CDC 3S071 Personnel Craftsman Vol. 3. Personnel Operations Edit Code 01

56 Questions | Total Attempts: 54

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who's responsibility is it to appoint a 3S0Xl, civilian, or a 3AOXI and a UIF monitor?
    • A. 

      Commander

    • B. 

      MPS Commander

    • C. 

      Customer Support NCOIC

    • D. 

      Force Support Superintendent

  • 2. 
    Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person that appointed the UIF monitor has how many days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      40

  • 3. 
    How many days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision?
    • A. 

      1 calender day

    • B. 

      1 duty day

    • C. 

      3 calendar days

    • D. 

      3 duty days

  • 4. 
    Which element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF?
    • A. 

      Force Management Operations element.

    • B. 

      Customer Support element.

    • C. 

      Career Development element.

    • D. 

      Unfavorable Information File element.

  • 5. 
    All of the following are Customer Support element responsibilities except
    • A. 

      Update Article 15 related actions.

    • B. 

      Utilize Management Assessment Product 6 as a management tool.

    • C. 

      Aupdate UIF codes 1, 2, and 3.

    • D. 

      Administer UIF documentation to individual.

  • 6. 
    What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      F

    • C. 

      G

    • D. 

      H

  • 7. 
    What assignment availability codes are associated with adverse actions?
    • A. 

      12 and 14

    • B. 

      12 and 16

    • C. 

      16 and 18

    • D. 

      16 and 20

  • 8. 
    After updating a UIF/control roster, what is/are the output product/s that you will receive?
    • A. 

      Transaction register (TR) reflecting UIF updates oniy.

    • B. 

      TR reflecting projected UIF expiration dates only.

    • C. 

      TR reflecting UIF updates and UIF expiration dates.

    • D. 

      Military Assessment Product - UIF - reflecting UIF updates.

  • 9. 
    If a commander wishes to initiate removal actions from the control roster, which AF IMT must he/she utilize?
    • A. 

      1058

    • B. 

      1137

    • C. 

      3070

    • D. 

      330

  • 10. 
    Who's responsibility is it to ensure the casualty representative has a private office for counseling the next-of-kin?
    • A. 

      Force Support Squadron commander.

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Section commander.

    • C. 

      Force Support superintendent.

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group commander.

  • 11. 
    It is the responsibility of the casualty representative to prepare written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, outlining the responsibilities of all listed below except
    • A. 

      Force support superintendent.

    • B. 

      Installation command post.

    • C. 

      Unit commanders.

    • D. 

      Security forces .

  • 12. 
    Once the casualty representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, the CAR provides the mortuary services. officers and the PA office the member's
    • A. 

      Age, home of record, race, and gender.

    • B. 

      Religion, age, race, home address, and gender.

    • C. 

      Name, age, home of record, and mantal status.

    • D. 

      Name, age, home of record, and race.

  • 13. 
    If a family member dies, the casualty representative will ensure the member is advised of the opportunity to apply for what type of assignment?
    • A. 

      Humanitarian

    • B. 

      Exceptional Family Member Program.

    • C. 

      Base of Preference.

    • D. 

      Equal Plus.

  • 14. 
    In the case of a mass casualty, who is the first group of people the casualty representative will contact?
    • A. 

      Mortuary affairs.

    • B. 

      Security forces.

    • C. 

      Honor guard.

    • D. 

      Casualty team

  • 15. 
    All of the following are publications that apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties except
    • A. 

      AFI 35-101,Public Affairs Policies and Procedures

    • B. 

      AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.

    • C. 

      AFI 33-332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.

    • D. 

      AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services.

  • 16. 
    How many hours must the casualty representative wait until releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      36

    • D. 

      48

  • 17. 
    In the case of a peacetime casualty, if the casualty is an Air Force member, the notification officer must confirm completed notification with what two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty?
    • A. 

      The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPW.

    • B. 

      The servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS.

    • C. 

      Public affairs and the medical training facility.

    • D. 

      Public affairs and local news station.

  • 18. 
    For ill or injured casualties, all of the following personal information may be released Except
    • A. 

      Name and gender.

    • B. 

      Rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number.

    • C. 

      Date entered active duty.

    • D. 

      Social, securitY number.

  • 19. 
    For deceased casualties, all of the following personal information may be released except
    • A. 

      Pay date, military base pay, and allowances.

    • B. 

      Any information on the member's family.

    • C. 

      Age and date of birth.

    • D. 

      Home of record.

  • 20. 
    After the casualty representative (CAR) learns of a casualty, they complete the necessary reports and they contact HQ AFPC casualty section. Next, the CAR needs to fax what documents on the military members?
    • A. 

      DD Form 93 and SGLV 8286 only.

    • B. 

      SGLV 8286 and DD Form 4 only.

    • C. 

      DD Form 93, SGLV 8286, and DD Form 214.

    • D. 

      Form 93, SGL V 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI.

  • 21. 
    If a permanent party member has a permanent change of station, what system do they use to outprocess?
    • A. 

      VOP

    • B. 

      Personnel data system.

    • C. 

      Military personnel data system.

    • D. 

      Defense integrated military human resource system.

  • 22. 
    When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, how many days do they have to verify the member's eligibility?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 23. 
    Once the Career Development element verifies the member's eligibility for an assignment, who do they send the assignment rip to?
    • A. 

      Superintendent of the Career Development Element.

    • B. 

      Superintendent of the Military Personnel Section.

    • C. 

      Commander of the Force Support Squadron.

    • D. 

      Member's unit commander.

  • 24. 
    Once the unit commander receives the assignment rip on a member, how many days does he/she have before the rip is required to be back at the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section?
    • A. 

      14

    • B. 

      28

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 25. 
    The following documents are located in the relocation folder except  
    • A. 

      Assignment selection letter, message, or RIP.

    • B. 

      Decoration Citation.

    • C. 

      Reassignment orders and all amendments.

    • D. 

      Relocation processing memorandum.

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