Clinical Orientation Post Test 2011

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Orientation Quizzes & Trivia

This test will evaluate your understanding of the material learned in Clinical Orientation.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How you say something is more important than what you say.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the manner in which something is expressed holds more significance than the actual content of the message. This implies that the tone, body language, and overall delivery of a message can greatly impact its effectiveness and how it is received by others. It emphasizes the importance of effective communication skills and the understanding that the way we convey information can influence the response and interpretation of the message.

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  • 2. 

    What are the key words we can use that will push our patient satisfaction scores close to the 75th percentile?

    • A.

      “Hello, my name is…

    • B.

      For your safety, I am going to check your wristband.

    • C.

      How is your pain today?

    • D.

      Is there anything else I can do for you?

    Correct Answer
    D. Is there anything else I can do for you?
    Explanation
    Asking "Is there anything else I can do for you?" is a key phrase that can potentially improve patient satisfaction scores. This question shows that the healthcare provider is attentive and willing to go above and beyond to meet the patient's needs. It demonstrates a commitment to providing excellent care and addressing any additional concerns or requests the patient may have, which can contribute to higher satisfaction levels.

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  • 3. 

    Showing care and compassion for the customer includes seeing things through their eyes.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that in order to show care and compassion for the customer, it is important to understand their perspective and empathize with their needs and concerns. This means putting oneself in the customer's shoes and viewing the situation from their point of view. By doing so, customer service representatives can better understand the customer's emotions and provide appropriate support and solutions.

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  • 4. 

    The following are the steps for service recovery:

    • A.

      Listen, Fix the Problem, Report the Problem, Thank you

    • B.

      Listen, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow Up

    • C.

      Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow up

    Correct Answer
    C. Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow up
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow up." This sequence of steps is considered to be the most effective approach for service recovery. Listening allows the customer to express their concerns and feel heard. Apologizing acknowledges any mistakes or inconveniences caused. Fixing the problem addresses the issue at hand and ensures a resolution. Thanking the customer shows appreciation for their feedback and patience. Finally, following up demonstrates a commitment to customer satisfaction and provides an opportunity to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved.

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  • 5. 

    Some of the care dimensions of importance to customers are:

    • A.

      Timeliness, accuracy, efficiency.

    • B.

      Regularity, reactivity, recognition.

    • C.

      Accessibility, attitude.

    • D.

      A and c

    Correct Answer
    D. A and c
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a and c" because the dimensions of importance to customers listed in the options are timeliness, accuracy, efficiency, accessibility, and attitude. Therefore, options "a and c" cover all the mentioned dimensions, making it the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    During individualized rounding we form our care plans based on:

    • A.

      How our schedule is going

    • B.

      What the patient says is their personal preferences

    • C.

      When the discharge will be

    • D.

      To watch their TV

    Correct Answer
    B. What the patient says is their personal preferences
    Explanation
    During individualized rounding, forming care plans based on what the patient says is their personal preferences is important because it allows healthcare providers to tailor their care to meet the specific needs and desires of each patient. This approach ensures that patients feel heard and respected, and it promotes patient-centered care. By considering the patient's personal preferences, healthcare providers can make decisions that align with the patient's values and goals, ultimately leading to better outcomes and patient satisfaction.

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  • 7. 

    Hourly rounding has an effect on our Key Result Areas

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hourly rounding refers to the practice of healthcare providers checking on patients regularly, typically every hour, to address their needs, ensure their comfort, and prevent any potential complications. This proactive approach has been shown to improve patient satisfaction, reduce call light use, decrease falls, and enhance communication between patients and healthcare providers. As a result, it directly impacts key result areas such as patient experience, safety, and quality of care. Therefore, the statement "Hourly rounding has an effect on our Key Result Areas" is true.

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  • 8. 

    Regular visits with a  patient provides:

    • A.

      Clarity of the plan with them.

    • B.

      Reassurance that we are paying attention to what they need.

    • C.

      Prevention of unexpected events.

    • D.

      Patient safety.

    • E.

      Support and connection with the patient.

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the above
    Explanation
    Regular visits with a patient provide clarity of the plan with them, reassurance that we are paying attention to what they need, prevention of unexpected events, patient safety, and support and connection with the patient. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct and can be considered as the benefits of regular visits with a patient.

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  • 9. 

    The 3 P’s are:

    • A.

      Pain, pressure, pleasure.

    • B.

      Potty, pain, position.

    • C.

      Presentation, pain, position.

    Correct Answer
    B. Potty, pain, position.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Potty, pain, position." This answer aligns with the previous statements that mention "potty" as one of the P's. Additionally, it is logical to consider "pain" as another factor to be aware of, as pain can indicate a problem or discomfort. Lastly, "position" is a relevant factor to consider when it comes to bodily functions and ensuring proper alignment for optimal functioning.

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  • 10. 

     Some of the aspects of patient care affected by age are:

    • A.

      Nutrition

    • B.

      Safety measures

    • C.

      Pain control

    • D.

      Choice and control.

    • E.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all of the mentioned aspects of patient care (nutrition, safety measures, pain control, choice and control) can be affected by age. As patients age, their nutritional needs may change, and they may require different safety measures to prevent falls or other accidents. Older patients may also experience more pain and require specialized pain control methods. Additionally, as patients age, they may have different preferences and desires regarding their care, requiring healthcare providers to consider their choices and provide them with a sense of control.

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  • 11. 

    The proper way to greet a patient is:

    • A.

      “Hi Honey, I’m your lab tech, give me your arm.”

    • B.

      “Okay, I’m here to get your blood”

    • C.

      “Hello, I’m Sarah the laboratory tech, I am here to draw your blood, will you tell me your name and birth date?

    • D.

      “Hey man, how you doin’?”

    Correct Answer
    C. “Hello, I’m Sarah the laboratory tech, I am here to draw your blood, will you tell me your name and birth date?
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the most appropriate and professional way to greet a patient. It includes introducing oneself, stating the purpose of the visit, and asking for necessary information. This approach shows respect for the patient, establishes clear communication, and ensures accurate identification. The other options lack professionalism, use informal language, or do not prioritize patient identification.

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  • 12. 

    Nutritional needs are increased in the elderly patient even though subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass are decreased.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    As people age, their subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass tend to decrease. However, despite this decrease, the nutritional needs of elderly patients actually increase. This is because aging can lead to changes in metabolism, digestion, and absorption of nutrients. Additionally, elderly individuals may also have increased nutrient requirements due to certain health conditions or medications. Therefore, it is important to ensure that elderly patients receive adequate nutrition to support their overall health and well-being.

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  • 13. 

    Middle adult patients may be experiencing:

    • A.

      Launching of young adults children.

    • B.

      Caring for elderly parents.

    • C.

      Financial investment losses.

    • D.

      Onset of medical condition.

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Middle adult patients may be experiencing a combination of launching young adult children, caring for elderly parents, financial investment losses, and the onset of a medical condition. This stage of life often involves the transition of children leaving home and starting their own lives, which can bring both joy and challenges. Additionally, middle-aged adults may find themselves taking on the responsibility of caring for their aging parents, which can be emotionally and physically demanding. Financial investment losses can also be a common experience during this stage, as individuals may face economic challenges or setbacks. Lastly, middle-aged adults may also begin to experience the onset of medical conditions, as this is a time when certain health issues may start to manifest.

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  • 14. 

    The old elderly (over age 80) most wants care and treatment:

    • A.

      By young staff persons.

    • B.

      From those who they can hear

    • C.

      By anyone who will feed them and bathe them

    • D.

      With dignity and respect

    • E.

      With care management and recuperative treatments

    Correct Answer
    D. With dignity and respect
    Explanation
    The old elderly (over age 80) most want care and treatment with dignity and respect. This is because as individuals age, they may become more vulnerable and dependent on others for their daily needs. Treating them with dignity and respect ensures that their autonomy and self-worth are upheld, promoting their overall well-being and quality of life. It also helps to preserve their sense of dignity and allows them to maintain their independence as much as possible. Providing care and treatment in a respectful manner acknowledges their worth and affirms their value as individuals.

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  • 15. 

    Ordinary citizens have access to Advocate hospitals' record of success or failure at treating patients with specific conditions.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ordinary citizens have access to Advocate hospitals' record of success or failure at treating patients with specific conditions. This means that the general public can obtain information about the performance of Advocate hospitals in treating patients with specific conditions. This information allows ordinary citizens to make informed decisions about their healthcare choices and enables them to assess the quality of care provided by Advocate hospitals.

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  • 16. 

    Heart failure and pneumonia are two of the conditions monitored for quality as well as:

    • A.

      Heart attack, surgical care, call light response time.

    • B.

      Surgical care, heart attack, and deep vein thrombosis prevention.

    • C.

      Heart attack, stroke, and bathroom assistance.

    Correct Answer
    B. Surgical care, heart attack, and deep vein thrombosis prevention.
    Explanation
    Heart failure and pneumonia are two conditions that are monitored for quality in healthcare. In addition to these, surgical care, heart attack, and deep vein thrombosis prevention are also important areas that are monitored for quality. This means that healthcare providers closely track and assess the care provided in these areas to ensure that patients receive the best possible outcomes. Monitoring and improving surgical care helps to reduce complications and ensure patient safety during surgical procedures. Monitoring heart attack care helps to ensure timely and effective treatment for patients experiencing a heart attack. Deep vein thrombosis prevention involves measures to prevent blood clots in the veins, which can be a serious complication in hospitalized patients.

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  • 17. 

    Health outcome monitoring is important because:

    • A.

      We want to know we are excellent.

    • B.

      We want to avoid variations in care related to time, region, and population.

    • C.

      We like to change our regimens from time to time.

    • D.

      We need to keep up with the competition between healthcare organizations.

    Correct Answer
    B. We want to avoid variations in care related to time, region, and population.
    Explanation
    Health outcome monitoring is important because it allows us to identify and address any variations in care that may exist based on factors such as time, region, and population. By monitoring health outcomes, we can ensure that all individuals receive the same level of care regardless of these factors, promoting equity and quality in healthcare. This helps to improve overall healthcare delivery and outcomes for patients.

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  • 18. 

     Health Outcomes are:

    • A.

      Based on scientific discovery

    • B.

      Quality measurement of treatment for specific conditions.

    • C.

      Nationally reported.

    • D.

      Available to anyone on the internet.

    • E.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Health outcomes are a comprehensive measure of the effectiveness and quality of healthcare. They are based on scientific discovery as they are derived from research and evidence-based practices. Health outcomes also involve quality measurement of treatment for specific conditions, which means evaluating the effectiveness and success of treatments for different illnesses. These outcomes are nationally reported, meaning that they are collected and shared at a national level to provide a broader understanding of healthcare performance. Additionally, health outcomes are available to anyone on the internet, ensuring transparency and accessibility for individuals seeking information about healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 19. 

     Risk factors for falls include:

    • A.

      Depression, administration of antiepileptic and benzodiazepine medications.

    • B.

      Impulsivity, confusion, altered elimination

    • C.

      Gender (male), dizziness/vertigo and compromised ability to rise from a sitting position

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the mentioned risk factors for falls, including depression, administration of antiepileptic and benzodiazepine medications, impulsivity, confusion, altered elimination, gender (male), dizziness/vertigo, and compromised ability to rise from a sitting position, contribute to the likelihood of falls.

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  • 20. 

     The Get-Up and Go test assesses for patients at high risk for falls.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Get-Up and Go test is a commonly used assessment tool to evaluate a patient's risk of falling. It involves measuring the time taken for a patient to stand up from a chair, walk a short distance, turn around, and sit back down. This test helps healthcare professionals identify patients who may have balance or mobility issues, which puts them at a higher risk of falling. Therefore, the statement that the Get-Up and Go test assesses patients at high risk for falls is true.

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  • 21. 

     Fall assessment is completed

    • A.

      Every shift

    • B.

      Daily

    • C.

      Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted.

    Correct Answer
    C. Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted." This means that a fall assessment is completed every 12 hours, regardless of whether the patient falls or not. Additionally, if the patient does fall or there are any changes in their status, a fall assessment will also be conducted. This ensures that the patient's safety and condition are regularly monitored, and any necessary interventions can be implemented promptly.

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  • 22. 

     Interventions for preventing a fall in a high risk patient include:

    • A.

      Standard Fall precautions and a yellow fall risk armband

    • B.

      Use of bed exit alarm as appropriate

    • C.

      Staff rounding every hour around the clock, with toileting offered during waking hours

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the interventions mentioned (standard fall precautions and a yellow fall risk armband, use of bed exit alarm as appropriate, staff rounding every hour around the clock with toileting offered during waking hours) are necessary and recommended for preventing a fall in a high-risk patient.

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  • 23. 

    Identification is important because:

    • A.

      It keeps patients safe

    • B.

      Patients like it when you say their name

    • C.

      It reduces medical errors.

    • D.

      A and c

    Correct Answer
    D. A and c
    Explanation
    Identification is important because it keeps patients safe and reduces medical errors. By correctly identifying patients, healthcare providers can ensure that they are administering the right treatments and medications to the right individuals, minimizing the risk of harmful errors. Additionally, patients appreciate when healthcare providers use their names, as it creates a personal and respectful connection between the patient and the provider.

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  • 24. 

    All associates have a responsibility to identify patients accurately:

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    All associates have a responsibility to identify patients accurately because accurate patient identification is crucial for providing safe and effective healthcare. Proper identification ensures that the right treatment is given to the right patient, reducing the risk of medical errors and improving patient outcomes. It also helps in maintaining accurate medical records and preventing identity theft or fraud. Therefore, it is essential for all associates, regardless of their role or position, to take responsibility for accurately identifying patients.

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  • 25. 

    Some transactions that require patient identification:

    • A.

      Blood administration

    • B.

      Transport to another department

    • C.

      Surgical procedure

    • D.

      Admission order entry

    • E.

      Medication administration

    • F.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    F. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all the listed transactions, including blood administration, transport to another department, surgical procedure, admission order entry, and medication administration, require patient identification. Patient identification is crucial in ensuring that the right patient receives the appropriate treatment or procedure, preventing any potential errors or risks.

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  • 26. 

    Identifiers used for verification of identity are:

    • A.

      Say their name and room number to them

    • B.

      Have the patient say their name and date of birth; verify medical record number on ID band

    • C.

      Medical record number and chart number

    Correct Answer
    B. Have the patient say their name and date of birth; verify medical record number on ID band
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to have the patient say their name and date of birth and verify the medical record number on the ID band. This method ensures that the patient is correctly identified by confirming their personal information and cross-referencing it with the information on their ID band. This helps prevent any potential mix-ups or errors in patient identification.

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  • 27. 

    Teamwork is effective in patient outcomes, health outcomes, associate satisfaction, patient safety, and patient satisfaction.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Teamwork is effective in various aspects of healthcare. When healthcare professionals work together as a team, it can lead to better patient outcomes, as different perspectives and expertise can be combined to provide comprehensive care. Additionally, teamwork can improve health outcomes by ensuring that all aspects of a patient's care are coordinated and well-managed. It also contributes to associate satisfaction, as working collaboratively can create a positive and supportive work environment. Furthermore, teamwork is essential for patient safety, as effective communication and coordination among team members can help prevent errors and adverse events. Finally, when patients perceive that they are receiving coordinated and high-quality care, it can enhance their satisfaction with the healthcare experience.

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  • 28. 

    Important qualities of effective teams are:

    • A.

      Collaboration, communication, mutual trust.

    • B.

      Personal pride, information holding, power.

    • C.

      Reactionary, defensiveness, superiority.

    • D.

      Unbalanced work load, personal performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collaboration, communication, mutual trust.
    Explanation
    The qualities of collaboration, communication, and mutual trust are important for effective teams. Collaboration allows team members to work together, share ideas, and leverage each other's strengths to achieve common goals. Communication ensures that information is effectively shared, tasks are coordinated, and conflicts are resolved. Mutual trust creates a positive team environment where members feel supported, respected, and comfortable taking risks. These qualities promote synergy, creativity, and productivity within the team, leading to successful outcomes.

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  • 29. 

    An effective communicator:        

    • A.

      Makes eye contact

    • B.

      Repeats back what the sender says to clarify when unclear

    • C.

      Uses phonetic and numeric clarification

    • D.

      Qualifies, validates and verifies.

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    An effective communicator is someone who possesses the skills mentioned in the options. Making eye contact is important as it shows attentiveness and engagement. Repeating back what the sender says helps to ensure understanding and clarity. Using phonetic and numeric clarification techniques can be useful in conveying information accurately. Qualifying, validating, and verifying information is crucial for ensuring accuracy and reliability in communication. Therefore, all of the options mentioned are characteristics of an effective communicator.

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  • 30. 

    Some recommended strategies for use in communication are:

    • A.

      5P handoff

    • B.

      SBAR

    • C.

      QVV and ARCC

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and b only.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because the question asks for recommended strategies for use in communication, and all three options (5P handoff, SBAR, QVV and ARCC) are valid strategies. Therefore, choosing "All of the above" encompasses all the recommended strategies mentioned in the question.

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  • 31. 

     Rapid Response Team:

    • A.

      Provides early intervention before a patient’s status may necessitate a Code Blue response

    • B.

      Provides critical care treatment options in the non-ICU environment

    • C.

      Establishes a collaborative patient-focused work environment

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The rapid response team provides early intervention to patients before their condition worsens to the point of requiring a Code Blue response, which is a cardiac arrest. Additionally, they offer critical care treatment options in a non-ICU environment, allowing patients to receive specialized care without being transferred to the intensive care unit. Lastly, the team establishes a collaborative and patient-focused work environment, ensuring that all healthcare professionals work together to provide the best possible care for the patient. Therefore, all of the given options accurately describe the role and functions of a rapid response team.

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  • 32. 

     Upon arrival of the Rapid Response Team, the SBAR format of communication includes:

    • A.

      Situation, Background, Alarms, Resuscitation status

    • B.

      Status, Blood work, Assessment, Response to treatment

    • C.

      Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

    Correct Answer
    C. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation. The SBAR format of communication is a structured method used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. "Situation" refers to the current problem or concern, "Background" provides relevant information about the patient's history, "Assessment" includes the nurse's evaluation of the situation, and "Recommendation" suggests a course of action or intervention. This format ensures clear and concise communication between healthcare professionals, promoting patient safety and efficient decision-making.

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  • 33. 

     The role of the clinical staff in Code Blue includes:

    • A.

      Initiation of CPR or AED

    • B.

      Follow the Code Blue Team orders when they arrive

    • C.

      Provide SBAR report and assist Code Blue team with administration of IV medications

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." The role of the clinical staff in Code Blue includes initiating CPR or AED, following the Code Blue Team orders when they arrive, and providing an SBAR report and assisting the Code Blue team with the administration of IV medications.

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  • 34. 

    Who responds to a Code Blue?

    • A.

      ACLS Certified RN, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Tech

    • B.

      Physician, Staff Nurse, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Technician and Chaplin

    • C.

      Unit Manager, Primary RN, and Respiratory Therapist

    Correct Answer
    A. ACLS Certified RN, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Tech
    Explanation
    ACLS stands for Advanced Cardiac Life Support, which is a set of clinical protocols and interventions used in emergency situations, including Code Blue situations. An ACLS Certified RN (Registered Nurse) is trained to provide advanced cardiac care and is therefore qualified to respond to a Code Blue. Similarly, a Respiratory Therapist and an EKG Tech (Technician) are also trained in emergency care and are capable of providing immediate assistance during a Code Blue situation. Therefore, the ACLS Certified RN, Respiratory Therapist, and EKG Tech are the appropriate responders to a Code Blue.

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  • 35. 

    A Code H is called:

    • A.

      Right before a Rapid Response

    • B.

      When other clinical departments notice a change in the patient’s status.

    • C.

      When patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care

    Correct Answer
    C. When patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care
    Explanation
    Code H is called when patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns, or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care. This means that if anyone outside of the clinical departments notices any of these issues, they can call a Code H to address the situation and ensure that the patient's needs are properly attended to.

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  • 36. 

    LET means:

    • A.

      Look, Examine, Treat

    • B.

      Limit Every Trainee

    • C.

      Limited Emergency Treatment

    Correct Answer
    C. Limited Emergency Treatment
    Explanation
    LET stands for Limited Emergency Treatment. This acronym refers to a specific type of medical assistance that is provided in emergency situations, but with certain limitations. It implies that the treatment provided is not comprehensive or extensive, but rather focused on addressing the immediate needs of the patient in a limited capacity.

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  • 37. 

    The categories of restraints include:

    • A.

      Psychiatric and medical

    • B.

      Behavioral and medical

    • C.

      Violent and self-destructive OR non-violent and non-self-destructive

    Correct Answer
    C. Violent and self-destructive OR non-violent and non-self-destructive
    Explanation
    The categories of restraints include two main types: violent and self-destructive, and non-violent and non-self-destructive. This means that restraints are used for individuals who pose a risk of violence towards themselves or others, as well as for those who do not exhibit violent or self-destructive behavior. These categories help to differentiate the level of restraint needed based on the individual's behavior and potential harm they may cause.

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  • 38. 

    An “Environmental Safety Check” is defined as:

    • A.

      Ensuring the room is free of spills, call light and water within reach

    • B.

      The hourly rounding checklist

    • C.

      Assessment of the patient’s immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm.

    Correct Answer
    C. Assessment of the patient’s immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Assessment of the patient’s immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm." This definition accurately describes what an "Environmental Safety Check" entails. It involves evaluating the patient's immediate environment to make sure there are no prohibited items (contraband) or any other potential dangers that could cause harm to the patient. This check is crucial for maintaining a safe and secure environment for the patient.

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  • 39. 

    Assessment of a patient in restraints includes:

    • A.

      Vital signs, nutrition/hydration, skin integrity and circulation

    • B.

      Environmental safety check, hygiene, elimination

    • C.

      A and b

    • D.

      A, b, and documentation of interventions attempted to facilitate removal of restraints

    Correct Answer
    D. A, b, and documentation of interventions attempted to facilitate removal of restraints
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a, b, and documentation of interventions attempted to facilitate removal of restraints. When assessing a patient in restraints, it is important to monitor vital signs, nutrition/hydration, skin integrity, and circulation (option a). Additionally, an environmental safety check, hygiene, and elimination should be assessed (option b). Lastly, it is crucial to document any interventions that have been attempted to facilitate the removal of restraints. This documentation is important for continuity of care and legal purposes.

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  • 40. 

     If non-violent, non-self-destructive restraints are removed and within minutes, the patient meets the criteria for re-restraint, the RN may reapply them based on the original order.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because even if the patient meets the criteria for re-restraint within minutes of the restraints being removed, the RN cannot simply reapply them based on the original order. In order to reapply restraints, a new order from the healthcare provider is required, as patient safety and autonomy must be carefully considered.

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  • Mar 29, 2024
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