CompTIA A+ 801 Prep Exam-a
CDI College
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following device cards goes into an AGP slot on a computer system board?
- A.
Sound
- B.
Memory
- C.
Audio
- D.
Video
Correct Answer
D. VideoExplanation
An AGP slot on a computer system board is specifically designed to accommodate a video card. This slot allows for high-speed communication between the video card and the computer's processor, enabling smooth and efficient video processing and display. Therefore, the correct answer is Video.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following should the technician verify FIRST if the customer reports that a laptop battery is not charging?
- A.
Check the power light on the AC adapter
- B.
Remove all unneeded peripherals
- C.
Swap the laptop battery for a new or refurbished battery
- D.
Check the backlight for functionality
Correct Answer
A. Check the power light on the AC adapterExplanation
The technician should verify the power light on the AC adapter first because it indicates whether the adapter is receiving power and functioning properly. If the power light is not on, it suggests that there may be an issue with the adapter, which could be the cause of the laptop battery not charging. By checking the power light, the technician can determine if the adapter needs to be replaced or if there is another underlying issue causing the battery charging problem.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following provides data redundancy by writing data to two disks simultaneously?
- A.
RAID 1
- B.
RAID 5
- C.
RAID 2
- D.
RAID 10
Correct Answer
A. RAID 1Explanation
RAID 1 provides data redundancy by writing data to two disks simultaneously. In this configuration, the data is mirrored on both disks, ensuring that if one disk fails, the other disk can still provide the necessary data. This redundancy helps to protect against data loss and increases the overall reliability of the storage system.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A user reports a loud noise from their desktop PC. Which of the following would be suspected as a source? (Select TWO).
- A.
Cooling Fan
- B.
Power Supply
- C.
CPU
- D.
Memory Bank
Correct Answer(s)
A. Cooling Fan
B. Power SupplyExplanation
The cooling fan and power supply are the most likely sources of a loud noise in a desktop PC. The cooling fan can become noisy if it is dirty, damaged, or experiencing a mechanical issue. The power supply can also produce noise if it is faulty or if the internal components are malfunctioning. The CPU and memory bank are less likely to be the source of a loud noise as they do not typically produce audible sounds.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following can be hot-swappable?
- A.
HDD
- B.
Tape
- C.
USB
- D.
DVD-RW
Correct Answer
C. USBExplanation
USB devices can be hot-swappable, meaning they can be connected or disconnected from a computer while it is still running. This is because USB devices are designed to be plug-and-play, allowing for easy and convenient connection and disconnection without the need to restart the computer. On the other hand, HDD, tape, and DVD-RW are not typically hot-swappable, as they require the computer to be powered off before connecting or disconnecting them to avoid potential data loss or damage.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following adapter types will use a RJ-45 connector?
- A.
NIC
- B.
HDD
- C.
Dial-up Modem
- D.
Sound
Correct Answer
A. NICExplanation
A NIC (Network Interface Card) is the correct answer because it is the hardware component that allows a computer to connect to a network. It typically uses an RJ-45 connector, which is a standard connector for Ethernet cables. This connector is used to connect the NIC to a network switch or router using an Ethernet cable. On the other hand, HDD (Hard Disk Drive), Dial-up Modem, and Sound adapters do not use RJ-45 connectors for their connections.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following ports is BEST to use when adding a network printer in Windows XP?
- A.
TCP/IP
- B.
USB
- C.
I/O Port
- D.
Lpt - 1
Correct Answer
A. TCP/IPExplanation
The correct answer is TCP/IP because it is the most commonly used protocol for connecting devices to a network. When adding a network printer in Windows XP, using TCP/IP allows the computer to communicate with the printer over the network. This enables the printer to be accessed and shared by multiple users on the same network.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a computer is connected to a network device but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCPserver?
- A.
169.254.10.10
- B.
172.45.25.1
- C.
192.168.0.0
- D.
192.169.1.254
Correct Answer
A. 169.254.10.10Explanation
If a computer is connected to a network device but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server, the technician would see the IP address 169.254.10.10. This is because when a device is unable to obtain an IP address through DHCP, it will automatically assign itself an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. This range is reserved for link-local addresses, which are used when a device cannot connect to a DHCP server or obtain an IP address through other means.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following commands is BEST to use when testing remote connectivity to a host?
- A.
Ping
- B.
Tracert
- C.
Nslookup
- D.
Nbstat
Correct Answer
A. PingExplanation
Ping is the best command to use when testing remote connectivity to a host. Ping sends a small packet of data to the host and waits for a response. If the host responds, it indicates that there is a network connection and the host is reachable. Ping is a simple and effective tool for troubleshooting network connectivity issues. Tracert is used to trace the route packets take to reach a destination, Nslookup is used to query DNS servers for information about a domain, and nbstat is used to display NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT) information.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a wireless network?
- A.
SSID Broadcast
- B.
BSSID Number
- C.
MAC Address
- D.
WEP
Correct Answer
A. SSID BroadcastExplanation
Disabling SSID Broadcast can help prevent access to a wireless network. When the SSID (Service Set Identifier) is broadcasted, it allows nearby devices to easily detect and connect to the network. By disabling this broadcast, the network becomes hidden and users need to manually enter the SSID to connect. This adds an extra layer of security as it makes the network less visible to potential attackers.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following wireless protocols requires the use of MIMO antennas?
- A.
802.11n
- B.
802.11g
- C.
802.11b
- D.
802.11a
Correct Answer
A. 802.11nExplanation
802.11n is the correct answer because it is a wireless protocol that utilizes MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) antennas. MIMO technology allows for multiple data streams to be transmitted and received simultaneously, increasing the overall data throughput and improving the wireless network's performance and reliability. The other wireless protocols listed (802.11g, 802.11b, 802.11a) do not require the use of MIMO antennas.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In which of the following steps of the troubleshooting theory is it important to perform backups?
- A.
Identify the problem
- B.
Find a solution
- C.
Re-create the problem
- D.
Test the theory
Correct Answer
A. Identify the problemExplanation
Performing backups is important in the step of identifying the problem because it ensures that any data or settings that may be lost or altered during the troubleshooting process are backed up and can be restored if needed. This step involves gathering information about the issue and analyzing it, so having backups in place helps to minimize the risk of data loss and allows for a more thorough investigation of the problem.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following devices will allow a technician to use a single set of input devices on several computers?
- A.
KVM
- B.
Smart Card
- C.
SCSI Adapter
- D.
Bar coder reader
Correct Answer
A. KVMExplanation
A KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) switch is a device that allows a technician to use a single set of input devices (keyboard, monitor, and mouse) to control multiple computers. It allows the technician to switch between the computers without physically disconnecting and reconnecting the input devices. This is useful in situations where multiple computers need to be managed or accessed simultaneously, such as in a server room or a data center.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following are locations where a computer virus could exist and then further infect a computer? (Select TWO).
- A.
Boot sector
- B.
Optical media
- C.
USB Mouse
- D.
Ethernet cabling
Correct Answer(s)
A. Boot sector
B. Optical mediaExplanation
A computer virus can exist and infect a computer in the boot sector and optical media. The boot sector is the first sector of a computer's hard drive, and viruses can hide in this area to gain control during the boot process. Optical media such as CDs or DVDs can also carry viruses if they have been infected with malicious software. USB mouse and Ethernet cabling are not locations where a virus can exist and infect a computer.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A technician is trying to install an OS to a remote PC without the use of physical media. Which of the following is used to perform this task?
- A.
PXE Boot environment
- B.
USB port
- C.
Telnet
- D.
FTP
Correct Answer
A. PXE Boot environmentExplanation
The PXE Boot environment is used to install an operating system to a remote PC without the need for physical media. PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows the computer to boot from a network server rather than a local hard drive or CD/DVD. This enables the technician to remotely deploy the OS image to the PC over the network, making it a convenient and efficient method of installation.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following has the LEAST amount of storage capacity?
- A.
FDD
- B.
HDD
- C.
SSD
- D.
USB drive
Correct Answer
A. FDDExplanation
The FDD (Floppy Disk Drive) has the least amount of storage capacity compared to the other options listed. Floppy disks typically have a storage capacity ranging from 1.44 MB to 2.88 MB, which is significantly lower than the storage capacities of HDDs, SSDs, and USB drives. HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) can store several terabytes of data, SSDs (Solid State Drives) can also store large amounts of data, and USB drives can have varying storage capacities, ranging from a few gigabytes to several terabytes. Therefore, the FDD has the least amount of storage capacity among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A 400GB IDE hard disk drive with a Molex connector uses how many volts?
- A.
12
- B.
3.5
- C.
5
- D.
7.5
Correct Answer
A. 12Explanation
The Molex connector is commonly used for power supply in computer hardware, including hard disk drives. It provides a voltage of 12 volts, which is necessary to power the IDE hard disk drive. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following cable types uses an RJ-45 connector, and would MOST commonly be used in an environment with high EMI or RFI?
- A.
STP
- B.
UTP
- C.
F/O
- D.
Co-axial
Correct Answer
A. STPExplanation
STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cable uses an RJ-45 connector and is designed to provide protection against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). It has a shielding layer that helps to minimize the impact of external electrical noise, making it suitable for environments with high EMI or RFI. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable, on the other hand, does not have this shielding and is more susceptible to interference. F/O (Fiber Optic) and Co-axial cables are not typically used with an RJ-45 connector and do not provide the same level of protection against EMI or RFI.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is the function of a power inverter?
- A.
Converts AC to DC
- B.
Provides a regulated AC voltage
- C.
Steps down AC voltages
- D.
Provides a backup power source
Correct Answer
A. Converts AC to DCExplanation
A power inverter is a device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). It is commonly used in situations where DC power is required, such as in solar power systems or in vehicles to power electronic devices. By converting the AC power from a power source into DC power, the inverter allows for the safe and efficient use of DC-powered devices. Therefore, the function of a power inverter is to convert AC to DC.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following locations will allow a user to change the Windows Vista Start Menu to resemble the Windows XP Start Menu?
- A.
Right-click Start Menu/Properties/Start Menu tab
- B.
Control Panel/User Accounts
- C.
Start/All programs/Accessories/Ease of Access
- D.
Right-click Desktop/Personalize
Correct Answer
A. Right-click Start Menu/Properties/Start Menu tabExplanation
The correct answer is "Right-click Start Menu/Properties/Start Menu tab". This option allows the user to access the properties of the Start Menu in Windows Vista and make changes to its appearance. By right-clicking on the Start Menu, selecting Properties, and then navigating to the Start Menu tab, the user can customize the Start Menu to resemble the Windows XP Start Menu.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner?
- A.
Laser
- B.
Thermal
- C.
Impact
- D.
Dot Matrix
Correct Answer
A. LaserExplanation
Laser printers require the use of toner. Toner is a powder-like substance that is used in laser printers to create images and text on the paper. The toner is transferred onto the paper using a combination of heat and static electricity. This process allows for high-quality and precise printing. Thermal printers, on the other hand, use heat to create images and do not require toner. Impact printers and dot matrix printers use ink or ribbons to create images on the paper.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A user reports that their machine will not power up. The technician has already tested the wall outlet and the power cord, which are functioning properly.Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A.
Test the machine with a power supply tester.
- B.
Test the machine on a UPS battery backup.
- C.
Plug the machine into a different wall outlet.
- D.
Check to make sure the motherboard is seated correctly
Correct Answer
A. Test the machine with a power supply tester.Explanation
The technician should test the machine with a power supply tester next. Since the wall outlet and power cord have already been tested and found to be functioning properly, the issue is likely with the power supply within the machine itself. By using a power supply tester, the technician can determine if the power supply is faulty and needs to be replaced. This step will help narrow down the cause of the problem and guide the technician in resolving the issue.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following cable types uses an RJ-45 connector and is MOST commonly used in an Ethernet network?
- A.
UTP
- B.
STP
- C.
Co-ax
- D.
Fiber
Correct Answer
A. UTPExplanation
UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable uses an RJ-45 connector and is the most commonly used cable type in an Ethernet network. UTP cables consist of four pairs of twisted wires, which help to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk. The RJ-45 connector is specifically designed to connect UTP cables to network devices, such as computers, switches, and routers. UTP cables are cost-effective, easy to install, and can support various Ethernet speeds, making them the preferred choice for Ethernet networks.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is the native resolution of a WUXGA monitor?
- A.
1920 X 1200
- B.
1900 X 1220
- C.
1620 X 1000
- D.
1020 X 800
Correct Answer
A. 1920 X 1200Explanation
The native resolution of a WUXGA monitor is 1920 X 1200. Native resolution refers to the maximum resolution at which a monitor can display images without distortion or stretching. In the case of a WUXGA monitor, it has a resolution of 1920 pixels horizontally and 1200 pixels vertically, resulting in a widescreen display with a 16:10 aspect ratio.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following should be replaced when performing laser printer preventative maintenance? (Select THREE).
- A.
Transfer Bar
- B.
Pick up rollers
- C.
Fuser
- D.
Drum
Correct Answer(s)
A. Transfer Bar
B. Pick up rollers
C. FuserExplanation
During laser printer preventative maintenance, three components that should be replaced are the transfer bar, pick up rollers, and fuser. The transfer bar is responsible for transferring the toner from the drum to the paper, and over time it can become worn or damaged. Pick up rollers are responsible for feeding the paper into the printer, and they can become dirty or worn out with use. The fuser is responsible for melting the toner onto the paper, and it can degrade over time, leading to poor print quality. Replacing these components ensures that the printer continues to operate smoothly and produces high-quality prints.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following boot devices would a technician use for RIS?
- A.
Network
- B.
ZIP
- C.
HDD
- D.
Tape
Correct Answer
A. NetworkExplanation
A technician would use the network as the boot device for RIS (Remote Installation Services). RIS allows for the installation of an operating system over a network connection, eliminating the need for physical media such as CDs or DVDs. By booting from the network, the technician can access the necessary installation files and initiate the remote installation process.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The smallest unit of data that a Windows operating system can access is called a:
- A.
File
- B.
Folder
- C.
Volume
- D.
Partition
Correct Answer
A. FileExplanation
A file is the smallest unit of data that a Windows operating system can access. It is a collection of related information or data that is stored and organized together. Files can contain text, images, videos, or any other type of data. They are used to store and retrieve information on a computer system.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following provides the LOWEST level of wireless security protection?
- A.
SSID disabled
- B.
WEP
- C.
Radius
- D.
WPA
Correct Answer
A. SSID disabledExplanation
Disabling the SSID (Service Set Identifier) provides the lowest level of wireless security protection. The SSID is a unique identifier for a wireless network, and when it is disabled, the network is not broadcasted, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to detect and access the network. However, it is important to note that disabling the SSID alone is not sufficient for ensuring complete security, as other security measures like encryption should also be implemented.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A user reports their laptop has just been powered on and there is no display, but the power indicator is still on.The technician suspects that the laptop display is bad.Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed to confirm the display is bad?
- A.
Plug an external monitor into the video output port, and then Fn-toggle key several times.
- B.
Press and hold the Fn-toggle key several times.
- C.
Change the brightness of the display to see if anything appears on the laptop.
- D.
Press the power button until the unit shuts down, then press and hold the Fn-toggle key as power is reapplied.
Correct Answer
A. Plug an external monitor into the video output port, and then Fn-toggle key several times.Explanation
To confirm if the laptop display is bad, the technician should plug an external monitor into the video output port and then use the Fn-toggle key several times. This troubleshooting step will help determine if the issue lies with the laptop's display or with other components. By connecting an external monitor, if the display appears on the external monitor but not on the laptop screen, it indicates that the laptop display is faulty.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following slots is used for a graphics card?
- A.
AGP
- B.
AMR
- C.
SCSI
- D.
CNR
Correct Answer
A. AGPExplanation
AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for connecting a graphics card to a computer's motherboard. AGP provides a faster data transfer rate compared to other slots like AMR, SCSI, and CNR, making it ideal for handling the high bandwidth requirements of graphics cards. AMR (Audio Modem Riser) is used for audio and modem cards, SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is used for connecting external storage devices, and CNR (Communication and Networking Riser) is used for networking and audio devices.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is a protocol that does not depend on acknowledgement of receipt from the sender?
- A.
UDP
- B.
STP
- C.
TCP
- D.
IP
Correct Answer
A. UDPExplanation
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a protocol that does not depend on acknowledgement of receipt from the sender. Unlike TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), UDP does not establish a connection or require the receiver to acknowledge the receipt of data packets. This makes UDP a faster and more lightweight protocol, but also less reliable as it does not guarantee the delivery or order of packets.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following video adapter supports a potential MAXIMUM throughput of 4Gbps?
- A.
PCIe
- B.
PCI
- C.
AGPe
- D.
VGA
Correct Answer
A. PCIeExplanation
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the correct answer because it is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard that supports a potential maximum throughput of 4Gbps. PCIe is commonly used for connecting video cards and other high-bandwidth devices to the motherboard of a computer.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following is a gateway for a computer with an IP address of 10.31.64.12 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
- A.
10.31.64.1
- B.
255.255.255.0
- C.
10.31.64.245
- D.
10.31.1.1
Correct Answer
A. 10.31.64.1Explanation
The correct answer is 10.31.64.1. In this question, the given IP address is 10.31.64.12 and the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. The subnet mask determines the network portion of the IP address, and in this case, it is 10.31. Therefore, any IP address that starts with 10.31 is within the same network. The gateway is the IP address that allows the computer to communicate with devices outside of its network. Among the given options, only 10.31.64.1 falls within the same network as the computer's IP address, making it the correct gateway.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following features is in Windows Vista but not Windows XP?
- A.
UAC
- B.
64-bit processing
- C.
Folder encryption
- D.
Dual Monitor Support
Correct Answer
A. UACExplanation
UAC stands for User Account Control, which is a security feature introduced in Windows Vista. It helps to prevent unauthorized changes to the system by notifying the user and requiring their permission before allowing certain actions to be performed. This feature was not present in Windows XP, making it a feature exclusive to Windows Vista.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM data rate of IEEE 1394a?
- A.
400Mbps
- B.
100Mbps
- C.
200Mbps
- D.
800Mbps
Correct Answer
A. 400MbpsExplanation
The maximum data rate of IEEE 1394a is 400Mbps. IEEE 1394a, also known as FireWire 400, is a high-speed serial bus standard used for connecting devices such as computers, digital cameras, and external hard drives. It provides a data transfer rate of up to 400Mbps, making it suitable for transferring large files quickly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following communication devices needs to have a subscription to a service provider for Internet access?
- A.
Cellular WAN
- B.
Bluetooth
- C.
IR
- D.
Microwave LAN
Correct Answer
A. Cellular WANExplanation
Cellular WAN needs to have a subscription to a service provider for Internet access because it relies on cellular networks to connect to the Internet. Unlike Bluetooth, IR, and Microwave LAN, which are short-range communication technologies, Cellular WAN uses mobile networks to access the Internet, requiring a subscription to a service provider to establish and maintain the connection.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is considered social engineering?
- A.
Entering a facility by posing as a telecommunications contractor
- B.
Forging a login account on a server in order to gain access to a system
- C.
Posting confidential information on a public website
- D.
Sending a computer virus by email
Correct Answer
A. Entering a facility by posing as a telecommunications contractorExplanation
Entering a facility by posing as a telecommunications contractor is considered social engineering because it involves manipulating people's trust and exploiting their vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access to a secure location. By posing as a trusted contractor, the individual deceives the facility's staff and gains physical access to sensitive areas, potentially allowing them to steal valuable information or carry out malicious activities. This type of social engineering attack relies on psychological manipulation rather than technical means to breach security measures.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Utilizing a WSUS or testing new updates on a non-critical PC is an example of which of the following?
- A.
Patch management
- B.
Virtualization
- C.
A host-based firewall
- D.
Application base lining
Correct Answer
A. Patch managementExplanation
Utilizing a WSUS (Windows Server Update Services) or testing new updates on a non-critical PC is an example of patch management. Patch management involves the process of managing and applying updates, patches, and fixes to software and systems in order to keep them up to date and secure. By using a WSUS or testing updates on a non-critical PC, an organization can ensure that updates are tested and deployed effectively, minimizing the risk of disruptions or vulnerabilities in critical systems.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following cable types supports a transmission speed no greater than 100 Mbps per the IEEE specification?
- A.
CAT5
- B.
CAT2
- C.
CAT1
- D.
CAT3
Correct Answer
A. CAT5Explanation
CAT5 is the correct answer because it supports a transmission speed no greater than 100 Mbps, as per the IEEE specification. CAT2, CAT1, and CAT3 do not meet this requirement as they have lower transmission speeds.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following RAM types is used to resolve certain memory errors?
- A.
ECC
- B.
Non-ECC
- C.
Pariety
- D.
Non-pariety
Correct Answer
A. ECCExplanation
ECC (Error Correcting Code) RAM is used to resolve certain memory errors. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors that occur during data storage or transmission. ECC RAM includes additional bits for error detection and correction, allowing it to identify and fix errors automatically. This type of RAM is commonly used in servers and critical systems where data integrity is crucial. Non-ECC RAM, on the other hand, does not have error correction capabilities and is more commonly used in consumer-grade computers where data integrity is not as critical.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A first level help desk support technician receives a call from a customer and works with the customer to resolve the call for several minutes unsuccessfully.Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
- A.
Escalate the call to another technician.
- B.
Explain to the customer that the problem cannot be resolved and end the call.
- C.
Explain to the customer that they receive a call back when someone more qualified is available.
- D.
Continue working with the customer until the problem is resolved.
Correct Answer
A. Escalate the call to another technician.Explanation
The technician should escalate the call to another technician because they have already spent several minutes unsuccessfully trying to resolve the issue. By escalating the call, the technician can ensure that the customer receives the necessary support from someone with more expertise or experience in resolving the problem. This will help to provide a more efficient and effective resolution for the customer.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following IP addresses is in a class A range?
- A.
15.26.2.1
- B.
192.168.1.12
- C.
168.2.23.6
- D.
137.24.25.244
Correct Answer
A. 15.26.2.1Explanation
The IP address 15.26.2.1 is in a class A range because it falls within the range of 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0. In classful addressing, class A IP addresses have the first octet in the range of 1 to 126, which means that the given IP address is in a class A range.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following must be performed when installing a touch screen?
- A.
CALIBRATION
- B.
Disable the mouse
- C.
Disable the keyboard
- D.
Reboot to Safe mode
Correct Answer
A. CALIBRATIONExplanation
When installing a touch screen, calibration must be performed. Calibration is the process of aligning the touch screen with the display to ensure accurate and precise touch input. This is necessary to ensure that the touch screen responds correctly to touch gestures and accurately registers the user's input. Disabling the mouse or keyboard or rebooting to Safe mode are not necessary steps for installing a touch screen and do not directly relate to the calibration process.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following cable types is required for a BNC connector?
- A.
Co-axial
- B.
STP
- C.
UDP
- D.
Fiber
Correct Answer
A. Co-axialExplanation
A BNC connector is commonly used with coaxial cables. Coaxial cables have a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. The BNC connector is designed to provide a secure and reliable connection for coaxial cables, making it the required cable type for a BNC connector. STP, UDP, and fiber cables are not compatible with BNC connectors.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A user reports that when trying to input data using a touch screen, items other than the ones being touched are displayed. Which of the following would be theFIRST action to take?
- A.
Ensure the user has calibrated the screen.
- B.
Have the user run a complete virus scan.
- C.
Have the user check to see if the touch screen control cable is loose.
- D.
Ensure the users PC has the latest touch screen drivers installed.
Correct Answer
A. Ensure the user has calibrated the screen.Explanation
The first action to take when a user reports that items other than the ones being touched are displayed on a touch screen is to ensure that the user has calibrated the screen. Calibration is the process of aligning the touch screen with the display, and if it is not properly calibrated, it can cause incorrect inputs and display of items. By ensuring that the user has calibrated the screen, any potential issues with misalignment can be identified and resolved, which may fix the problem of incorrect items being displayed on the touch screen.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following memory modules uses a 240-pin connector?
- A.
DDR2
- B.
DOSIMM
- C.
DDR
- D.
DDR3
Correct Answer
A. DDR2Explanation
DDR2 memory modules use a 240-pin connector. DDR2 stands for Double Data Rate 2, and it is a type of memory module commonly used in computers. The 240-pin connector refers to the number of pins on the module that connect it to the motherboard. This type of memory module is an improved version of DDR, offering faster and more efficient data transfer rates. DDR3 is another type of memory module, but it uses a different connector with 240 pins. DOSIMM is not a recognized memory module, so it is not the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following chipsets is responsible for controlling the data flow between the RAM and the processor?
- A.
Northbridge
- B.
DMA
- C.
CMOS
- D.
Southbridge
Correct Answer
A. NorthbridgeExplanation
The Northbridge chipset is responsible for controlling the data flow between the RAM and the processor. It acts as a bridge connecting the CPU, memory, and graphics card. The Northbridge handles the faster communication between the CPU and RAM, allowing for efficient data transfer and improving overall system performance. The DMA (Direct Memory Access) is a technique used for data transfer between devices without involving the CPU, CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) is a type of memory used to store BIOS settings, and the Southbridge chipset is responsible for controlling the data flow between the CPU and other peripheral devices.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The most effective use of clusters on a hard drive is in which of the following file systems?
- A.
NTFS
- B.
FAT32
- C.
ExFAT
- D.
FAT16
Correct Answer
A. NTFSExplanation
NTFS (New Technology File System) is the most effective file system for utilizing clusters on a hard drive. NTFS uses a more efficient allocation method for storing and organizing files, allowing for better disk space utilization and reduced fragmentation. It supports larger cluster sizes, which are beneficial for large files, and provides advanced features like file and folder permissions, encryption, and compression. In contrast, FAT32, exFAT, and FAT16 have limitations in terms of maximum file size, cluster size, and lack advanced features, making NTFS the preferred choice for efficient cluster usage.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following is the chipset used by the CPU to communicate with the system memory?
- A.
Northbridge
- B.
CMOS
- C.
BIOS
- D.
Southbridge
Correct Answer
A. NorthbridgeExplanation
The Northbridge is the correct answer because it is the chipset responsible for facilitating communication between the CPU and the system memory. It acts as a bridge, allowing data to be transferred quickly and efficiently between the two components. The Northbridge also handles other important tasks such as controlling the graphics card and connecting to the Southbridge chipset.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A technician is installing an old Windows 2000 application on a Windows 7 workstation. Which of the following will allow the application to be installed correctly?
- A.
Install in compatibility mode
- B.
Application Upgrades
- C.
Disable UAC
- D.
Run Windows Upgrade Advisor
Correct Answer
A. Install in compatibility modeExplanation
Installing the old Windows 2000 application in compatibility mode allows it to be installed correctly on the Windows 7 workstation. Compatibility mode enables the application to run using settings from an earlier version of Windows, in this case, Windows 2000. This ensures that any compatibility issues or incompatibilities between the application and the newer operating system are addressed, allowing the application to function properly on the Windows 7 workstation.Rate this question:
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