CDC Volume 2 Multiple Choice

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1. When units change status but do not change function or miision files are

Explanation

When units change status but do not change function or mission, their files are continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred. This means that the files will be treated as if there was no change in their status and will be processed and retained in the same manner as before the change.

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About This Quiz
CDC Volume 2 Multiple Choice - Quiz

The 'CDC volume 2 multiple choice' quiz assesses knowledge on records management within organizations. It covers the utility of past records, types of records in various scenarios, roles... see morein records management, and lifecycle management of electronic records. Essential for professionals in records and information management. see less

2. Who is responsible for preparing and coordination on all proposed replies to a freedom of information act FOIA responsibility

Explanation

The FOIA manager is responsible for preparing and coordinating all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) request. They are in charge of ensuring that all necessary information is gathered and organized, and that the appropriate responses are provided in a timely manner. The FOIA manager acts as the point of contact for any inquiries or requests related to FOIA, and is responsible for overseeing the entire process of handling FOIA requests within an organization.

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3. What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person

Explanation

Before a record can be loaned to an authorized person, the determination that must be made is the period of time the record is needed. This is important because it helps in managing the loan period and ensuring that the record is returned within the specified time frame. It also helps in planning for any potential conflicts or overlaps in loan requests, allowing for efficient utilization of the record.

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4. Top secret material should never be sent

Explanation

The correct answer is "through the base information transfer system." This is because the base information transfer system is a secure and controlled method of communication within a military base. It ensures that only appropriately cleared and designated persons have access to the top-secret material, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or leakage. Sending top-secret material through this system helps maintain confidentiality and protects sensitive information from falling into the wrong hands.

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5. How is a past record useful to an organization

Explanation

A past record is useful to an organization because it provides a record of past events, which can be used as a reference for future decisions. It acts as a basis for analyzing and learning from past experiences, allowing the organization to avoid repeating mistakes and make more informed choices. Additionally, a past record becomes part of the organizational memory, ensuring that valuable knowledge and information are retained and can be accessed by future members of the organization. Therefore, all of the given options are valid reasons for why a past record is useful to an organization.

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6. What is the first step in perparing the file plan for your office

Explanation

The first step in preparing the file plan for your office is determining what type of records your office is responsible for. This involves identifying the different categories or types of records that your office generates or receives in the course of its operations. By understanding the types of records your office is responsible for, you can then proceed to develop a file plan that organizes and manages these records effectively. This step sets the foundation for the rest of the file plan development process.

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7.   what should be done when shipping classified and unclassified records

Explanation

When shipping classified and unclassified records, it is important to separate the records before shipping. This is necessary to ensure that the classified information remains secure and does not get mixed with unclassified records. By separating the records, it helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information during transportation.

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8. How are magnetic mediums and tapes disposed ofa                                      

Explanation

Magnetic mediums and tapes can be disposed of by degaussing or overwriting. Degaussing involves using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the medium, making it unreadable. Overwriting, on the other hand, involves writing new data over the existing data, effectively making the old data unrecoverable. Both methods ensure that the sensitive information stored on the magnetic medium or tape is securely erased before disposal.

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9. What are the appropriate procedures for handeling classified infromation that you remove from an approved storage container

Explanation

When handling classified information that is removed from an approved storage container, it is important to keep it under constant watch and cover it with the appropriate classified cover sheet. This ensures that the information remains secure and protected from unauthorized access. By keeping it under constant watch, any potential security breaches can be immediately identified and addressed. Covering it with the appropriate classified cover sheet adds an additional layer of protection and clearly indicates the sensitive nature of the information. This procedure helps to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information.

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10. Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking and to ensure the accuracy of the tasking

Explanation

The sender has the responsibility to ensure that the intended receiver receives the tasking and to ensure the accuracy of the tasking. As the one initiating the task, it is the sender's duty to make sure that the task is properly communicated and understood by the receiver. They are also responsible for verifying that the tasking is accurate and complete before sending it to the receiver.

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11. Who is the focal point for the freedom of information act FOIA portion of the installation web site

Explanation

The correct answer is FIOA manager. The FIOA manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the implementation of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site. They are the focal point for handling requests for information under the FOIA and ensuring compliance with the act's regulations. They work closely with the system manager, installation commander, and director of communication and information to ensure that the installation's web site provides accurate and accessible information in accordance with the FOIA.

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12. What type of record is createed when it contains work related information but it exist for the officals peronal use and is not for transacting governmetn businees

Explanation

The correct answer is "personal only". This means that the record being created contains work-related information, but it is intended for the personal use of the official and is not meant for transacting government business. This suggests that the record is not meant to be shared or used for official purposes, but rather for the personal reference or use of the individual.

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13. What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records

Explanation

Agencies should develop a plan of action to respond to emergencies or disasters that may damage records. This plan will outline the necessary steps and procedures to be followed in order to protect and preserve records in the event of an emergency. It will ensure that agencies are prepared to quickly and effectively respond to any potential threats or damages to records, minimizing the impact on their accessibility and integrity. Having a plan of action in place will enable agencies to efficiently recover and restore records, ensuring their continued availability and usability.

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14. What information does not appear on a subdivision lable

Explanation

A subdivision label typically includes information such as the title, item number, and office of record. However, the cutoff information does not appear on a subdivision label. The cutoff refers to the date or time at which a particular process or activity ends or is no longer valid. This information is not typically included on a subdivision label as it is not directly relevant to identifying or categorizing the subdivision.

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15. Which of the following is not a cutoff period

Explanation

The given options consist of different time periods. "Monthly," "fiscal year," and "calendar year" are all cutoff periods used to divide time into specific intervals. However, "quarterly" is not a cutoff period. It refers to a specific division of a year into four equal parts, each consisting of three months. Therefore, "quarterly" is not a cutoff period like the other options provided.

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16. What type of security classification involves infromation that is paraphrased or rotated

Explanation

Derivative security classification involves information that is paraphrased or rotated. This means that the original information is modified or transformed in some way to create new content. It is different from the original classification and may be used to protect sensitive or classified information while still allowing for communication or dissemination of certain aspects.

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17. Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exist

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for ensuring that an adequate local destruction facility exists. This means that they have the authority and duty to oversee the establishment and maintenance of a facility that can effectively destroy materials or items that need to be disposed of. This responsibility falls within their role as the commander of the installation, as they are accountable for the overall operations and resources of the base.

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18. What act requires that federal employees and the general public with disabilities have access to and use of information that is comparable to that by people without disabilities

Explanation

The correct answer is the Rehabilitation Act. This act requires that federal employees and the general public with disabilities have access to and use of information that is comparable to that by people without disabilities. The Rehabilitation Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs conducted by federal agencies, in programs receiving federal financial assistance, in federal employment, and in the employment practices of federal contractors. It aims to ensure equal opportunities and accessibility for individuals with disabilities.

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19. Up to what amount is that fine that may be imposed for maintaining a privacy act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure

Explanation

The correct answer is 5000. This means that the maximum fine that can be imposed for maintaining a privacy act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure is $5000.

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20. What type of air force correspondence recieves the most endorsements

Explanation

Memorandums are likely to receive the most endorsements in air force correspondence. This is because memorandums are formal written messages used for internal communication within an organization. They are typically used to convey important information, instructions, or decisions to multiple recipients. As such, they often require endorsement or approval from various individuals or departments before being finalized and distributed. In contrast, messages, personal letters, and staff summaries may not require the same level of endorsement or approval, making memorandums the most likely option to receive endorsements.

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21. Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a freedom of information act FIOA request

Explanation

The FIOA manager is responsible for making initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided in a Freedom of Information Act (FIOA) request. They are the primary point of contact for evaluating and handling FIOA requests, ensuring that the appropriate processing and disclosure authorities are followed. The FIOA manager plays a crucial role in managing the flow of information and ensuring compliance with the FIOA regulations.

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22. Who on a base completes the DD form 2564, annual report freedom of information act FOIA

Explanation

The correct answer is the base FOIA manager. The DD form 2564, annual report freedom of information act FOIA, is completed by the base FOIA manager. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the implementation of the Freedom of Information Act at the base level. They are knowledgeable about the requirements and processes involved in handling FOIA requests and maintaining records in accordance with FOIA regulations.

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23. What type of records does th staging area store

Explanation

The staging area stores both permanent and temporary records. This means that it holds information that is intended to be kept for a long time, as well as data that is only needed temporarily. The permanent records may include important historical data or essential information for future reference, while the temporary records could be data that is being processed or used for a specific task and will be discarded once that task is completed. Having a combination of both types of records allows for efficient data management and storage in the staging area.

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24. What classification designation is assigned to infromation or material of which unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security

Explanation

The correct answer is "secret" because this classification designation is assigned to information or material that, if disclosed without authorization, could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security. This level of classification is higher than "confidential" and "unclassified," indicating a higher level of sensitivity and potential harm if the information is compromised. However, it is lower than "top secret," which is reserved for information that could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security if disclosed.

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25. Which of the following is not a valid method of checking an individuals security clearance

Explanation

The method of checking an individual's security clearance by checking their current military identification card is not valid because a military identification card only confirms the person's identity and affiliation with the military, but it does not provide information about their security clearance level. Security clearances are typically determined and managed through separate processes and databases, such as the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) mentioned in the other options.

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26. Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times

Explanation

Personnel who have access to classified material are responsible for protecting and accounting for it at all times. This means that individuals who are granted access to classified information are entrusted with the responsibility of safeguarding it and ensuring its proper handling and storage. They are expected to follow strict protocols and procedures to prevent unauthorized access, loss, or compromise of classified material. This includes maintaining accurate records of the material's whereabouts and reporting any discrepancies or security breaches. By assigning this responsibility to personnel with authorized access, there is a higher level of accountability and control over classified information.

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27. What is any knowing willful or negligent action that could reasonablly be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information

Explanation

The term "violation" refers to any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information. This means that if someone intentionally or carelessly engages in an activity that could lead to the unauthorized release of classified information, it would be considered a violation.

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28. To help control accountable communications while in air frorce channels the air force uses

Explanation

The air force uses container numbers to help control accountable communications while in air force channels. Container numbers provide a way to track and identify specific shipments or packages, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and controlled. This helps to maintain the security and integrity of communications within the air force, as well as facilitate efficient and organized handling of shipments.

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29. Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number

Explanation

The correct answer is UUB-08-058. This is an accurate example of an accountable container number because it follows the format of three letters, followed by two digits, followed by three digits. The letters UUB represent a specific code or identifier, the digits 08 represent the year, and the digits 058 represent a unique identifier for the container.

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30. What are considered informational publications and normally are how to documents

Explanation

Pamphlets are considered informational publications and are typically how-to documents. They are often used to provide concise and specific information on a particular topic or issue. Pamphlets are designed to be easily accessible and portable, making them a convenient resource for readers seeking guidance or instructions. Unlike catalogs, directories, and handbooks, which may serve different purposes such as advertising or providing comprehensive information, pamphlets are specifically focused on delivering instructional content in a concise format.

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31. A from used air force wide or by more than one MAJCOm, FOA or DRU and is prescribed by an air force instruction or manual is a

Explanation

A departmental form is the correct answer because it is a form that is used by multiple MAJCOMs, FOAs, or DRUs in the Air Force. It is also prescribed by an Air Force instruction or manual. This suggests that it is a form that is standardized and widely used across different departments or units within the Air Force.

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32. How many interim changes can the office of primary responsibility issue before tottally revising the publication

Explanation

The office of primary responsibility can issue a maximum of 5 interim changes before completely revising the publication. This suggests that there may be a need for periodic updates or adjustments to the publication, but after the fifth interim change, a total revision of the publication would be required.

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33. How must social security numbers be protected

Explanation

The correct answer is "for official use only". Social security numbers should be protected by restricting access to only authorized individuals or entities who require the information for official purposes. This ensures that the sensitive personal information is not disclosed or used inappropriately, maintaining the privacy and security of individuals' social security numbers.

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34. What should you remove from a document prior to filing

Explanation

In order to file a document properly, it is necessary to remove any unnecessary items that may obstruct the process. Envelopes are typically removed from documents before filing as they serve no purpose once the document is placed in a file. Envelopes are used for mailing or protecting documents during transportation, but they are not needed for storage purposes. Therefore, removing envelopes from a document prior to filing ensures a more organized and efficient filing system.

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35. What is the officisl daily publication for rules proposed rules and notices of federal agencies and organizations and other presidential documents

Explanation

The correct answer is the federal register. The federal register is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, as well as other presidential documents. It serves as a comprehensive and transparent record of the federal government's activities and provides the public with access to important information regarding regulations and policies.

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36. Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents

Explanation

The correct answer is "periodicals" because this mail class is specifically designated for authorized publishers and registered newsagents. It is meant for the distribution of magazines, newspapers, and other periodical publications. This class ensures that only authorized individuals or organizations can utilize it, making it exclusive to the publishing industry.

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37. Who provides referral services for incoming administration communications that are not addressed properly

Explanation

The activity distribution office is responsible for providing referral services for incoming administration communications that are not addressed properly. This means that if a communication is received by the office and it is not properly addressed, they will ensure that it is directed to the appropriate department or individual. They play a crucial role in ensuring that all communications are properly distributed within the organization.

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38. What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of top secret infromation occured

Explanation

If unauthorized disclosure of top secret information occurred, the level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected to be exceptionally grave. This implies that the consequences would be extremely serious and have a significant impact on the security of the nation. The unauthorized disclosure of top secret information could potentially compromise sensitive intelligence, jeopardize ongoing operations, and endanger the safety of individuals involved. Therefore, the term "exceptionally grave" accurately represents the severity of the potential damage to national security in such a scenario.

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39. Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations

Explanation

The purpose of classified markings and designations is not to provide guidance on the disposition of records. Classified markings and designations are used to give information on the source of the information, alert holders to the presence of classified information, and warn holders of special access control or safeguarding requirements. However, they do not provide guidance on how to handle or dispose of classified records.

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40. When you mail classified material address containers to the

Explanation

The correct answer is "office that is to take action on it." When mailing classified material, it is important to address the containers to the office that will be responsible for taking action on the materials. This ensures that the classified information is received by the appropriate personnel who will handle and process it according to the necessary protocols and security measures. It is crucial to direct the materials to the correct office to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information.

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41. When must componenets provide a final response to a freedom of information act request that complies with the requesting requiremtnts

Explanation

Components must provide a final response to a Freedom of Information Act request that complies with the requesting requirements within 20 working days. This means that the component has a maximum of 20 working days to respond to the request and provide the necessary information or documents. It is important for components to adhere to this timeframe in order to ensure transparency and accountability in the handling of Freedom of Information Act requests.

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42. Who does a requester submit an appeal to when a freedom of information act office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or m ore of the exemptions

Explanation

When a freedom of information act office withholds a record from release due to one or more exemptions, a requester can submit an appeal to the secretary of the air force. The secretary of the air force holds the authority to review and reconsider the decision made by the freedom of information act office. They have the power to overturn the decision and release the requested record if they deem it appropriate.

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43. What type of record is created when the air national guard is creating the records and federal emergency managment agency gets involved and the federal dollars are put towards the emergency

Explanation

When the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) gets involved and federal dollars are used for the emergency, a federal record is created. This suggests that the involvement of the federal agency and the allocation of federal funds are the determining factors in the creation of the record.

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44. How does the air froce records information managemnet system ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series

Explanation

The correct answer ensures standardization and accuracy of every record series by ensuring that offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records. This means that all offices follow the same guidelines and procedures when it comes to managing and disposing of records, which helps to maintain consistency and accuracy throughout the Air Force's information management system. By having uniform instructions for record disposition, the system can ensure that records are handled in a standardized and accurate manner, preventing any discrepancies or errors.

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45. What should be considered before using small storage devices for storing or transporting classified information

Explanation

Before using small storage devices for storing or transporting classified information, it is important to consider the inherent risk of loss. This means assessing the likelihood of the storage device being lost or misplaced, which could potentially lead to unauthorized access to the classified information. By considering this risk, appropriate security measures can be implemented to mitigate the potential consequences of such loss.

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46. Destruction procedure are instituted for classified material to make sure

Explanation

The correct answer is that destruction procedures are instituted for classified material to make sure that all classified information intended for destruction is actually destroyed. This means that there are specific protocols in place to ensure that classified information is securely and thoroughly destroyed, leaving no trace or possibility of it being accessed or recovered. This is an important step in maintaining the confidentiality and security of classified information.

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47. To reduce costly ineffective and redundant information collections and reporting requiremnents is the information collection and reports management programs

Explanation

The purpose of the information collection and reports management programs is to reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements. These programs aim to streamline and improve the process of gathering and reporting information, ensuring that only necessary and valuable data is collected and reported. By doing so, the programs help to eliminate unnecessary expenses and improve the overall efficiency and effectiveness of information management.

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48. Multipurpose written briefs that provide information forward items of interest or summarize problems are

Explanation

Background papers are multipurpose written briefs that provide information on items of interest or summarize problems. They are typically used to provide background information on a specific topic or issue. Unlike briefings, which are more focused on providing updates or recommendations, background papers aim to provide a comprehensive understanding of the subject matter. Position papers, on the other hand, are documents that present a particular position or argument on a specific topic. Memorandums for record are written records of important information or decisions. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is background papers.

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49. When using additional copies of a record for cross referencing how is the cross refernce location identified

Explanation

When using additional copies of a record for cross referencing, the cross reference location is identified by marking each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed. This method allows for easy identification of the location of each copy of the record, ensuring efficient cross referencing.

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50. Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information

Explanation

The processor determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information. The processor is responsible for reviewing the recipient's request and evaluating their clearance level, job responsibilities, and the sensitivity of the information being requested. They ensure that the recipient meets all the necessary criteria and can be trusted with the classified information.

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51. The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stya in a controlled enviornment is to mail them

Explanation

Registering containers is the best choice for ensuring their accountability and keeping them in a controlled environment. By registering containers, their ownership and location can be easily tracked and monitored. This helps in preventing theft, loss, or unauthorized access to the containers. Registering also allows for proper documentation and legal compliance, making it a reliable method for maintaining accountability and control over containers.

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52. How does the air force accomplish its elecronic communications objective

Explanation

The air force accomplishes its electronic communications objective by preparing all correspondence using plain language. This means that they avoid using jargon or technical terms that may be difficult for recipients to understand. By using plain language, the air force ensures that their communications are clear, concise, and easily comprehensible to all recipients. This helps to facilitate effective communication and ensure that messages are accurately conveyed and understood.

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53. What are the two traditional types of vital records

Explanation

The correct answer is emergency operating records and records needed to protect rights. These two types of vital records are essential for the proper functioning of emergency operations and for safeguarding individual rights. Emergency operating records include documents necessary for the continued operation of an organization during an emergency or disaster situation. Records needed to protect rights refer to documents that are crucial for ensuring the rights and interests of individuals are upheld and protected. These two types of records are important for maintaining efficiency and accountability in various situations.

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54. Who does the office of primary responsibility submit an AF form 525 records dispostion recommendation to

Explanation

The office of primary responsibility submits an AF form 525 records disposition recommendation to the records manager. The records manager is responsible for overseeing the management and disposition of records within an organization. They ensure that records are properly maintained, stored, and disposed of in accordance with applicable regulations and policies.

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55. Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2 to 8 year rentention records in the current files area

Explanation

The base records manager is the individual who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2 to 8 year rentention records in the current files area. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the records at the base level, including determining the appropriate retention period for different types of records. They have the authority to grant waivers for keeping certain records in the current files area for a longer period of time.

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56. The main reason to use and IN TURN memorandum is to allow

Explanation

The main reason to use an IN TURN memorandum is to allow the final addressee to see the coordination of other addressees. This means that the final recipient of the memorandum can observe how other recipients are coordinating and responding to the information or request in the memorandum. This allows for transparency and visibility among the addressees, ensuring that everyone is aware of the actions and decisions made by others.

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57. Who acts as the declassified authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records

Explanation

The office of primary responsibility is responsible for acting as the declassification authority when it is necessary and for coordinating the release or denial of records. They are the main entity in charge of ensuring that information is properly classified and released in accordance with regulations and policies. They play a crucial role in managing the disclosure of information and ensuring that it is done in a responsible and appropriate manner.

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58. Who appoints a records custiodian

Explanation

The chief of office of record appoints a records custodian. The chief of office of record is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within an organization. They have the authority to designate individuals as custodians of specific records, who are then responsible for the proper handling, storage, and retrieval of those records.

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59. Decision logic tables form a compehensive group of series that contain records disposition schedules approved by the

Explanation

Decision logic tables form a comprehensive group of series that contain records disposition schedules approved by the National Archives and Records Administration.

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60. Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products

Explanation

Producing is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products. The process typically involves formatting the content, posting it on a platform or website, and storing it for future access. Producing refers to the creation or development of the content, which precedes the publishing process.

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61. To ensure proper life cycle management where msut signed approved officail e-records be transferred to

Explanation

The signed approved official e-records must be transferred to a shared drive designated for records to ensure proper life cycle management. This shared drive is specifically designated for storing and managing records, ensuring their accessibility and security. By transferring the e-records to this shared drive, it allows for centralized management, easy retrieval, and collaboration among authorized individuals for coordination and sharing purposes.

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62. The records infroamtion management systems files maintenance and dipostion plan list all of the following except

Explanation

The records information management systems files maintenance and disposition plan lists the disposition authorities, the location of each record series, and all record series for the office of record. However, it does not include the record cutoff period. This period refers to the point at which records are no longer actively used or updated and are ready for disposition.

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63. Records not authorized for a specific dispostion have a retention period of what

Explanation

Records not authorized for a specific disposition have a retention period of permanent. This means that these records are to be kept indefinitely and should not be disposed of or destroyed. The term "permanent" indicates that there is no set time limit for retaining these records and they should be preserved for as long as they are deemed necessary or valuable.

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64. What must you do with unsealed containers endorse DO NOT FORWARD that remain in action offices at the close of business

Explanation

At the close of business, unsealed containers in action offices should be inspected to determine the classification of their contents. This is important to ensure that any sensitive or classified information is protected accordingly. By inspecting the contents, the appropriate measures can be taken to safeguard the information, such as storing it in a classified storage container or taking other necessary precautions. This helps to maintain the security and confidentiality of the documents or items within the containers.

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65. Each  of the following is a description of files cutoff except

Explanation

The correct answer is "transfer of eligible records to the records staging area". This option does not describe a file cutoff. A file cutoff refers to the process of physically stopping the addition of records to a series, separating active records from inactive records, or the point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file. However, the transfer of eligible records to the records staging area does not directly relate to the concept of file cutoff.

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66. How are long term elecronic records handled

Explanation

Long-term electronic records are handled by being stored within the Air Force. This means that the Air Force is responsible for maintaining and managing these records, ensuring their accessibility and security. Storing the records within the Air Force allows for easier access and control over the records, as they can be readily accessed by authorized personnel when needed. This also ensures that the records remain within the organization and can be properly managed and protected according to the Air Force's regulations and guidelines.

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67. Forms provide an expanded capability to manage all of the following except

Explanation

Forms provide an expanded capability to manage collection, storage, and retrieval of data, but they do not provide a capability for disposal. Disposal refers to the process of getting rid of or discarding something, and it is not a function that forms typically offer. Forms are primarily used for gathering, organizing, and storing data, not for disposing of it.

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68. What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements

Explanation

The correct answer is "reports control symbol". A reports control symbol is a management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements. It helps in organizing and tracking different reports within an organization, ensuring that they are properly documented, monitored, and controlled. This tool helps in maintaining consistency and accuracy in reporting, streamlining the reporting process, and facilitating effective communication within the organization.

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69. Which is not a form memorandum

Explanation

"Fill in" is the correct answer because it means to complete or provide information in the blank spaces of a form or document. "Fill out" is a synonym of "fill in" and also means to complete a form. "Prewritten" refers to something that is already written in advance, while "optional statement" refers to a statement that is not required or mandatory. Both "prewritten" and "optional statement" are forms of memorandums, so they are not the correct answer.

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70. Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter

Explanation

Administrative changes to publications generally refer to modifications in the formatting, layout, or distribution of the content. These changes do not have any impact on the subject matter itself. The given answer, "content authority purpose and applications," suggests that these aspects are the ones affected by administrative changes. This means that any modifications made to the content, the authority behind it, the intended purpose, or the applications it serves can be altered administratively, while the subject matter remains unchanged.

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71. When is a special review conducted

Explanation

A special review is conducted when the OPR (Office of Primary Responsibility) decides that a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review. This implies that the OPR has the authority to initiate a special review if they determine that changes are necessary before the scheduled two-year review of the publication.

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72. Who will perform periodic reviews to identify and remove draft recordss housed within the shared drives and work with the network control dcenter staff to monitor validate sturcture and stoage location protection methods

Explanation

The unit record professionals will perform periodic reviews to identify and remove draft records housed within the shared drives. They will also work with the network control center staff to monitor and validate structure and storage location protection methods.

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73. In which section of Part I of the air force publishing product announcemnent would you find general information

Explanation

In the given question, the correct answer is section d. This section is likely to contain general information because it is the last section mentioned in the options. Typically, the sections of a document are arranged in a logical order, with general information often being presented towards the end. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that section d would contain the general information in the air force publishing product announcement.

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74. In which section of Part II of the air force publishing product annoucement would you find obsolete

Explanation

Obsolete information is typically found in the section that discusses outdated or no longer relevant content. In this case, the correct answer is section b, indicating that obsolete information can be found in that particular section of Part II of the air force publishing product announcement.

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75. messaging class requires a message release authority and is directive in nature

Explanation

The messaging class being referred to requires a message release authority, which suggests that it is a high-level service within an organization. Additionally, the fact that it is directive in nature further supports the idea that it is an organizational high grade service. Therefore, the correct answer is organizational high grade service.

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