CDC 3S071 Personnel Craftsman Vol. 3. Personnel Operations Edit Code 01

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  • 1/56 Questions

    In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?

    • Mortuary affairs.
    • Security forces.
    • Honor guard.
    • Casualty team
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in personnel management within military operations, focusing on responsibilities such as UIF monitoring and promotion eligibility. It is designed for individuals aiming to excel in roles such as 3S0X1 and 3A0X1, enhancing command and personnel management skills.

CDC 3S071 Personnel Craftsman Vol. 3. Personnel Operations Edit Code 01 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The casualty representative must wait for 24 hours before releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public. This waiting period allows for proper notification of the deceased personnel's next of kin and ensures that the family has been informed and given the opportunity to process the information before it becomes public knowledge.

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  • 3. 

    In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an Air Force member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?

    • The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPW.

    • The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS.

    • Public affairs and the medical training facility.

    • Public affairs and local news station.

    Correct Answer
    A. The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS. The notification officer must confirm completed notification with these two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty. This ensures that all necessary parties are informed and that the proper procedures are followed in notifying the next of kin and handling the situation.

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  • 4. 

    If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element forward to the member's commander?

    • Af IMT 899

    • Security requirement memorandum.

    • VOP checklist.

    • AF IMT 1001.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security requirement memorandum.
    Explanation
    The Career Development element forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander when their assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the one on file. This memorandum serves as a request for the necessary security clearance upgrade or update to ensure that the member is eligible and authorized for the new assignment.

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  • 5. 

    What is the main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliability program?

    • Ensure they are progressing in their job.

    • Ensure they do not have any questions.

    • Observe their on-the-job training.

    • Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor the reliability and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information
    Explanation
    The main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliability program is to monitor the reliability of the supervisees and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information. This means that supervisors are responsible for ensuring that their supervisees meet the necessary requirements and standards for the program, and they are tasked with reporting any information that could potentially disqualify the supervisees from participating in the program. This helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the personnel reliability program.

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  • 6. 

    How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision?

    • 1 calender day

    • 1 duty day

    • 3 calendar days

    • 3 duty days

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 duty days
    Explanation
    An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision. This means that they have three working days to respond and provide the necessary information or feedback.

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  • 7. 

    For ill or injured casualties, all of the following personal information may be released Except

    • Name and gender.

    • Rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number.

    • Date entered active duty.

    • Social, securitY number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Social, securitY number.
    Explanation
    The personal information that may be released for ill or injured casualties includes name and gender, rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number, and date entered active duty. However, the social security number is not typically released due to privacy and security concerns.

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  • 8. 

    The following documents are located in the relocation folder except  

    • Assignment selection letter, message, or RIP.

    • Decoration Citation.

    • Reassignment orders and all amendments.

    • Relocation processing memorandum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decoration Citation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "decoration Citation." This is because the question asks for the document that is NOT located in the relocation folder. The other options, such as the assignment selection letter, message, RIP, reassignment orders and all amendments, and relocation processing memorandum, are all documents that can be found in the relocation folder. However, the decoration Citation is not related to the relocation process and therefore would not be included in the folder.

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  • 9. 

    Enlisted and officers are required to attend weapons training when they are selected for an assignment

    • Overseas

    • To Maxwell AFB AL.

    • To Elmendorf AFB AK..

    • To Langley AFB VA.

    Correct Answer
    A. Overseas
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Overseas." The explanation for this is that when enlisted and officers are selected for an assignment overseas, they are required to attend weapons training. This is likely because they will be in a new environment with potentially different threats and security protocols, so it is important for them to be trained in the use of weapons to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

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  • 10. 

    If a member is going contingency TDY, which element will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures?

    • Personnel Support.

    • Personnel Readiness.

    • Career Development.

    • Customer Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Readiness.
    Explanation
    When a member is going contingency TDY (Temporary Duty), Personnel Readiness will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures. This element is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly prepared and ready for their assigned duties, including handling administrative tasks such as outprocessing and relocation. Personnel Support may provide general support to personnel, Career Development focuses on career advancement and training, and Customer Support deals with providing assistance and support to customers.

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  • 11. 

    If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force PME and formal training, what system would use?

    • Personnel data training system.

    • Oracle training administration.

    • Military personnel data system.

    • Automated records management system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle training administration.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle training administration. This system is used as the source of record for all Air Force PME (Professional Military Education) and formal training. It is a comprehensive platform that manages and tracks personnel training data, including courses completed, certifications earned, and training requirements. It provides a centralized database for maintaining accurate and up-to-date training records for Air Force personnel.

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  • 12. 

    The unit manning document provides all of the following except authorized positions a unit is allowed to

    • Recruit

    • Train

    • Promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime missions.

    • Share with other units

    Correct Answer
    A. Share with other units
    Explanation
    The unit manning document provides authorized positions a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime missions. However, it does not include information about sharing resources or personnel with other units.

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  • 13. 

    After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?

    • Transaction register (TR) reflecting UIF updates oniy.

    • TR reflecting projected UIF expiration dates only.

    • TR reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates.

    • Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates.

    Correct Answer
    A. TR reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates.
    Explanation
    After updating a UIF/control roster, the output product that you will receive is a Transaction Register (TR) reflecting both UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. This means that the TR will show any changes or updates made to the UIF/control roster as well as the projected expiration dates for the UIF.

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  • 14. 

    If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT must he/she utilize?

    • 1058

    • 1137

    • 3070

    • 330

    Correct Answer
    A. 1058
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1058. The AF IMT 1058 is the form that must be utilized by a commander if they wish to initiate removal actions from the control roster. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized process for documenting and initiating the removal actions. It is important for commanders to use the correct form to ensure that the proper procedures are followed and that all necessary information is documented accurately.

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  • 15. 

    For deceased casualties, all of the following personal information may be released except

    • Pay date, military base pay, and allowances.

    • Any information on the member's family.

    • Age and date of birth.

    • Home of record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any information on the member's family.
    Explanation
    Deceased casualties are individuals who have passed away. In such cases, certain personal information can be released, including pay date, military base pay, allowances, age and date of birth, and home of record. However, any information on the member's family should not be released. This is likely due to privacy concerns and the sensitivity of the information, as it could potentially impact the family members of the deceased.

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  • 16. 

    When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the member's eligibility?

    • 7

    • 14

    • 30

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, they have 7 days to verify the member's eligibility.

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  • 17. 

    What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?

    • E

    • F

    • G

    • H

    Correct Answer
    A. G
    Explanation
    The promotion eligibility status code associated with adverse actions is G.

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  • 18. 

    What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?

    • 12 and 14

    • 12 and 16

    • 16 and 18

    • 16 and 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 and 16
    Explanation
    Assignment availability codes are used to indicate the availability of military personnel for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against military personnel for misconduct or poor performance. The assignment availability codes associated with adverse actions are 12 and 16. Code 12 indicates that the individual is under suspension or investigation, while code 16 indicates that the individual is pending disciplinary action. These codes suggest that the individuals with these codes are not currently available for assignment due to their involvement in adverse actions.

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  • 19. 

    All of the following are publications that apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties except

    • AFI 35-101,Public Affairs Policies and Procedures

    • AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.

    • AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.

    • AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. This publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties. The other publications listed, AFI 35-101, AFSUPDODR 5400.7, and AFI 33-332, all pertain to policies and procedures for public affairs, the Freedom of Information Act program, and the Air Force Privacy Act program respectively, which are all relevant to releasing information on casualties.

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  • 20. 

    After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military members?

    • DD Form 93 and SGLV 8286 only.

    • SGLV 8286 and DD Form 4 only.

    • DD Form 93, SGLV 8286, and DD Form 214.

    • Form 93, SGL V 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI.

    Correct Answer
    A. Form 93, SGL V 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI.
    Explanation
    The CAR needs to fax Form 93, SGL V 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI. This is because these documents are necessary for reporting and processing the casualty information of military members. Form 93 is the Record of Emergency Data, which provides important information about the member's next of kin and other essential details. SGL V 8286 is the Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Election and Certificate, which is required for insurance purposes. DD Form 4 is the Enlistment/Reenlistment Document, which contains important information about the member's service. Any other VA forms related to SGLI may be needed for additional information or claims processing.

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  • 21. 

    Which element/function updates the duty status for all contingency TDY s?

    • Customer Support element.

    • Career Development element.

    • Force Manage~ent operati?ns element.

    • Personnel Readmess FunctIOn.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Readmess FunctIOn.
    Explanation
    The Personnel Readiness Function is responsible for updating the duty status for all contingency TDYs. This function ensures that the personnel are ready and available for their assigned duties during contingency operations. It is their role to maintain accurate and up-to-date information regarding the duty status of individuals involved in contingency TDYs. This includes tracking their availability, readiness, and any changes in their duty status. By efficiently managing this information, the Personnel Readiness Function plays a crucial role in ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the personnel during contingency operations.

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  • 22. 

    All of the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except

    • Update Article 15 related actions.

    • Utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool.

    • Aupdate UIF codes 1, 2, and 3.

    • Administer UIF documentation to individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administer UIF documentation to individual.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of administering UIF documentation to individuals is not a customer support element responsibility. Customer support elements are typically focused on providing assistance and resolving customer issues, while administering UIF documentation is more likely a task related to human resources or administrative functions.

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  • 23. 

    Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?

    • 14

    • 28

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 14
    Explanation
    After receiving the assignment rip, the unit commander has a maximum of 14 days to return it to the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section.

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  • 24. 

    Where is the AF IMT 907 kept?

    • It is not kept. It is sent to the automated records management system.

    • It is kept in the member's personal information file.

    • In the relocation folder.

    • It is given to Customer Support.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the relocation folder.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In the relocation folder." This suggests that the AF IMT 907 is stored in a specific folder dedicated to relocation-related documents. This implies that the AF IMT 907 is a form or document that is relevant to the process of relocating, and it is kept in a designated folder to ensure easy access and organization.

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  • 25. 

    If a member requires a passport and/or visa, the Career Development element will advise the members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than how many days after their initial briefmg?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    The Career Development element advises members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than 15 days after their initial briefing. This suggests that it takes some time to complete the passport and/or visa processing, and starting the process within 15 days allows for sufficient time to obtain the necessary documents before any travel or assignments.

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  • 26. 

    Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element will publish PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 60
    Explanation
    The Career Development element typically publishes PCS orders 60 days prior to departure. This allows sufficient time for the individual to make necessary arrangements and preparations for their move. It ensures that there is enough time for administrative processes such as housing arrangements, transportation, and any required paperwork to be completed before the departure date.

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  • 27. 

    If a member is PCSing to a stateside assignment, he/she can outprocess no earlier than

    • 1 duty day prior to departure date.

    • 2 days prior to departure date.

    • 3 days prior to departure date.

    • 4 days prior to departure date.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 duty day prior to departure date.
    Explanation
    A member who is PCSing (Permanent Change of Station) to a stateside assignment can outprocess no earlier than 1 duty day prior to their departure date. This means that they are required to complete all necessary paperwork and procedures related to their move on the day before they are scheduled to leave.

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  • 28. 

    Commanders have the ability to access the APPC secure/link on the AP Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name

    • Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country.

    • MAJCOM, unit, line number, APSC, and PAS code only.

    • Unit, APSC, PAS code, and PFE/SKT test scores.

    • APSC and PAS code only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country.
    Explanation
    Commanders have the ability to access the APPC secure/link on the AP Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that commanders can retrieve information about enlisted promotions including the individual's name, the MAJCOM they belong to, their unit, line number, AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), PAS code, and their state or country of origin.

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  • 29. 

    Which element/function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion?

    • Customer Support element.

    • Career Development element.

    • Force Management Operations element.

    • Personnel Readiness Function.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Development element.
    Explanation
    The Career Development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element focuses on the professional growth and advancement of officers in their careers. They assess the qualifications and performance of officers and determine their readiness for promotion. By doing so, they ensure that officers are eligible and deserving of higher ranks or positions within the organization.

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  • 30. 

    For personnel assigned to a critical personnel reliability program position, all of these attributes apply except

    • Has access and technical knowledge.

    • Can either directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon.

    • Has been designated as a certifying offiCial at operational unit.

    • Has access to the "turn key" for the missiles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Has access to the "turn key" for the missiles.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has access to the 'turn key' for the missiles." This attribute does not apply to personnel assigned to a critical personnel reliability program position. The "turn key" refers to the physical key or code required to activate or launch a missile, and it is typically restricted to a select few individuals for security reasons. Therefore, it is unlikely that personnel in a critical personnel reliability program position would have access to the "turn key" for the missiles.

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  • 31. 

    When a certifying official is conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program, the interview will cover, as a minimum all of the following except

    • The significance of the PRP assignment.

    • The~need for reliable performance.

    • Provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information.

    • Inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married.
    Explanation
    The certifying official conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program will cover the significance of the PRP assignment, the need for reliable performance, and provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information. However, they will not inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married.

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  • 32. 

    Airman are not used outside of their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code

    • E

    • F

    • O

    • H

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Airman are not used outside of their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code. The assignment limitation code O indicates that the Airman has a medical condition that restricts them from performing certain duties or being assigned to certain locations. This code ensures that the Airman is not placed in a position that could potentially worsen their medical condition or put them at risk. Therefore, Airman with an assignment limitation code O are not utilized outside of their Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC).

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  • 33. 

    Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?

    • Force Management Operations element.

    • Customer Support element.

    • Career Development element.

    • Unfavorable Information File element.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer Support element.
    Explanation
    The Customer Support element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF. This element provides administrative support and assistance to military personnel, including maintaining personnel records and managing the UIF. They ensure that all relevant documents and statements are properly filed and recorded in the UIF, which is a repository for unfavorable information about military personnel.

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  • 34. 

    What is the name of the system the Career Development element utilizes to manage training rips?

    • Personnel data system.

    • Personnel data training system.

    • Military personnel data system.

    • Oracle training administration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oracle training administration.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle training administration. This system is used by the Career Development element to manage training rips.

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  • 35. 

    The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Section will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of the following except

    • The board convening date.

    • Name and rank of the most junior officer.

    • Name and rank of the most senior officer.

    • Name and rank of the board president.

    Correct Answer
    A. Name and rank of the board president.
    Explanation
    The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Section will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it will not include the name and rank of the board president.

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  • 36. 

    Which mission personnel section element manages the unit personnel management documents?

    • Personnel Readiness.

    • Customer Support element.

    • Force Management operations element.

    • Career Development element.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Management operations element.
    Explanation
    The Force Management operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management documents. This includes maintaining and updating personnel records, processing personnel actions, and ensuring compliance with personnel policies and regulations. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the unit's personnel are properly managed and that all necessary documentation is in order. The Personnel Readiness, Customer Support, and Career Development elements may have their own roles and responsibilities within the mission personnel section, but they do not specifically handle unit personnel management documents.

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  • 37. 

    Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?

    • 899

    • 63

    • 907

    • 965

    Correct Answer
    A. 63
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 63. AF IMT form 63 is used to contract an active duty service commitment.

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  • 38. 

    PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the following except

    • Air Staff.

    • Joint Staff.

    • DOD agencies.

    • The installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. The installation commander.
    Explanation
    PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the mentioned entities except the installation commander. PERSTEMPO refers to personnel tempo, which is the measurement of the time that military personnel spend away from their home station due to deployments, temporary duty assignments, or other operational requirements. This data is important for tracking and managing personnel deployment and readiness. The Air Staff, Joint Staff, and DOD agencies are responsible for overseeing and managing military operations, including personnel deployment. However, the installation commander is primarily responsible for the day-to-day operations and management of a specific military installation, and therefore may not require PERSTEMPO data.

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  • 39. 

    When units identify mistakes or needed changes to the positions on their unit manning document, who will they work with to get the changes completed?

    • Base-level manpower

    • MAJCOM manpower.

    • Functional area manager.

    • MAJCOM readiness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional area manager.
    Explanation
    Units will work with the functional area manager to get changes completed in their unit manning document when they identify mistakes or needed changes. The functional area manager is responsible for managing the manpower requirements and ensuring that the unit manning document accurately reflects the positions needed within the unit. They have the authority to make changes and adjustments to the document based on the unit's needs and requirements. Working with the functional area manager ensures that any changes or corrections are properly addressed and implemented in a timely manner.

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  • 40. 

    Local emergencies or overages may be the basis for an airman's prolonged assignment outside of the normal career progression pattern. To negate any career regression, assignments should be rotated between

    • All airmen in the same CAFSC.

    • All airmen in the same DAFSC.

    • All airmen regardless of CAFSC or DAFSC.

    • Senior airman and chief master sergeants.

    Correct Answer
    A. All airmen in the same CAFSC.
    Explanation
    Assignments for airmen may be prolonged outside of the normal career progression pattern due to local emergencies or overages. To prevent any career regression, it is recommended to rotate assignments among all airmen in the same CAFSC (Career Air Force Specialty Code). This ensures fairness and equal opportunities for career advancement within the specific specialty.

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  • 41. 

    Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0Xl, civilian, or a 3AOXI and a UIF monitor?

    • Commander

    • MPS Commander

    • Customer Support NCOIC

    • Force Support Superintendent

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander
    Explanation
    The responsibility to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3AOXI and a UIF monitor lies with the Commander.

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  • 42. 

    Once the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services. officers and the PA office the member's

    • Age, home of record, race, and gender.

    • Religion, age, race, home address, and gender.

    • Name, age, home of record, and mantal status.

    • Name, age, home of record, and race.

    Correct Answer
    A. Name, age, home of record, and race.
    Explanation
    The CAR provides mortuary services after notifying the family members of casualties. In order to carry out these services effectively, the CAR needs to gather certain information about the deceased member. This includes their name, age, home of record, and race. These details are important for the mortuary services to properly identify and handle the remains of the deceased individual.

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  • 43. 

    If the formal training office is located outside of the Career Development element, which agency is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers?

    • Force Management operations element.

    • Military Personnel section.

    • Career Development element.

    • Customer Support element.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Development element.
    Explanation
    The Career Development element is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers, even if the formal training office is located outside of it. This means that they have the authority and accountability for overseeing and coordinating the training activities within the organization. The other options, such as the Force Management operations element, Military Personnel section, and Customer Support element, may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers.

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  • 44. 

    To ensure training quotas are managed effectively the formal training section is responsible ensure all the following except

    • Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment.

    • Individuals have the commander's approval.

    • Individuals filling quotas are qualified.

    • Individuals follow reporting instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Individuals are qualified regardless of active duty service commitment.
    Explanation
    The formal training section is responsible for managing training quotas effectively. This includes ensuring that individuals have the commander's approval, individuals filling quotas are qualified, and individuals follow reporting instructions. However, the formal training section is not responsible for ensuring that individuals are qualified regardless of their active duty service commitment. This means that the section does not have the authority or responsibility to overlook a person's commitment to active duty service when determining their qualification for a training quota.

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  • 45. 

    What is the purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application?

    • Eliminates the delay of IlOtification.

    • Provides notification of promo tees only.

    • Provides an advanced notification to promotees.

    • Provides an advanced notification to commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminates the delay of IlOtification.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application is to eliminate the delay of notification. This means that the application is designed to provide instant and timely notifications to individuals who have been promoted, without any delays in the process. It ensures that promotees are promptly informed about their promotion status, allowing them to take necessary actions or prepare for their new roles in a timely manner. This application aims to streamline the promotion process and ensure efficient communication of promotion notifications.

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  • 46. 

    Once a duty status application has been entered, which agency is the first to review the duty status change application?

    • HQ AFPC

    • TFSC

    • Force Support squadron.

    • Military Personnel section.

    Correct Answer
    A. TFSC
    Explanation
    The first agency to review the duty status change application is TFSC.

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  • 47. 

    Who will the reviewing'official work with if they need to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions

    • Competent medical authority.

    • Medical group commander.

    • Medical records technician.

    • Medical treatment facility manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Competent medical authority.
    Explanation
    The reviewing official will work with a competent medical authority to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority has the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the medical records accurately and make informed decisions regarding disqualifications. They are responsible for evaluating the medical conditions of individuals and determining if they meet the required standards for the program.

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  • 48. 

    Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person responsible for the appointment has a maximum of 30 days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor. This letter serves as official confirmation of the appointment and outlines the responsibilities and expectations of the UIF monitor. It is important to send the appointment letter within the specified time frame to ensure a smooth transition and clear communication between the parties involved.

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  • 49. 

    If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?

    • Humanitarian

    • Exceptional Family Member Program.

    • Base of Preference.

    • Equal Plus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Humanitarian
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Humanitarian because in the event of a family member's death, a humanitarian assignment may be offered to the member. This type of assignment allows the member to be relocated to a different location for compassionate reasons, such as being closer to family or for personal support during a difficult time.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 4, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 04, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Floydcarmona
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