CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

    • Gasoline and kerosene.
    • Gasoline and diesel fuel.
    • Diesel fuel and kerosene.
    • Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2', assesses knowledge on JP-8 jet fuel properties, handling, and system components crucial for aviation maintenance. It covers fuel composition, water separation, icing conditions, engine safety, and system inspections.

CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the

    • Lower viscosity of jet fuels.

    • Higher viscosity of jet fuels.

    • Lower viscosity of free water.

    • Higher viscosity of free water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
    Explanation
    Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes can experience icing conditions in their fuel system. This is because the lower temperatures at high altitudes can cause the jet fuel to become more viscous. The higher viscosity of the jet fuel can lead to a higher likelihood of ice formation within the fuel system, which can impact its performance and potentially cause issues for the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is higher viscosity of jet fuels.

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  • 3. 

    The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

    • Flameout.

    • Turbine seizure.

    • Compressor shift.

    • Overtemperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flameout.
    Explanation
    The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By carefully controlling the fuel flow, it ensures that the engine operates within safe limits and prevents flameout. Flameout refers to the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber, which can occur if the fuel-air mixture is not properly maintained. This can happen during acceleration if the fuel flow is not adequately controlled, leading to a loss of thrust and potentially dangerous situations. Therefore, the main fuel control is essential in preventing flameout and maintaining the engine's safe operation.

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  • 4. 

    The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

    • Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is important because fuel needs to be heated in order to vaporize properly and improve combustion efficiency. On the other hand, oil needs to be cooled to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. Therefore, a fuel/oil cooler serves the purpose of maintaining the optimal temperature for both the fuel and the oil in a fuel system.

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  • 5. 

    During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

    • A green flag pops out of the filter.

    • Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.

    • A differential pressure indicator is actuated.

    • There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.

    Correct Answer
    A. A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
    Explanation
    A differential pressure indicator is actuated when a fuel filter is clogged. This means that there is a noticeable difference in pressure on either side of the filter, indicating that it is obstructed and not allowing fuel to flow freely. This can be a helpful visual indication during a visual inspection to determine if the fuel filter needs to be replaced.

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  • 6. 

    Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be

    • Replaced.

    • Die marked.

    • Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • Applied a thread locking compound.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
    Explanation
    During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set to ensure proper functioning. To prevent tampering or accidental adjustment after the procedure, these screws should be safety sealed and/or lockwired. Safety sealing involves applying a seal or marking to indicate that the screws have been properly set and should not be tampered with. Lockwiring involves using a wire or other locking device to physically secure the screws in place. This ensures that the screws remain in their correct positions and prevents any unintended adjustments.

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  • 7. 

    On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?

    • 3 gear; 1 boost.

    • 2 gear; 2 boost.

    • 2 gear; 1 boost.

    • 1 gear; 2 boost.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 gear; 1 boost.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 gear; 1 boost. This means that the fuel pump and filter assembly on the T56 engine contains two gear pumps and one boost pump. Gear pumps are used to deliver a steady flow of fuel at a consistent pressure, while the boost pump is responsible for providing additional fuel pressure during high power settings or in case of a failure in the gear pumps.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

    • Gear.

    • Gerotor.

    • Rotogear.

    • Sliding vane.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gerotor.
    Explanation
    A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor work together to create a pumping action, drawing oil into the pump and then forcing it out under pressure. This type of pump is commonly used in automotive engines and other machinery to circulate oil and lubricate moving parts.

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  • 9. 

    Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

    • AC high-voltage.

    • DC high-voltage.

    • Continuity.

    • Polarity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuity.
    Explanation
    Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are used to determine if there is a continuous electrical path between two points, ensuring that there are no breaks or interruptions in the circuit. By checking continuity, chip detectors can identify any potential faults or issues in the electrical system.

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  • 10. 

    What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?

    • Silicone.

    • Carbon.

    • Synthetic.

    • Labyrinth.

    Correct Answer
    A. Labyrinth.
    Explanation
    A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and has a complex structure that allows a small amount of airflow. This airflow helps to prevent oil seepage by creating a barrier that makes it difficult for the oil to escape. The labyrinth design consists of multiple small channels or grooves that create a tortuous path for the oil, reducing the likelihood of leakage.

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  • 11. 

    Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

    • Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.

    • Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
    Explanation
    Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal construction, which makes them susceptible to damage. This is why extreme care should be taken when working with them.

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  • 12. 

    What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

    • Wear metals.

    • Friction metals.

    • Precious metals.

    • Transformation metals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wear metals.
    Explanation
    Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are formed as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the engine or machinery. They are typically small and can be detected through oil analysis. The presence of wear metals in the oil can indicate the level of wear and potential damage to the components. Therefore, monitoring wear metals is important for maintenance and diagnosing potential issues in the system.

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  • 13. 

    The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX

    • Samples must be sent off-site for analysis.

    • Particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

    • Samples can only be obtained in an intermediate maintenance shop.

    • Provides results only concerning equipment and components condition.

    Correct Answer
    A. Particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.
    Explanation
    SEM/EDX analysis is a technique used to analyze the composition of particles. In this process, the particles being analyzed must be free of oil in order to obtain accurate results. Oil can interfere with the analysis and affect the identification and characterization of the particles. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that the particles are oil-free before conducting SEM/EDX analysis.

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  • 14. 

    What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?

    • Static.

    • Electronics.

    • Mutual induction.

    • Electromagnetic induction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic induction.
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic induction is the process through which voltage is produced in a conductor when it moves through a magnetic field. This phenomenon was discovered by Michael Faraday and is the basis for the functioning of generators, transformers, and other electrical devices. It involves the generation of an electromotive force (EMF) in the conductor due to the changing magnetic field. This process is widely used in various applications, including power generation, motors, and wireless charging.

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  • 15. 

    What is the basic function of an augmentor (afterburner) when it is not operating?

    • Act as the basic engine tailpipe.

    • Control engine discharge pressure.

    • Aid in control of engine oil pressure.

    • Help to control pressure and N2 speed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Act as the basic engine tailpipe.
    Explanation
    When an augmentor (afterburner) is not operating, its basic function is to act as the basic engine tailpipe. This means that it serves as the outlet for the engine exhaust gases. The augmentor does not have any additional functions or roles when it is not in use.

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  • 16. 

    What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?

    • Pneumatic.

    • Fuel injection.

    • Hydromechanical.

    • Electrohydromechanical.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrohydromechanical.
    Explanation
    Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine. This type of fuel control combines electrical and hydraulic systems to regulate the flow of fuel into the engine. The thermocouples measure temperature, relays control electrical signals, amplifiers boost signals, and solenoids control the flow of hydraulic fluid. This integrated system ensures precise and efficient fuel control for optimal engine performance.

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  • 17. 

    When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

    • MEC.

    • PMG.

    • TSFC.

    • DEEC.

    Correct Answer
    A. DEEC.
    Explanation
    The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine when it is in the primary mode. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, temperature, and pressure to ensure optimal performance and efficiency. It receives inputs from various sensors and uses algorithms to make real-time adjustments to the engine's operation. This control system helps maintain the engine's performance within safe limits and maximize its efficiency.

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  • 18. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?

    • One.

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    The MFC (Main Fuel Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is capable of operating in two modes.

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  • 19. 

    Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

    • AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.

    Correct Answer
    A. MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the order in which the fuel flows through the different components of the engine. It starts at the MFC (Main Fuel Control), which regulates the fuel flow. Then, it goes through the fuel/oil cooler, which cools the fuel and oil. Next, it passes through the P&D (Pump and Drain Valve), which controls the flow and drains any excess fuel. Finally, it reaches the fuel nozzles, where the fuel is injected into the combustion chamber.

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  • 20. 

    In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T–56 engine fuel nozzle require?

    • Nondestructive.

    • Spray pattern.

    • Pre-torque.

    • Ultrasonic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spray pattern.
    Explanation
    The T-56 engine fuel nozzle requires a spray pattern inspection in addition to visual inspection. This suggests that the spray pattern of the fuel nozzle needs to be checked to ensure that it is functioning correctly. This type of inspection is important as it helps to verify that the fuel is being sprayed evenly and efficiently, which is crucial for the engine's performance.

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  • 21. 

    When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

    • Air pressure.

    • Oil pressure.

    • Spring pressure.

    • Hydraulic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring pressure.
    Explanation
    When an engine is not operating, the static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that a spring is used to apply a constant force on the seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the rotating shaft and prevents any leakage of oil. This preload is necessary to maintain the seal's effectiveness even when the engine is not running and there is no oil or hydraulic pressure available.

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  • 22. 

    In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?

    • Aerator.

    • Deaerator.

    • Check valve.

    • Bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deaerator.
    Explanation
    A deaerator is a device that is used to remove air and other gases from the oil in an engine oil tank. It works by heating the oil and allowing the gases to escape, effectively separating them from the oil. This helps to prevent air bubbles from forming in the oil, which can cause damage to the engine and reduce its efficiency.

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  • 23. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

    • Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

    • Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

    • Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

    • Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
    Explanation
    The air/oil coolers on an F100-PW-220 engine are mounted on the fan duct and use secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are designed to be cooled by the air that is being pushed by the secondary fan. This airflow helps to dissipate heat from the oil and keep it at a suitable temperature for optimal engine performance.

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  • 24. 

    The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

    • Toxicity.

    • Viscosity.

    • Alkalinity.

    • Corrosiveness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Corrosiveness.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the ability to cause damage or deterioration to metal surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important hazard for a journeyman to be aware of, as it can lead to the degradation of engine components and potentially compromise the safety and performance of the aircraft.

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  • 25. 

    The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is

    • Improved safety.

    • Increased component life.

    • Reduced maintenance cost.

    • Increased equipment availability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved safety.
    Explanation
    The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is improved safety. By detecting potential failures in advance, necessary precautions can be taken to prevent accidents or injuries. This ensures a safer working environment for employees and reduces the risk of equipment malfunction or failure causing harm to individuals.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

    • Project monitor.

    • Logistics commander.

    • Propulsion flight chief.

    • Laboratory supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Project monitor.
    Explanation
    The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (presumably referring to some kind of project or system) operates properly. They oversee the project and monitor its progress, making sure that everything is running smoothly and according to plan. The logistics commander, propulsion flight chief, and laboratory supervisor may have other responsibilities related to the project, but it is the project monitor's role to ensure its proper operation.

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  • 27. 

    Before taking an oil sample from a drain, drain enough fluid into a container in order to

    • Check for large particles.

    • Check the drain operation.

    • Drain off uncirculated oil.

    • Drain off water and sludge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drain off water and sludge.
    Explanation
    Before taking an oil sample from a drain, it is important to drain off water and sludge. This is because water and sludge can contaminate the oil sample and affect the accuracy of the analysis. By draining off water and sludge, the oil sample will be more representative of the actual condition of the oil and provide more reliable information about its quality and any potential issues.

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  • 28. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

    • Oil.

    • Fuel.

    • Ram air.

    • Hydraulic fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuel.
    Explanation
    The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) is a critical component in the F100-PW-220 engine. It is responsible for regulating and controlling the engine's performance. Since the DEEC is an electronic device, it generates heat during operation. To prevent overheating and ensure proper functioning, it needs to be cooled. In the case of the F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by fuel. This means that a portion of the fuel flowing through the engine is diverted to cool the DEEC, dissipating the heat and maintaining optimal operating conditions.

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  • 29. 

    Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?

    • Fuel nozzle.

    • P&D valve.

    • N2 sensor.

    • Tt 2.5 sensor.

    Correct Answer
    A. P&D valve.
    Explanation
    The P&D valve is the fuel system component that controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system. It regulates the flow of fuel to maintain the correct pressure for efficient engine operation. The fuel nozzle, N2 sensor, and Tt 2.5 sensor are not directly involved in controlling the pressurization of the fuel system.

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  • 30. 

    Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?

    • 7th.

    • 10th.

    • 13th.

    • 14th.

    Correct Answer
    A. 13th.
    Explanation
    The 13th stage of the compressor drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine.

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  • 31. 

    In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?

    • OFF.

    • NULL.

    • AUTO.

    • LOCKED.

    Correct Answer
    A. NULL.
    Explanation
    The TD valve switches must be placed in the NULL position in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative.

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  • 32. 

    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?

    • 0%.

    • 10%.

    • 20%.

    • 30%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 20%.
    Explanation
    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that there is no bypass of fuel through the valve. Therefore, the valve will not bypass any fuel, resulting in 0% fuel bypass.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

    • Air.

    • Fuel.

    • Hydraulic.

    • Pneumatic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air.
    Explanation
    An air oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Both the air oil cooler and the radiator use air to cool down a fluid, whether it is oil or coolant. In both cases, the fluid passes through a series of tubes or fins, and air is blown or drawn over these tubes or fins to dissipate the heat. This process helps to cool down the fluid and prevent overheating. Therefore, the correct answer is air.

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  • 34. 

    If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the

    • Button is defective.

    • Scheduled oil change is due.

    • Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.

    • Design pressure differential has been exceeded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
    Explanation
    When the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, it indicates that the design pressure differential has been exceeded. The design pressure differential refers to the maximum pressure difference that the oil filter can handle before it is considered to be operating outside of its intended range. This could be caused by factors such as a clogged filter or a malfunctioning oil pump, which leads to an excessive pressure buildup within the system.

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  • 35. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

    • Oil relief valve.

    • Filter poppet valve.

    • Oil pressure transmitter tap.

    • Filter assembly bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Filter assembly bypass valve.
    Explanation
    The filter assembly bypass valve is the component that allows oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts. This is necessary because cold weather can cause the oil to thicken and make it difficult for it to flow through the filter. By bypassing the filter, the oil can flow more easily and ensure proper lubrication of the engine during startup.

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  • 36. 

    Under what condition would you not receive an OAP laboratory sample report?

    • The sample is the first taken after an oil change.

    • The aircraft is on TDY.

    • It was a special oil sample.

    • The results are normal.

    Correct Answer
    A. The results are normal.
    Explanation
    If the laboratory results for the OAP sample are normal, it means that there are no abnormalities or issues detected in the sample. Therefore, there would be no need to receive a report for this sample as everything is within the normal range.

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  • 37. 

    Which part of a generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?

    • Brushes.

    • Slip rings.

    • Commutator.

    • Permanent magnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commutator.
    Explanation
    The commutator is the part of a generator that acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current. It consists of a set of copper segments that are connected to the ends of the armature coil. As the armature rotates, the brushes make contact with different segments of the commutator, effectively reversing the current flow in the coil. This reversal ensures that the current produced by the generator is always in the same direction, resulting in direct current output.

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  • 38. 

    At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?

    • Two.

    • Three.

    • Four.

    • Five.

    Correct Answer
    A. Four.
    Explanation
    Water will take four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline at room temperature.

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  • 39. 

    The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?

    • Compressor.

    • Power section.

    • Torquemeter shaft.

    • Reduction gearbox.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power section.
    Explanation
    The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever the power section component has been replaced. This is because the power section is responsible for generating power in an engine, and any changes or replacements in this section can affect the temperature datum system. Therefore, it is important to perform a static check on the temperature datum system after replacing the power section to ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 40. 

    When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

    • Gear.

    • Gerotor.

    • Rotogear.

    • Sliding vane.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotogear.
    Explanation
    The given options are different types of oil pumps. Gear, gerotor, and sliding vane are all types of oil pumps. However, "rotogear" is not a recognized type of oil pump. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotogear.

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  • 41. 

    How many sparks per second can the AE2100D3 ignition exciters produce?

    • 1 to 3.

    • 2 to 5.

    • 3 to 6.

    • 4 to 7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 to 7.
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 ignition exciters can produce a range of 4 to 7 sparks per second.

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  • 42. 

    Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?  

    • Through a heat exchanger.

    • Out the turbine case bleed holes.

    • Into the gas stream to exit the engine.

    • Back to the compressor to be used again.

    Correct Answer
    A. Into the gas stream to exit the engine.
    Explanation
    After the cooling airflow has cooled the turbine section, it is directed into the gas stream to exit the engine. This means that the airflow is released into the exhaust gases and expelled from the engine.

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  • 43. 

    The F100 engine augmentor’s primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the

    • T5 amplifier.

    • Unified control.

    • Afterburner fuel control.

    • Convergent exhaust nozzle control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergent exhaust nozzle control.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is convergent exhaust nozzle control. The primary nozzle actuator of the F100 engine augmentor is driven by cables from the convergent exhaust nozzle control. This control system is responsible for adjusting the position and shape of the exhaust nozzle, which helps regulate the flow of exhaust gases and optimize engine performance.

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  • 44. 

    Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?

    • Unified.

    • Combined.

    • Bimechanical.

    • Electrosecondary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified.
    Explanation
    A unified fuel metering device is a jet engine component that combines two separate fuel controls into a single unit. This allows for more efficient and streamlined fuel management in the engine.

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  • 45. 

    Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

    • Dry sump.

    • Wet sump.

    • Cold tank.

    • Hot tank.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry sump.
    Explanation
    A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank that is mounted to the side of the engine, rather than in the oil pan (sump) at the bottom of the engine. This design allows for a larger oil capacity, better oil control, and improved lubrication, especially in high-performance or racing engines. The oil is pumped from the tank to the engine, and then returns to the tank to be cooled and recirculated. In contrast, a wet sump system stores the oil in the engine's oil pan, which is located underneath the engine.

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  • 46. 

    The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?

    • Minimum of 10 seconds.

    • Minimum of 20 seconds.

    • Maximum of 10 seconds.

    • Maximum of 20 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum of 10 seconds.
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for a minimum of 10 seconds during negative G conditions. This means that even in situations where the aircraft is experiencing negative G forces, the oil tank pendulum will continue to provide pressurized oil for at least 10 seconds.

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  • 47. 

    On the T56 engine, at what percent of engine RPM is the ignition system turned off?

    • 16%.

    • 30%.

    • 65%.

    • 94%.

    Correct Answer
    A. 65%.
    Explanation
    The ignition system on the T56 engine is turned off at 65% of engine RPM. This means that once the engine reaches 65% of its maximum rotational speed, the ignition system is no longer needed to maintain combustion and can be safely turned off.

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  • 48. 

    From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?

    • Generator.

    • Aircraft battery.

    • Essential DC bus.

    • Engine-mounted alternator stator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Engine-mounted alternator stator.
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 ignition system receives its electrical power from the engine-mounted alternator stator. This component generates electricity through the rotation of the engine, providing a continuous source of power for the ignition system. Unlike the other options listed, such as the generator, aircraft battery, or essential DC bus, the engine-mounted alternator stator is specifically designed to supply power to the ignition system.

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  • 49. 

    What is the output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?

    • 1 to 20 VAC.

    • 20 to 40 VAC.

    • 40 to 60 VAC.

    • 60 to 80 VAC.

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 to 40 VAC.
    Explanation
    The output VAC of the AE2100D3 alternator stator is in the range of 20 to 40 VAC.

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