)

Which of the following is the primary attribute associated with e-mail hoaxes?

What type of port scan is used to determine which ports are in a listening state and then performs a two way handshake?

Which of the following defines the ability to verify that an e-mail message received has not been modified in transit?

Which of the following is the greatest vulnerability of using Instant Messaging clients?

Identify the logs that will illustrate the unapproved usage attempts after the implementation of a file audit?

Identify the step that is often disregarded during an auditing process?

With which privileges are ActiveX control executed?

Identify the series of steps in the auditing process?

Which of the following is a possible technical impact of receiving large quantifies of spam?

Which of the following protocols is used to encrypt traffic between a web browser and web server?

Evaluating cryptographic hash functions of system executables, configuration files and log files illustrates which process?

Which of the following are VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols?

Certkiller .com makes use of remote users to connect securely from their homes to the company network. Identify the encryption technology that will ensure that you are able to connect securely to the network?

On a firewall, which ports must be open in order to support e-mail communication using SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)?

Which security does L2TP tunneling reply on?