CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Iloveproprofs
I
Iloveproprofs
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 271
| Attempts: 59 | Questions: 100
Please wait...
Question 1 / 100
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be

Explanation

During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set to ensure proper functioning. To prevent tampering or accidental adjustment after the procedure, these screws should be safety sealed and/or lockwired. Safety sealing involves applying a seal or marking to indicate that the screws have been properly set and should not be tampered with. Lockwiring involves using a wire or other locking device to physically secure the screws in place. This ensures that the screws remain in their correct positions and prevents any unintended adjustments.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2 - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2', assesses knowledge on JP-8 jet fuel properties, handling, and system components crucial for aviation maintenance. It covers fuel composition,... see morewater separation, icing conditions, engine safety, and system inspections. see less

2. On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 gear; 1 boost. This means that the fuel pump and filter assembly on the T56 engine contains two gear pumps and one boost pump. Gear pumps are used to deliver a steady flow of fuel at a consistent pressure, while the boost pump is responsible for providing additional fuel pressure during high power settings or in case of a failure in the gear pumps.

Submit
3. Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

Explanation

A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor work together to create a pumping action, drawing oil into the pump and then forcing it out under pressure. This type of pump is commonly used in automotive engines and other machinery to circulate oil and lubricate moving parts.

Submit
4. Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

Explanation

Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are used to determine if there is a continuous electrical path between two points, ensuring that there are no breaks or interruptions in the circuit. By checking continuity, chip detectors can identify any potential faults or issues in the electrical system.

Submit
5. What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?

Explanation

A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and has a complex structure that allows a small amount of airflow. This airflow helps to prevent oil seepage by creating a barrier that makes it difficult for the oil to escape. The labyrinth design consists of multiple small channels or grooves that create a tortuous path for the oil, reducing the likelihood of leakage.

Submit
6. Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

Explanation

Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal construction, which makes them susceptible to damage. This is why extreme care should be taken when working with them.

Submit
7. What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

Explanation

Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are formed as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the engine or machinery. They are typically small and can be detected through oil analysis. The presence of wear metals in the oil can indicate the level of wear and potential damage to the components. Therefore, monitoring wear metals is important for maintenance and diagnosing potential issues in the system.

Submit
8. The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX

Explanation

SEM/EDX analysis is a technique used to analyze the composition of particles. In this process, the particles being analyzed must be free of oil in order to obtain accurate results. Oil can interfere with the analysis and affect the identification and characterization of the particles. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that the particles are oil-free before conducting SEM/EDX analysis.

Submit
9. What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?

Explanation

Electromagnetic induction is the process through which voltage is produced in a conductor when it moves through a magnetic field. This phenomenon was discovered by Michael Faraday and is the basis for the functioning of generators, transformers, and other electrical devices. It involves the generation of an electromotive force (EMF) in the conductor due to the changing magnetic field. This process is widely used in various applications, including power generation, motors, and wireless charging.

Submit
10. What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?

Explanation

When an augmentor (afterburner) is not operating, its basic function is to act as the basic engine tailpipe. This means that it serves as the outlet for the engine exhaust gases. The augmentor does not have any additional functions or roles when it is not in use.

Submit
11. What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

Explanation

JP-8 fuel is a military specification jet fuel that is commonly used by the United States military. It is a kerosene-based fuel that is blended with gasoline. This composition allows JP-8 fuel to have a higher flash point and better performance in cold weather compared to regular jet fuel. The gasoline component also helps to improve the energy density of the fuel, making it more efficient for use in military aircraft.

Submit
12. Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the

Explanation

Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes can experience icing conditions in their fuel system. This is because the lower temperatures at high altitudes can cause the jet fuel to become more viscous. The higher viscosity of the jet fuel can lead to a higher likelihood of ice formation within the fuel system, which can impact its performance and potentially cause issues for the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is higher viscosity of jet fuels.

Submit
13. The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

Explanation

The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By carefully controlling the fuel flow, it ensures that the engine operates within safe limits and prevents flameout. Flameout refers to the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber, which can occur if the fuel-air mixture is not properly maintained. This can happen during acceleration if the fuel flow is not adequately controlled, leading to a loss of thrust and potentially dangerous situations. Therefore, the main fuel control is essential in preventing flameout and maintaining the engine's safe operation.

Submit
14. The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

Explanation

The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is important because fuel needs to be heated in order to vaporize properly and improve combustion efficiency. On the other hand, oil needs to be cooled to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. Therefore, a fuel/oil cooler serves the purpose of maintaining the optimal temperature for both the fuel and the oil in a fuel system.

Submit
15. During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

Explanation

A differential pressure indicator is actuated when a fuel filter is clogged. This means that there is a noticeable difference in pressure on either side of the filter, indicating that it is obstructed and not allowing fuel to flow freely. This can be a helpful visual indication during a visual inspection to determine if the fuel filter needs to be replaced.

Submit
16. What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?

Explanation

Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine. This type of fuel control combines electrical and hydraulic systems to regulate the flow of fuel into the engine. The thermocouples measure temperature, relays control electrical signals, amplifiers boost signals, and solenoids control the flow of hydraulic fluid. This integrated system ensures precise and efficient fuel control for optimal engine performance.

Submit
17. When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

Explanation

The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine when it is in the primary mode. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, temperature, and pressure to ensure optimal performance and efficiency. It receives inputs from various sensors and uses algorithms to make real-time adjustments to the engine's operation. This control system helps maintain the engine's performance within safe limits and maximize its efficiency.

Submit
18. On an F100-PW–220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?

Explanation

The MFC (Main Fuel Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is capable of operating in two modes.

Submit
19. Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

Explanation

The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the order in which the fuel flows through the different components of the engine. It starts at the MFC (Main Fuel Control), which regulates the fuel flow. Then, it goes through the fuel/oil cooler, which cools the fuel and oil. Next, it passes through the P&D (Pump and Drain Valve), which controls the flow and drains any excess fuel. Finally, it reaches the fuel nozzles, where the fuel is injected into the combustion chamber.

Submit
20. In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T–56 engine fuel nozzle require?

Explanation

The T-56 engine fuel nozzle requires a spray pattern inspection in addition to visual inspection. This suggests that the spray pattern of the fuel nozzle needs to be checked to ensure that it is functioning correctly. This type of inspection is important as it helps to verify that the fuel is being sprayed evenly and efficiently, which is crucial for the engine's performance.

Submit
21. When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

Explanation

When an engine is not operating, the static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that a spring is used to apply a constant force on the seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the rotating shaft and prevents any leakage of oil. This preload is necessary to maintain the seal's effectiveness even when the engine is not running and there is no oil or hydraulic pressure available.

Submit
22. In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?

Explanation

A deaerator is a device that is used to remove air and other gases from the oil in an engine oil tank. It works by heating the oil and allowing the gases to escape, effectively separating them from the oil. This helps to prevent air bubbles from forming in the oil, which can cause damage to the engine and reduce its efficiency.

Submit
23. On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

Explanation

The air/oil coolers on an F100-PW-220 engine are mounted on the fan duct and use secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are designed to be cooled by the air that is being pushed by the secondary fan. This airflow helps to dissipate heat from the oil and keep it at a suitable temperature for optimal engine performance.

Submit
24. The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

Explanation

The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the ability to cause damage or deterioration to metal surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important hazard for a journeyman to be aware of, as it can lead to the degradation of engine components and potentially compromise the safety and performance of the aircraft.

Submit
25. The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is

Explanation

The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is improved safety. By detecting potential failures in advance, necessary precautions can be taken to prevent accidents or injuries. This ensures a safer working environment for employees and reduces the risk of equipment malfunction or failure causing harm to individuals.

Submit
26. Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

Explanation

The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (presumably referring to some kind of project or system) operates properly. They oversee the project and monitor its progress, making sure that everything is running smoothly and according to plan. The logistics commander, propulsion flight chief, and laboratory supervisor may have other responsibilities related to the project, but it is the project monitor's role to ensure its proper operation.

Submit
27. Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to

Explanation

Before taking an oil sample from a drain, it is important to drain off water and sludge. This is because water and sludge can contaminate the oil sample and affect the accuracy of the analysis. By draining off water and sludge, the oil sample will be more representative of the actual condition of the oil and provide more reliable information about its quality and any potential issues.

Submit
28. On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

Explanation

The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) is a critical component in the F100-PW-220 engine. It is responsible for regulating and controlling the engine's performance. Since the DEEC is an electronic device, it generates heat during operation. To prevent overheating and ensure proper functioning, it needs to be cooled. In the case of the F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by fuel. This means that a portion of the fuel flowing through the engine is diverted to cool the DEEC, dissipating the heat and maintaining optimal operating conditions.

Submit
29. Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?

Explanation

The P&D valve is the fuel system component that controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system. It regulates the flow of fuel to maintain the correct pressure for efficient engine operation. The fuel nozzle, N2 sensor, and Tt 2.5 sensor are not directly involved in controlling the pressurization of the fuel system.

Submit
30. Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?

Explanation

The 13th stage of the compressor drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine.

Submit
31. In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?

Explanation

The TD valve switches must be placed in the NULL position in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative.

Submit
32. When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?

Explanation

When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that there is no bypass of fuel through the valve. Therefore, the valve will not bypass any fuel, resulting in 0% fuel bypass.

Submit
33. Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

Explanation

An air oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Both the air oil cooler and the radiator use air to cool down a fluid, whether it is oil or coolant. In both cases, the fluid passes through a series of tubes or fins, and air is blown or drawn over these tubes or fins to dissipate the heat. This process helps to cool down the fluid and prevent overheating. Therefore, the correct answer is air.

Submit
34. If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the

Explanation

When the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, it indicates that the design pressure differential has been exceeded. The design pressure differential refers to the maximum pressure difference that the oil filter can handle before it is considered to be operating outside of its intended range. This could be caused by factors such as a clogged filter or a malfunctioning oil pump, which leads to an excessive pressure buildup within the system.

Submit
35. On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

Explanation

The filter assembly bypass valve is the component that allows oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts. This is necessary because cold weather can cause the oil to thicken and make it difficult for it to flow through the filter. By bypassing the filter, the oil can flow more easily and ensure proper lubrication of the engine during startup.

Submit
36. Under what condition would you not receive an OAP laboratory sample report?

Explanation

If the laboratory results for the OAP sample are normal, it means that there are no abnormalities or issues detected in the sample. Therefore, there would be no need to receive a report for this sample as everything is within the normal range.

Submit
37. Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?

Explanation

The commutator is the part of a generator that acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current. It consists of a set of copper segments that are connected to the ends of the armature coil. As the armature rotates, the brushes make contact with different segments of the commutator, effectively reversing the current flow in the coil. This reversal ensures that the current produced by the generator is always in the same direction, resulting in direct current output.

Submit
38. The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?

Explanation

The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever the power section component has been replaced. This is because the power section is responsible for generating power in an engine, and any changes or replacements in this section can affect the temperature datum system. Therefore, it is important to perform a static check on the temperature datum system after replacing the power section to ensure its proper functioning.

Submit
39. When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

Explanation

The given options are different types of oil pumps. Gear, gerotor, and sliding vane are all types of oil pumps. However, "rotogear" is not a recognized type of oil pump. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotogear.

Submit
40. How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4 to 7 sparks per second.

Submit
41. The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the

Explanation

The correct answer is convergent exhaust nozzle control. The primary nozzle actuator of the F100 engine augmentor is driven by cables from the convergent exhaust nozzle control. This control system is responsible for adjusting the position and shape of the exhaust nozzle, which helps regulate the flow of exhaust gases and optimize engine performance.

Submit
42. Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?  

Explanation

After the cooling airflow has cooled the turbine section, it is directed into the gas stream to exit the engine. This means that the airflow is released into the exhaust gases and expelled from the engine.

Submit
43. At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?

Explanation

Water will take four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline at room temperature.

Submit
44. Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?

Explanation

A unified fuel metering device is a jet engine component that combines two separate fuel controls into a single unit. This allows for more efficient and streamlined fuel management in the engine.

Submit
45. From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?

Explanation

The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the engine-mounted alternator stator. This component generates electricity through the rotation of the engine, providing a continuous source of power for the ignition system. Unlike the other options listed, such as the generator, aircraft battery, or essential DC bus, the engine-mounted alternator stator is specifically designed to supply power to the ignition system.

Submit
46. What is the output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?

Explanation

The output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator is in the range of 20 to 40 VAC.

Submit
47. What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?

Explanation

The NIU (Network Interface Unit) is responsible for monitoring the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate. The NIU acts as a communication interface between the engine control system and other components, gathering and transmitting data. In this case, it receives information about the spark rate from the ignition exciters and ensures that it is within the specified parameters.

Submit
48. Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

Explanation

A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank that is mounted to the side of the engine, rather than in the oil pan (sump) at the bottom of the engine. This design allows for a larger oil capacity, better oil control, and improved lubrication, especially in high-performance or racing engines. The oil is pumped from the tank to the engine, and then returns to the tank to be cooled and recirculated. In contrast, a wet sump system stores the oil in the engine's oil pan, which is located underneath the engine.

Submit
49. What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?

Explanation

The turbine plenum is the engine section that houses the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) combustion section. The JFS is responsible for starting the engine by providing the initial combustion needed to power the engine's turbine. Therefore, it makes sense for the JFS combustion section to be located in the turbine plenum, which is a crucial part of the engine where the combustion process takes place.

Submit
50. The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?

Explanation

The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for a minimum of 10 seconds during negative G conditions. This means that even in situations where the aircraft is experiencing negative G forces, the oil tank pendulum will continue to provide pressurized oil for at least 10 seconds.

Submit
51. What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?

Explanation

The C-D supersonic inlet uses Bernoulli's law to slow down the airflow. According to Bernoulli's principle, as the speed of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. The C-D supersonic inlet is designed in a way that it increases the area of the flow passage, causing the airflow to slow down and the pressure to increase. This allows the supersonic airflow to be converted into subsonic flow, which is necessary for the functioning of the inlet.

Submit
52. The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by

Explanation

The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor stall in a dual-rotor engine by reducing the amount of air available to the N2 compressor. This is because compressor stall occurs when there is too much air entering the compressor, causing disruptions in the airflow and a loss of efficiency. By reducing the amount of air available to the N2 compressor, the system helps maintain a more stable airflow and reduces the risk of stall.

Submit
53. On the T56 engine, at what percent of engine RPM is the ignition system turned off?

Explanation

The ignition system on the T56 engine is turned off at 65% of engine RPM. This means that once the engine reaches 65% of its maximum rotational speed, the ignition system is no longer needed to maintain combustion and can be safely turned off.

Submit
54. On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples?

Explanation

The TD amplifier on the T56 engine compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature) signal from the thermocouples. This comparison helps to ensure that the engine is operating at the correct temperature and that the throttle setting is accurately adjusted based on the TIT signal. The TD amplifier plays a crucial role in maintaining the engine's performance and efficiency.

Submit
55. The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 US gallons. This means that the ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine will occur when the engine oil level drops below 4 US gallons.

Submit
56. On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Brushes." In a simple AC generator, the brushes are responsible for taking the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device. The brushes make contact with the slip rings, which are connected to the rotating loop of wire in the generator. As the loop rotates, the brushes maintain contact with the slip rings, allowing the current to flow from the generator to the electrical device. The brushes act as conductors, transferring the electrical energy from the generator to the device.

Submit
57. What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?

Explanation

The fuel/oil cooler is responsible for heating the augmentor fuel to improve vaporization and combustion. By cooling the oil, the heat is transferred to the fuel, increasing its temperature and enhancing the combustion process. This component plays a crucial role in optimizing the performance of the engine by ensuring efficient fuel combustion.

Submit
58. During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of

Explanation

During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of burner pressure. This means that the fuel flow is adjusted based on the pressure in the burner, which is the part of the engine where fuel is burned to generate thrust. By monitoring and regulating the burner pressure, the fuel control system can ensure that the engine is operating efficiently and safely during deceleration. RPM, inlet temperature, and inlet pressure may also be important factors in engine operation, but in this specific scenario, burner pressure is the most relevant parameter for scheduling fuel flow.

Submit
59. On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when fuel pressure, in psi, in the manifold reaches

Explanation

The manifold pressure switch on the T56 engine is designed to open and deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches a certain level. In this case, the correct answer is 50 psi. This means that when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches or exceeds 50 psi, the manifold pressure switch will open, causing the fuel enrichment relay to be deenergized.

Submit
60. On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the

Explanation

The breather pressurizing valve on an F100 engine is internally mounted in the gearbox. This means that it is located inside the gearbox rather than being a separate component. The purpose of the breather pressurizing valve is to regulate the pressure within the gearbox, ensuring that it is at the appropriate level for optimal performance. By being internally mounted, it is able to directly control the pressure within the gearbox, making it an essential component for the engine's operation.

Submit
61. What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?

Explanation

The GMAD (Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive) is the component that drives the PGB (Propeller Gearbox) lube and scavenge pump in the AE2100D3 engine. The GMAD is responsible for transmitting power from the engine to various accessories, including the lube and scavenge pump. This ensures proper lubrication and scavenging of the propeller gearbox, which is essential for the smooth operation of the engine. The other options mentioned, such as the alternator stator, prop gearbox, and PUAD, are not directly involved in driving the PGB lube and scavenge pump.

Submit
62. How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust on the F117-PW–100 engine?

Explanation

The F117-PW-100 engine uses four linear hydraulic actuators to deploy and stow the fan thrust.

Submit
63. What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?

Explanation

The two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems are torch igniter and pilot burner ring. Torch igniter is a type of ignition system that uses a high-energy spark to ignite the fuel-air mixture in the afterburner. Pilot burner ring, on the other hand, is a type of ignition system that uses a continuous flame to ignite the fuel-air mixture. These two types of ignition systems are commonly used in afterburners to ensure reliable and efficient ignition of the fuel-air mixture.

Submit
64. What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?

Explanation

The PTO shaft used to drive the CSD is provided by the engine adapter. This component connects the engine to the CSD and allows for the transfer of power from the engine to the CSD through the PTO shaft. Engine fittings, aircraft fittings, and aircraft adapters are not directly involved in providing the PTO shaft for driving the CSD.

Submit
65. Which T56 engine component receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement?

Explanation

The TD valve receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement.

Submit
66. Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?

Explanation

The discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing is taken from the compressor. The compressor is responsible for compressing the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber. This compressed air is then used for various purposes, including anti-icing to prevent ice formation on critical areas of the engine. By taking the discharge air from the compressor, it ensures that the air is at a high enough temperature to effectively prevent ice buildup.

Submit
67. What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?

Explanation

The primary input power to the main ignition system is 28 VDC.

Submit
68. On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does not include a

Explanation

The high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does not include a centrifugal switch. A centrifugal switch is a device that is commonly used in ignition systems to control the timing of the spark. It is typically found in older, points-type ignition systems where it is responsible for advancing the spark timing as the engine speed increases. However, in a high-energy capacitor-type ignition system, the timing is controlled electronically and does not require a centrifugal switch.

Submit
69. On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an ignition system?

Explanation

Compositors in an ignition system are used to step up the voltage to a level that is high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug. This is necessary because the air gap acts as an insulator, preventing the flow of current. By increasing the voltage, the compositors ensure that the spark can jump across the gap and ignite the fuel-air mixture in the engine.

Submit
70. Oil is supplied to the F–15 JFS through the

Explanation

The correct answer is the CGB oil system. The CGB (Compressor Gearbox) oil system is responsible for supplying oil to the F-15 JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) to lubricate and cool its components. The oil tank and aircraft filter are not directly involved in supplying oil to the JFS, while the JFS oil system is a broader term that encompasses the entire oil system of the JFS, not just the supply. Therefore, the CGB oil system is the most accurate choice.

Submit
71. What is the purpose of jet engine thrust reversers?

Explanation

Jet engine thrust reversers are used to direct the engine thrust in the opposite direction. This is typically done during landing to help the aircraft slow down by redirecting the exhaust gases forward, creating a reverse thrust. By doing so, the aircraft can effectively decelerate and shorten its landing roll. This is especially useful in situations where the runway length is limited or when landing on wet or icy surfaces. The purpose of thrust reversers is not to provide directional control on the ground, but rather to assist in braking and reducing the aircraft's speed after touchdown.

Submit
72. What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems?

Explanation

Air pressure is used to open and close both flap-type and iris-type variable-exhaust nozzle systems. This means that air pressure is responsible for controlling the movement of these nozzle systems, allowing them to adjust the exhaust flow as needed.

Submit
73. The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly are sufficient

Explanation

A pneumatic starter requires a sufficient volume of air to ensure that there is enough air available to power the starter. This is important because the starter needs a continuous supply of air to operate properly. Additionally, the starter also requires a sufficient pressure of air to ensure that there is enough force to drive the starter mechanism. Without enough pressure, the starter may not be able to generate enough power to start the engine. Therefore, both volume and pressure are necessary air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate properly.

Submit
74. The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and

Explanation

The oil pressure in the F100-PW-100 engine is influenced by various factors such as rear compressor rotor speeds, engine inlet oil temperature, and oil jet pressure. However, the condition of the oil nozzle specifically affects the oil pressure.

Submit
75. Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?

Explanation

The JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) uses an annular combustion chamber. An annular combustion chamber is a type of combustion chamber in which the fuel and air are mixed in a ring-shaped chamber surrounding the turbine. This design allows for efficient combustion and provides a compact and lightweight solution for the JFS.

Submit
76. Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?

Explanation

The hot tank oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem. In this design, the oil cooler is located in the high-pressure side of the system, which allows for efficient cooling of the oil. This design is commonly used in applications where the oil temperature needs to be closely controlled and maintained within a specific range. By placing the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem, the hot tank design ensures that the oil is adequately cooled before it is returned to the system, helping to prevent overheating and potential damage to the components.

Submit
77. On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?

Explanation

The correct answer is controlling turbine inlet temperature. In a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, the thrust production is controlled by regulating the temperature of the air entering the turbine. By controlling the turbine inlet temperature, the engine can adjust the power output and consequently the thrust produced. This is achieved by regulating the fuel flow and adjusting the combustion process to maintain the desired temperature level.

Submit
78. Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?

Explanation

The TD valve is the component that sends the fuel to the fuel manifold in the T56 engine.

Submit
79. The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of a body containing

Explanation

The OSG (OverSpeed Governor) on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of two pinned flyweights and a piston. This configuration allows the OSG to regulate the speed of the starter by controlling the flow of air from the cartridge. As the speed of the starter increases, the flyweights move outward, causing the piston to restrict the flow of air. This helps prevent the starter from overspeeding and potentially causing damage.

Submit
80. Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?

Explanation

The turbine plenum on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly.

Submit
81. Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?

Explanation

The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine PTO.

Submit
82. The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine

Explanation

The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control both the engine's thrust and fan stall margin. By adjusting the size of the exhaust nozzle, the engine can increase or decrease its thrust output. Additionally, the variable nozzle helps maintain a safe margin against fan stall, which is a condition where the airflow over the engine's fan becomes disrupted, leading to a loss of thrust and potential engine damage. Therefore, the variable exhaust nozzle plays a crucial role in managing both thrust and fan stall margin for the F100 engine.

Submit
83. On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and

Explanation

The anti-icing system on an F110-GE-129 engine is designed to prevent the formation and accumulation of ice on various parts of the engine. In this case, it specifically targets the fan inlet guide vane flaps. These flaps are located at the front of the engine and play a crucial role in directing airflow. If ice were to form on these flaps, it could disrupt the airflow and potentially cause damage to the engine. Therefore, the anti-icing system is necessary to ensure the proper functioning and safety of the engine.

Submit
84. The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to

Explanation

The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station. This means that it is used to adjust the EGT indicator to ensure its accuracy and reliability. By using the slide-type resistor, the EGT indicator can be calibrated to accurately measure the exhaust gas temperature, allowing for precise monitoring of engine performance. This calibration is important for maintaining the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.

Submit
85. Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?

Explanation

A transformer is a unit of an AC ignition system that develops 20,000 volts. A transformer works by converting the low voltage from the power source into a high voltage output. This high voltage is necessary for the ignition system to create a spark and ignite the fuel mixture in the engine. The other options, such as inverter, capacitor, and generator, are not specifically designed to develop high voltage in an AC ignition system.

Submit
86. Which item initially rotates the JFS?

Explanation

The hydraulic motor is the item that initially rotates the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter). This motor is responsible for providing the initial rotation to start the engine. The ESS PTO, electric motor mounted on the aircraft, and engine PTO are not involved in the initial rotation of the JFS.

Submit
87. On an F108-CF–100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of the air injector on the air regulator?

Explanation

The air injector on the air regulator of an F108-CF–100 engine anti-ice system is used to control air temperature and pressure. This component helps regulate the flow of air to maintain the desired temperature and pressure levels within the system. It plays a crucial role in ensuring that the engine operates efficiently and prevents any potential damage due to extreme temperatures or pressure imbalances.

Submit
88. On an F110-GE–129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for anti-icing, customer bleed, and

Explanation

Compressor bleed air is used for various purposes in an F110-GE-129 engine, including anti-icing, customer bleed, VSV actuator control, and IGV actuator control. However, the correct answer is low-pressure turbine cooling functions. This means that the compressor bleed air is used to cool the low-pressure turbine, which helps to maintain its efficiency and prevent overheating. This is an important function as the low-pressure turbine plays a crucial role in the overall performance of the engine.

Submit
89. The F117-PW–100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel or channels of the EEC?

Explanation

The F117-PW-100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to the A channel of the EEC.

Submit
90. The T56 engine speed-sensitive control, measured in RPM, lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system at

Explanation

The T56 engine speed-sensitive control allows electrical current to flow to the fuel and ignition system at 16% RPM. This means that at this specific engine speed, the control system activates and enables the necessary electrical current to power the fuel and ignition system, ensuring proper functioning and performance of the engine.

Submit
91. How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine ignition system?

Explanation

The correct answer is three because an F100-PW-100 engine ignition system consists of three independent circuits.

Submit
92. On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?

Explanation

The rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve on a T56 engine is controlled by the compressor inlet pressure. This pressure is used to regulate the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, ensuring proper combustion and performance. By adjusting the fuel flow based on the compressor inlet pressure, the engine can maintain optimal operating conditions at different power settings and altitudes.

Submit
93. The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the

Explanation

The correct answer is actuator. The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the actuator. This means that the sensors are located on the actuator, which is a device responsible for controlling or moving a mechanism. The proximity sensors are likely used to detect the position or movement of the actuator in order to ensure proper functioning of the core reverser lock system.

Submit
94. On an F108-CF–100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air from the

Explanation

The variable bleed valves on an F108-CF–100 engine are responsible for bleeding air from the N1 compressor. This means that these valves control the amount of air that is released from the N1 compressor, which is an essential part of the engine. Bleeding air from the N1 compressor helps to regulate the engine's performance and ensure optimal operation. Therefore, the correct answer is N1 compressor.

Submit
95. On an F110-GE–129 engine, which component supplies fuel pressure to operate the IGV actuator?

Explanation

The main engine control supplies fuel pressure to operate the IGV actuator on an F110-GE-129 engine. This component is responsible for regulating and controlling various functions of the engine, including the fuel system. It ensures that the correct amount of fuel is delivered to the engine components, such as the IGV actuator, to optimize performance and efficiency. The main fuel pump, augmentor engine control, and digital electronic engine control are not directly involved in supplying fuel pressure to operate the IGV actuator.

Submit
96. An F110-GE–129 engine contains how many stages of VSV?

Explanation

The correct answer is three because an F110-GE-129 engine contains three stages of Variable Stator Vanes (VSV). Variable Stator Vanes are used in the compressor section of the engine to control the airflow and optimize engine performance at different operating conditions.

Submit
97. On the F–15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation decouplers extended?

Explanation

The isolation decouplers on the F-15 secondary power system CGB are extended hydraulically.

Submit
98. On an F108 engine, which manifold is anti-ice air ducted from?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Pneumatic." In an F108 engine, the anti-ice air is ducted from the pneumatic manifold. This means that the air used for anti-icing purposes is sourced from the pneumatic system of the engine.

Submit
99. On the F117-PW–100 engine, what component controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers?

Explanation

The control valve is the component that controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers on the F117-PW-100 engine. This valve regulates the flow of hydraulic fluid to the actuators, allowing for precise control of the thrust reversers and fan. The electronic engine control, hydraulic pump, and fuel control are not directly responsible for controlling hydraulic power in this context.

Submit
100. On an F108-CF–100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlled by the

Explanation

The direction of the variable bleed valve rotation on an F108-CF–100 engine is controlled by the fuel gear motor.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 19, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Iloveproprofs
Cancel
  • All
    All (100)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an...
On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained...
Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of...
What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and...
Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in...
What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor...
What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is...
What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?
Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel...
The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate,...
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is...
What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays,...
When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the...
On an F100-PW–220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of...
Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts...
In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection...
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal...
In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the...
The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be...
The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the...
Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a...
On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls...
Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an...
In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make...
When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how...
Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator...
If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out...
On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass...
Under what condition would you not receive an OAP laboratory sample...
Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device,...
The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which...
When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type...
How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?
The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by...
Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine...
At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to...
Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really...
From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical...
What is the output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?
What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side...
What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil...
What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
The compressor bleed system reduces the probability of compressor...
On the T56 engine, at what percent of engine RPM is the ignition...
On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the...
The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine...
On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip...
What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and...
During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control...
On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize...
On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally...
What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the...
What are the two main types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition...
What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
Which T56 engine component receives 120 percent of the engine fuel...
Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical...
What is the primary input power to the main ignition system?
On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition...
On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an...
Oil is supplied to the F–15 JFS through the
What is the purpose of jet engine thrust reversers?
What is used to open and close flap-type and iris-type...
The two air source requirements for a pneumatic starter to operate...
The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor...
Which type of combustion chamber does the JFS use?
Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure...
On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of...
Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of a body...
Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer...
Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge...
The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control...
On an F110-GE–129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents...
The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
Which item initially rotates the JFS?
On an F108-CF–100 engine anti-ice system, what is the purpose of...
On an F110-GE–129 engine, compressor bleed air is used for...
The F117-PW–100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left...
The T56 engine speed-sensitive control, measured in RPM, lets...
How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW–100 engine...
On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control...
The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the
On an F108-CF–100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air...
On an F110-GE–129 engine, which component supplies fuel pressure...
An F110-GE–129 engine contains how many stages of VSV?
On the F–15 secondary power system CGB, how are the isolation...
On an F108 engine, which manifold is anti-ice air ducted from?
On the F117-PW–100 engine, what component controls hydraulic...
On an F108-CF–100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed...
Alert!

Advertisement