CDC Volume 3 Edit Code 2

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

    • A.

      Gasoline and kerosene.

    • B.

      Gasoline and diesel fuel.

    • C.

      Diesel fuel and kerosene.

    • D.

      Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gasoline and kerosene.
    Explanation
    JP-8 fuel is a military specification jet fuel that is commonly used by the United States military. It is a kerosene-based fuel that is blended with gasoline. This composition allows JP-8 fuel to have a higher flash point and better performance in cold weather compared to regular jet fuel. The gasoline component also helps to improve the energy density of the fuel, making it more efficient for use in military aircraft.

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  • 2. 

    At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Four.

    • D.

      Five.

    Correct Answer
    C. Four.
    Explanation
    Water will take four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline at room temperature.

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  • 3. 

    Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system’s susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the

    • A.

      Lower viscosity of jet fuels.

    • B.

      Higher viscosity of jet fuels.

    • C.

      Lower viscosity of free water.

    • D.

      Higher viscosity of free water.

    Correct Answer
    B. Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
    Explanation
    Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes can experience icing conditions in their fuel system. This is because the lower temperatures at high altitudes can cause the jet fuel to become more viscous. The higher viscosity of the jet fuel can lead to a higher likelihood of ice formation within the fuel system, which can impact its performance and potentially cause issues for the aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is higher viscosity of jet fuels.

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  • 4. 

    The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

    • A.

      Flameout.

    • B.

      Turbine seizure.

    • C.

      Compressor shift.

    • D.

      Overtemperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flameout.
    Explanation
    The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By carefully controlling the fuel flow, it ensures that the engine operates within safe limits and prevents flameout. Flameout refers to the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber, which can occur if the fuel-air mixture is not properly maintained. This can happen during acceleration if the fuel flow is not adequately controlled, leading to a loss of thrust and potentially dangerous situations. Therefore, the main fuel control is essential in preventing flameout and maintaining the engine's safe operation.

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  • 5. 

    The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

    • A.

      Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • B.

      Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • C.

      Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • D.

      Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is important because fuel needs to be heated in order to vaporize properly and improve combustion efficiency. On the other hand, oil needs to be cooled to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. Therefore, a fuel/oil cooler serves the purpose of maintaining the optimal temperature for both the fuel and the oil in a fuel system.

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  • 6. 

    During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

    • A.

      A green flag pops out of the filter.

    • B.

      Fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low.

    • C.

      A differential pressure indicator is actuated.

    • D.

      There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.

    Correct Answer
    C. A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
    Explanation
    A differential pressure indicator is actuated when a fuel filter is clogged. This means that there is a noticeable difference in pressure on either side of the filter, indicating that it is obstructed and not allowing fuel to flow freely. This can be a helpful visual indication during a visual inspection to determine if the fuel filter needs to be replaced.

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  • 7. 

    On a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?

    • A.

      Regulating engine RPM.

    • B.

      Regulating compressor discharge pressure.

    • C.

      Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.

    • D.

      Controlling turbine inlet temperature.

    Correct Answer
    D. Controlling turbine inlet temperature.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is controlling turbine inlet temperature. In a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, the thrust production is controlled by regulating the temperature of the air entering the turbine. By controlling the turbine inlet temperature, the engine can adjust the power output and consequently the thrust produced. This is achieved by regulating the fuel flow and adjusting the combustion process to maintain the desired temperature level.

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  • 8. 

    During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of

    • A.

      RPM.

    • B.

      Inlet temperature.

    • C.

      Burner pressure.

    • D.

      Inlet pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Burner pressure.
    Explanation
    During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of burner pressure. This means that the fuel flow is adjusted based on the pressure in the burner, which is the part of the engine where fuel is burned to generate thrust. By monitoring and regulating the burner pressure, the fuel control system can ensure that the engine is operating efficiently and safely during deceleration. RPM, inlet temperature, and inlet pressure may also be important factors in engine operation, but in this specific scenario, burner pressure is the most relevant parameter for scheduling fuel flow.

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  • 9. 

    What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?

    • A.

      Pneumatic.

    • B.

      Fuel injection.

    • C.

      Hydromechanical.

    • D.

      Electrohydromechanical.

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrohydromechanical.
    Explanation
    Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine. This type of fuel control combines electrical and hydraulic systems to regulate the flow of fuel into the engine. The thermocouples measure temperature, relays control electrical signals, amplifiers boost signals, and solenoids control the flow of hydraulic fluid. This integrated system ensures precise and efficient fuel control for optimal engine performance.

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  • 10. 

    Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?

    • A.

      Unified.

    • B.

      Combined.

    • C.

      Bimechanical.

    • D.

      Electrosecondary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified.
    Explanation
    A unified fuel metering device is a jet engine component that combines two separate fuel controls into a single unit. This allows for more efficient and streamlined fuel management in the engine.

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  • 11. 

    Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be

    • A.

      Replaced.

    • B.

      Die marked.

    • C.

      Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • D.

      Applied a thread locking compound.

    Correct Answer
    C. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
    Explanation
    During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set to ensure proper functioning. To prevent tampering or accidental adjustment after the procedure, these screws should be safety sealed and/or lockwired. Safety sealing involves applying a seal or marking to indicate that the screws have been properly set and should not be tampered with. Lockwiring involves using a wire or other locking device to physically secure the screws in place. This ensures that the screws remain in their correct positions and prevents any unintended adjustments.

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  • 12. 

    When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

    • A.

      MEC.

    • B.

      PMG.

    • C.

      TSFC.

    • D.

      DEEC.

    Correct Answer
    D. DEEC.
    Explanation
    The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine when it is in the primary mode. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, temperature, and pressure to ensure optimal performance and efficiency. It receives inputs from various sensors and uses algorithms to make real-time adjustments to the engine's operation. This control system helps maintain the engine's performance within safe limits and maximize its efficiency.

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  • 13. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

    • A.

      Oil.

    • B.

      Fuel.

    • C.

      Ram air.

    • D.

      Hydraulic fluid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Fuel.
    Explanation
    The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) is a critical component in the F100-PW-220 engine. It is responsible for regulating and controlling the engine's performance. Since the DEEC is an electronic device, it generates heat during operation. To prevent overheating and ensure proper functioning, it needs to be cooled. In the case of the F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by fuel. This means that a portion of the fuel flowing through the engine is diverted to cool the DEEC, dissipating the heat and maintaining optimal operating conditions.

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  • 14. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
    Explanation
    The MFC (Main Fuel Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is capable of operating in two modes.

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  • 15. 

    Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?

    • A.

      Fuel nozzle.

    • B.

      P&D valve.

    • C.

      N2 sensor.

    • D.

      Tt 2.5 sensor.

    Correct Answer
    B. P&D valve.
    Explanation
    The P&D valve is the fuel system component that controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system. It regulates the flow of fuel to maintain the correct pressure for efficient engine operation. The fuel nozzle, N2 sensor, and Tt 2.5 sensor are not directly involved in controlling the pressurization of the fuel system.

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  • 16. 

    Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?

    • A.

      7th.

    • B.

      10th.

    • C.

      13th.

    • D.

      14th.

    Correct Answer
    C. 13th.
    Explanation
    The 13th stage of the compressor drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine.

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  • 17. 

    Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

    • A.

      AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • B.

      MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • C.

      AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.

    • D.

      Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.

    Correct Answer
    B. MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the order in which the fuel flows through the different components of the engine. It starts at the MFC (Main Fuel Control), which regulates the fuel flow. Then, it goes through the fuel/oil cooler, which cools the fuel and oil. Next, it passes through the P&D (Pump and Drain Valve), which controls the flow and drains any excess fuel. Finally, it reaches the fuel nozzles, where the fuel is injected into the combustion chamber.

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  • 18. 

    On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?

    • A.

      3 gear; 1 boost.

    • B.

      2 gear; 2 boost.

    • C.

      2 gear; 1 boost.

    • D.

      1 gear; 2 boost.

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 gear; 1 boost.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 gear; 1 boost. This means that the fuel pump and filter assembly on the T56 engine contains two gear pumps and one boost pump. Gear pumps are used to deliver a steady flow of fuel at a consistent pressure, while the boost pump is responsible for providing additional fuel pressure during high power settings or in case of a failure in the gear pumps.

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  • 19. 

    On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?

    • A.

      Temperature.

    • B.

      Engine speed.

    • C.

      Throttle position.

    • D.

      Compressor inlet pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressor inlet pressure.
    Explanation
    The rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve on a T56 engine is controlled by the compressor inlet pressure. This pressure is used to regulate the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine, ensuring proper combustion and performance. By adjusting the fuel flow based on the compressor inlet pressure, the engine can maintain optimal operating conditions at different power settings and altitudes.

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  • 20. 

    Which T56 engine component receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement?

    • A.

      TD valve.

    • B.

      Fuel control.

    • C.

      TD control.

    • D.

      Fuel nozzle.

    Correct Answer
    A. TD valve.
    Explanation
    The TD valve receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement.

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  • 21. 

    In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T–56 engine fuel nozzle require?

    • A.

      Nondestructive.

    • B.

      Spray pattern.

    • C.

      Pre-torque.

    • D.

      Ultrasonic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Spray pattern.
    Explanation
    The T-56 engine fuel nozzle requires a spray pattern inspection in addition to visual inspection. This suggests that the spray pattern of the fuel nozzle needs to be checked to ensure that it is functioning correctly. This type of inspection is important as it helps to verify that the fuel is being sprayed evenly and efficiently, which is crucial for the engine's performance.

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  • 22. 

    In what position must the TD valve switches be placed in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?

    • A.

      OFF.

    • B.

      NULL.

    • C.

      AUTO.

    • D.

      LOCKED.

    Correct Answer
    B. NULL.
    Explanation
    The TD valve switches must be placed in the NULL position in order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative.

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  • 23. 

    On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples?

    • A.

      TD valve.

    • B.

      Speed-sensitive control.

    • C.

      TD potentiometers.

    • D.

      TD amplifier.

    Correct Answer
    D. TD amplifier.
    Explanation
    The TD amplifier on the T56 engine compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature) signal from the thermocouples. This comparison helps to ensure that the engine is operating at the correct temperature and that the throttle setting is accurately adjusted based on the TIT signal. The TD amplifier plays a crucial role in maintaining the engine's performance and efficiency.

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  • 24. 

    Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?

    • A.

      TD valve.

    • B.

      Main fuel pump.

    • C.

      TD amplifier.

    • D.

      Fuel control.

    Correct Answer
    A. TD valve.
    Explanation
    The TD valve is the component that sends the fuel to the fuel manifold in the T56 engine.

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  • 25. 

    On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when fuel pressure, in psi, in the manifold reaches

    • A.

      30 psi.

    • B.

      40 psi.

    • C.

      50 psi.

    • D.

      60 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 psi.
    Explanation
    The manifold pressure switch on the T56 engine is designed to open and deenergize the fuel enrichment relay when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches a certain level. In this case, the correct answer is 50 psi. This means that when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches or exceeds 50 psi, the manifold pressure switch will open, causing the fuel enrichment relay to be deenergized.

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  • 26. 

    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?

    • A.

      0%.

    • B.

      10%.

    • C.

      20%.

    • D.

      30%.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20%.
    Explanation
    When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that there is no bypass of fuel through the valve. Therefore, the valve will not bypass any fuel, resulting in 0% fuel bypass.

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  • 27. 

    The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?

    • A.

      Compressor.

    • B.

      Power section.

    • C.

      Torquemeter shaft.

    • D.

      Reduction gearbox.

    Correct Answer
    B. Power section.
    Explanation
    The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever the power section component has been replaced. This is because the power section is responsible for generating power in an engine, and any changes or replacements in this section can affect the temperature datum system. Therefore, it is important to perform a static check on the temperature datum system after replacing the power section to ensure its proper functioning.

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  • 28. 

    When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?

    • A.

      Gear.

    • B.

      Gerotor.

    • C.

      Rotogear.

    • D.

      Sliding vane.

    Correct Answer
    C. Rotogear.
    Explanation
    The given options are different types of oil pumps. Gear, gerotor, and sliding vane are all types of oil pumps. However, "rotogear" is not a recognized type of oil pump. Therefore, the correct answer is Rotogear.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

    • A.

      Gear.

    • B.

      Gerotor.

    • C.

      Rotogear.

    • D.

      Sliding vane.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gerotor.
    Explanation
    A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor work together to create a pumping action, drawing oil into the pump and then forcing it out under pressure. This type of pump is commonly used in automotive engines and other machinery to circulate oil and lubricate moving parts.

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  • 30. 

    Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

    • A.

      AC high-voltage.

    • B.

      DC high-voltage.

    • C.

      Continuity.

    • D.

      Polarity.

    Correct Answer
    C. Continuity.
    Explanation
    Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are used to determine if there is a continuous electrical path between two points, ensuring that there are no breaks or interruptions in the circuit. By checking continuity, chip detectors can identify any potential faults or issues in the electrical system.

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  • 31. 

    Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

    • A.

      Air.

    • B.

      Fuel.

    • C.

      Hydraulic.

    • D.

      Pneumatic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air.
    Explanation
    An air oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Both the air oil cooler and the radiator use air to cool down a fluid, whether it is oil or coolant. In both cases, the fluid passes through a series of tubes or fins, and air is blown or drawn over these tubes or fins to dissipate the heat. This process helps to cool down the fluid and prevent overheating. Therefore, the correct answer is air.

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  • 32. 

    What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?

    • A.

      Silicone.

    • B.

      Carbon.

    • C.

      Synthetic.

    • D.

      Labyrinth.

    Correct Answer
    D. Labyrinth.
    Explanation
    A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and has a complex structure that allows a small amount of airflow. This airflow helps to prevent oil seepage by creating a barrier that makes it difficult for the oil to escape. The labyrinth design consists of multiple small channels or grooves that create a tortuous path for the oil, reducing the likelihood of leakage.

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  • 33. 

    Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

    • A.

      Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.

    • B.

      Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • C.

      Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.

    • D.

      Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.

    Correct Answer
    A. Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
    Explanation
    Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal construction, which makes them susceptible to damage. This is why extreme care should be taken when working with them.

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  • 34. 

    When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

    • A.

      Air pressure.

    • B.

      Oil pressure.

    • C.

      Spring pressure.

    • D.

      Hydraulic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Spring pressure.
    Explanation
    When an engine is not operating, the static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that a spring is used to apply a constant force on the seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the rotating shaft and prevents any leakage of oil. This preload is necessary to maintain the seal's effectiveness even when the engine is not running and there is no oil or hydraulic pressure available.

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  • 35. 

    The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and

    • A.

      Oil jet pressure.

    • B.

      Fan turbine speed.

    • C.

      Oil nozzle condition.

    • D.

      Number of oil jets used.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oil nozzle condition.
    Explanation
    The oil pressure in the F100-PW-100 engine is influenced by various factors such as rear compressor rotor speeds, engine inlet oil temperature, and oil jet pressure. However, the condition of the oil nozzle specifically affects the oil pressure.

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  • 36. 

    In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?

    • A.

      Aerator.

    • B.

      Deaerator.

    • C.

      Check valve.

    • D.

      Bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deaerator.
    Explanation
    A deaerator is a device that is used to remove air and other gases from the oil in an engine oil tank. It works by heating the oil and allowing the gases to escape, effectively separating them from the oil. This helps to prevent air bubbles from forming in the oil, which can cause damage to the engine and reduce its efficiency.

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  • 37. 

    Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

    • A.

      Dry sump.

    • B.

      Wet sump.

    • C.

      Cold tank.

    • D.

      Hot tank.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry sump.
    Explanation
    A dry sump oil system stores the oil in a separate tank that is mounted to the side of the engine, rather than in the oil pan (sump) at the bottom of the engine. This design allows for a larger oil capacity, better oil control, and improved lubrication, especially in high-performance or racing engines. The oil is pumped from the tank to the engine, and then returns to the tank to be cooled and recirculated. In contrast, a wet sump system stores the oil in the engine's oil pan, which is located underneath the engine.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?

    • A.

      Cold tank.

    • B.

      Wet tank.

    • C.

      Dry tank.

    • D.

      Hot tank.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hot tank.
    Explanation
    The hot tank oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem. In this design, the oil cooler is located in the high-pressure side of the system, which allows for efficient cooling of the oil. This design is commonly used in applications where the oil temperature needs to be closely controlled and maintained within a specific range. By placing the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem, the hot tank design ensures that the oil is adequately cooled before it is returned to the system, helping to prevent overheating and potential damage to the components.

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  • 39. 

    On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the

    • A.

      Oil tank.

    • B.

      Gearbox.

    • C.

      Oil filter.

    • D.

      Oil pump.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gearbox.
    Explanation
    The breather pressurizing valve on an F100 engine is internally mounted in the gearbox. This means that it is located inside the gearbox rather than being a separate component. The purpose of the breather pressurizing valve is to regulate the pressure within the gearbox, ensuring that it is at the appropriate level for optimal performance. By being internally mounted, it is able to directly control the pressure within the gearbox, making it an essential component for the engine's operation.

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  • 40. 

    If the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the

    • A.

      Button is defective.

    • B.

      Scheduled oil change is due.

    • C.

      Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.

    • D.

      Design pressure differential has been exceeded.

    Correct Answer
    D. Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
    Explanation
    When the red button on an F100-PW–220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, it indicates that the design pressure differential has been exceeded. The design pressure differential refers to the maximum pressure difference that the oil filter can handle before it is considered to be operating outside of its intended range. This could be caused by factors such as a clogged filter or a malfunctioning oil pump, which leads to an excessive pressure buildup within the system.

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  • 41. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

    • A.

      Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

    • B.

      Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

    • C.

      Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

    • D.

      Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
    Explanation
    The air/oil coolers on an F100-PW-220 engine are mounted on the fan duct and use secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are designed to be cooled by the air that is being pushed by the secondary fan. This airflow helps to dissipate heat from the oil and keep it at a suitable temperature for optimal engine performance.

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  • 42. 

    On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

    • A.

      Oil relief valve.

    • B.

      Filter poppet valve.

    • C.

      Oil pressure transmitter tap.

    • D.

      Filter assembly bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    D. Filter assembly bypass valve.
    Explanation
    The filter assembly bypass valve is the component that allows oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts. This is necessary because cold weather can cause the oil to thicken and make it difficult for it to flow through the filter. By bypassing the filter, the oil can flow more easily and ensure proper lubrication of the engine during startup.

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  • 43. 

    The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?

    • A.

      Minimum of 10 seconds.

    • B.

      Minimum of 20 seconds.

    • C.

      Maximum of 10 seconds.

    • D.

      Maximum of 20 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum of 10 seconds.
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for a minimum of 10 seconds during negative G conditions. This means that even in situations where the aircraft is experiencing negative G forces, the oil tank pendulum will continue to provide pressurized oil for at least 10 seconds.

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  • 44. 

    Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    B. 5
    Explanation
    The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 gallons per minute (GPM) at engine PTO.

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  • 45. 

    What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?

    • A.

      Alternator stator.

    • B.

      Prop gearbox.

    • C.

      PUAD.

    • D.

      GMAD.

    Correct Answer
    D. GMAD.
    Explanation
    The GMAD (Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive) is the component that drives the PGB (Propeller Gearbox) lube and scavenge pump in the AE2100D3 engine. The GMAD is responsible for transmitting power from the engine to various accessories, including the lube and scavenge pump. This ensures proper lubrication and scavenging of the propeller gearbox, which is essential for the smooth operation of the engine. The other options mentioned, such as the alternator stator, prop gearbox, and PUAD, are not directly involved in driving the PGB lube and scavenge pump.

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  • 46. 

    The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below

    • A.

      2 US gallons.

    • B.

      3 US gallons.

    • C.

      4 US gallons.

    • D.

      5 US gallons.

    Correct Answer
    C. 4 US gallons.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4 US gallons. This means that the ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine will occur when the engine oil level drops below 4 US gallons.

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  • 47. 

    The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

    • A.

      Toxicity.

    • B.

      Viscosity.

    • C.

      Alkalinity.

    • D.

      Corrosiveness.

    Correct Answer
    D. Corrosiveness.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the ability to cause damage or deterioration to metal surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important hazard for a journeyman to be aware of, as it can lead to the degradation of engine components and potentially compromise the safety and performance of the aircraft.

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  • 48. 

    The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is

    • A.

      Improved safety.

    • B.

      Increased component life.

    • C.

      Reduced maintenance cost.

    • D.

      Increased equipment availability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved safety.
    Explanation
    The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is improved safety. By detecting potential failures in advance, necessary precautions can be taken to prevent accidents or injuries. This ensures a safer working environment for employees and reduces the risk of equipment malfunction or failure causing harm to individuals.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

    • A.

      Project monitor.

    • B.

      Logistics commander.

    • C.

      Propulsion flight chief.

    • D.

      Laboratory supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Project monitor.
    Explanation
    The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (presumably referring to some kind of project or system) operates properly. They oversee the project and monitor its progress, making sure that everything is running smoothly and according to plan. The logistics commander, propulsion flight chief, and laboratory supervisor may have other responsibilities related to the project, but it is the project monitor's role to ensure its proper operation.

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  • 50. 

    What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

    • A.

      Wear metals.

    • B.

      Friction metals.

    • C.

      Precious metals.

    • D.

      Transformation metals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wear metals.
    Explanation
    Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are formed as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the engine or machinery. They are typically small and can be detected through oil analysis. The presence of wear metals in the oil can indicate the level of wear and potential damage to the components. Therefore, monitoring wear metals is important for maintenance and diagnosing potential issues in the system.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Iloveproprofs
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