CDC 3S071 Personnel Craftsman Vol. 3. Personnel Operations Edit Code 01

In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty representative will first contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and managing the response to casualties, including providing medical care, transportation, and notifying next of kin. They are trained to handle emergencies and are equipped to handle the immediate needs of injured individuals. Contacting the casualty team first ensures that the necessary resources and assistance can be provided promptly to those in need.

The casualty representative must wait for 24 hours before releasing any information on deceased military personnel to the media or the general public. This waiting period allows for proper notification of the deceased personnel's next of kin and ensures that the family has been informed and given the opportunity to process the information before it becomes public knowledge.

The correct answer is the servicing CAR and HQ AFPC/DPFCS. The notification officer must confirm completed notification with these two agencies before the MPS commander releases the names of the casualty. This ensures that all necessary parties are informed and that the proper procedures are followed in notifying the next of kin and handling the situation.

The Career Development element forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander when their assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the one on file. This memorandum serves as a request for the necessary security clearance upgrade or update to ensure that the member is eligible and authorized for the new assignment.

The main objective of supervisors monitoring their supervisees in regards to the personnel reliability program is to monitor the reliability of the supervisees and notify the certifying official of any potentially disqualifying information. This means that supervisors are responsible for ensuring that their supervisees meet the necessary requirements and standards for the program, and they are tasked with reporting any information that could potentially disqualify the supervisees from participating in the program. This helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the personnel reliability program.

An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his/her final decision. This means that they have three working days to respond and provide the necessary information or feedback.

The personal information that may be released for ill or injured casualties includes name and gender, rank, date of rank, commission source, and promotion number, and date entered active duty. However, the social security number is not typically released due to privacy and security concerns.

The correct answer is "decoration Citation." This is because the question asks for the document that is NOT located in the relocation folder. The other options, such as the assignment selection letter, message, RIP, reassignment orders and all amendments, and relocation processing memorandum, are all documents that can be found in the relocation folder. However, the decoration Citation is not related to the relocation process and therefore would not be included in the folder.

The correct answer is "Overseas." The explanation for this is that when enlisted and officers are selected for an assignment overseas, they are required to attend weapons training. This is likely because they will be in a new environment with potentially different threats and security protocols, so it is important for them to be trained in the use of weapons to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

When a member is going contingency TDY (Temporary Duty), Personnel Readiness will handle their outprocessing relocation procedures. This element is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly prepared and ready for their assigned duties, including handling administrative tasks such as outprocessing and relocation. Personnel Support may provide general support to personnel, Career Development focuses on career advancement and training, and Customer Support deals with providing assistance and support to customers.

The correct answer is Oracle training administration. This system is used as the source of record for all Air Force PME (Professional Military Education) and formal training. It is a comprehensive platform that manages and tracks personnel training data, including courses completed, certifications earned, and training requirements. It provides a centralized database for maintaining accurate and up-to-date training records for Air Force personnel.

The unit manning document provides authorized positions a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime missions. However, it does not include information about sharing resources or personnel with other units.

After updating a UIF/control roster, the output product that you will receive is a Transaction Register (TR) reflecting both UIF updates and UIF expiration dates. This means that the TR will show any changes or updates made to the UIF/control roster as well as the projected expiration dates for the UIF.

The correct answer is 1058. The AF IMT 1058 is the form that must be utilized by a commander if they wish to initiate removal actions from the control roster. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized process for documenting and initiating the removal actions. It is important for commanders to use the correct form to ensure that the proper procedures are followed and that all necessary information is documented accurately.

Deceased casualties are individuals who have passed away. In such cases, certain personal information can be released, including pay date, military base pay, allowances, age and date of birth, and home of record. However, any information on the member's family should not be released. This is likely due to privacy concerns and the sensitivity of the information, as it could potentially impact the family members of the deceased.

When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel from HQ AFPC, they have 7 days to verify the member's eligibility.

The promotion eligibility status code associated with adverse actions is G.

Assignment availability codes are used to indicate the availability of military personnel for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against military personnel for misconduct or poor performance. The assignment availability codes associated with adverse actions are 12 and 16. Code 12 indicates that the individual is under suspension or investigation, while code 16 indicates that the individual is pending disciplinary action. These codes suggest that the individuals with these codes are not currently available for assignment due to their involvement in adverse actions.

The correct answer is AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. This publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties. The other publications listed, AFI 35-101, AFSUPDODR 5400.7, and AFI 33-332, all pertain to policies and procedures for public affairs, the Freedom of Information Act program, and the Air Force Privacy Act program respectively, which are all relevant to releasing information on casualties.

The CAR needs to fax Form 93, SGL V 8286, DD Form 4, and any other VA forms related to SGLI. This is because these documents are necessary for reporting and processing the casualty information of military members. Form 93 is the Record of Emergency Data, which provides important information about the member's next of kin and other essential details. SGL V 8286 is the Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Election and Certificate, which is required for insurance purposes. DD Form 4 is the Enlistment/Reenlistment Document, which contains important information about the member's service. Any other VA forms related to SGLI may be needed for additional information or claims processing.

The Personnel Readiness Function is responsible for updating the duty status for all contingency TDYs. This function ensures that the personnel are ready and available for their assigned duties during contingency operations. It is their role to maintain accurate and up-to-date information regarding the duty status of individuals involved in contingency TDYs. This includes tracking their availability, readiness, and any changes in their duty status. By efficiently managing this information, the Personnel Readiness Function plays a crucial role in ensuring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the personnel during contingency operations.

The responsibility of administering UIF documentation to individuals is not a customer support element responsibility. Customer support elements are typically focused on providing assistance and resolving customer issues, while administering UIF documentation is more likely a task related to human resources or administrative functions.

After receiving the assignment rip, the unit commander has a maximum of 14 days to return it to the Career Development element in the Military Personnel Section.

The correct answer is "In the relocation folder." This suggests that the AF IMT 907 is stored in a specific folder dedicated to relocation-related documents. This implies that the AF IMT 907 is a form or document that is relevant to the process of relocating, and it is kept in a designated folder to ensure easy access and organization.

The Career Development element advises members to start processing their passports and/or visas no later than 15 days after their initial briefing. This suggests that it takes some time to complete the passport and/or visa processing, and starting the process within 15 days allows for sufficient time to obtain the necessary documents before any travel or assignments.

The Career Development element typically publishes PCS orders 60 days prior to departure. This allows sufficient time for the individual to make necessary arrangements and preparations for their move. It ensures that there is enough time for administrative processes such as housing arrangements, transportation, and any required paperwork to be completed before the departure date.

A member who is PCSing (Permanent Change of Station) to a stateside assignment can outprocess no earlier than 1 duty day prior to their departure date. This means that they are required to complete all necessary paperwork and procedures related to their move on the day before they are scheduled to leave.

Commanders have the ability to access the APPC secure/link on the AP Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that commanders can retrieve information about enlisted promotions including the individual's name, the MAJCOM they belong to, their unit, line number, AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), PAS code, and their state or country of origin.

The Career Development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element focuses on the professional growth and advancement of officers in their careers. They assess the qualifications and performance of officers and determine their readiness for promotion. By doing so, they ensure that officers are eligible and deserving of higher ranks or positions within the organization.

The correct answer is "has access to the 'turn key' for the missiles." This attribute does not apply to personnel assigned to a critical personnel reliability program position. The "turn key" refers to the physical key or code required to activate or launch a missile, and it is typically restricted to a select few individuals for security reasons. Therefore, it is unlikely that personnel in a critical personnel reliability program position would have access to the "turn key" for the missiles.

The certifying official conducting a personal interview of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program will cover the significance of the PRP assignment, the need for reliable performance, and provide the opportunity for the individual to disclose any potentially disqualifying information. However, they will not inquire about their marital status, where they were married, and on what date they were married.

Airman are not used outside of their CAFSC if they have an assignment limitation code. The assignment limitation code O indicates that the Airman has a medical condition that restricts them from performing certain duties or being assigned to certain locations. This code ensures that the Airman is not placed in a position that could potentially worsen their medical condition or put them at risk. Therefore, Airman with an assignment limitation code O are not utilized outside of their Career Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC).

The Customer Support element in the Military Personnel Section is responsible for filing any statements or documents provided by the individual in the UIF. This element provides administrative support and assistance to military personnel, including maintaining personnel records and managing the UIF. They ensure that all relevant documents and statements are properly filed and recorded in the UIF, which is a repository for unfavorable information about military personnel.

The correct answer is Oracle training administration. This system is used by the Career Development element to manage training rips.

The Career Development element at the Military Personnel Section will issue written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the board convening date, the name and rank of the most junior officer, and the name and rank of the most senior officer. However, it will not include the name and rank of the board president.

The Force Management operations element is responsible for managing the unit personnel management documents. This includes maintaining and updating personnel records, processing personnel actions, and ensuring compliance with personnel policies and regulations. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the unit's personnel are properly managed and that all necessary documentation is in order. The Personnel Readiness, Customer Support, and Career Development elements may have their own roles and responsibilities within the mission personnel section, but they do not specifically handle unit personnel management documents.

The correct answer is 63. AF IMT form 63 is used to contract an active duty service commitment.

PERSTEMPO data is reported to all of the mentioned entities except the installation commander. PERSTEMPO refers to personnel tempo, which is the measurement of the time that military personnel spend away from their home station due to deployments, temporary duty assignments, or other operational requirements. This data is important for tracking and managing personnel deployment and readiness. The Air Staff, Joint Staff, and DOD agencies are responsible for overseeing and managing military operations, including personnel deployment. However, the installation commander is primarily responsible for the day-to-day operations and management of a specific military installation, and therefore may not require PERSTEMPO data.

Units will work with the functional area manager to get changes completed in their unit manning document when they identify mistakes or needed changes. The functional area manager is responsible for managing the manpower requirements and ensuring that the unit manning document accurately reflects the positions needed within the unit. They have the authority to make changes and adjustments to the document based on the unit's needs and requirements. Working with the functional area manager ensures that any changes or corrections are properly addressed and implemented in a timely manner.

Assignments for airmen may be prolonged outside of the normal career progression pattern due to local emergencies or overages. To prevent any career regression, it is recommended to rotate assignments among all airmen in the same CAFSC (Career Air Force Specialty Code). This ensures fairness and equal opportunities for career advancement within the specific specialty.

The responsibility to appoint a 3S0X1, civilian, or a 3AOXI and a UIF monitor lies with the Commander.

The CAR provides mortuary services after notifying the family members of casualties. In order to carry out these services effectively, the CAR needs to gather certain information about the deceased member. This includes their name, age, home of record, and race. These details are important for the mortuary services to properly identify and handle the remains of the deceased individual.

The Career Development element is responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers, even if the formal training office is located outside of it. This means that they have the authority and accountability for overseeing and coordinating the training activities within the organization. The other options, such as the Force Management operations element, Military Personnel section, and Customer Support element, may have their own roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically responsible for the overall management of the training line numbers.

The formal training section is responsible for managing training quotas effectively. This includes ensuring that individuals have the commander's approval, individuals filling quotas are qualified, and individuals follow reporting instructions. However, the formal training section is not responsible for ensuring that individuals are qualified regardless of their active duty service commitment. This means that the section does not have the authority or responsibility to overlook a person's commitment to active duty service when determining their qualification for a training quota.

The purpose of the virtual enlisted promotion release application is to eliminate the delay of notification. This means that the application is designed to provide instant and timely notifications to individuals who have been promoted, without any delays in the process. It ensures that promotees are promptly informed about their promotion status, allowing them to take necessary actions or prepare for their new roles in a timely manner. This application aims to streamline the promotion process and ensure efficient communication of promotion notifications.

The first agency to review the duty status change application is TFSC.

The reviewing official will work with a competent medical authority to review medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority has the necessary expertise and knowledge to assess the medical records accurately and make informed decisions regarding disqualifications. They are responsible for evaluating the medical conditions of individuals and determining if they meet the required standards for the program.

Once the UIF monitor is appointed, the person responsible for the appointment has a maximum of 30 days to send an appointment letter to the base UIF monitor. This letter serves as official confirmation of the appointment and outlines the responsibilities and expectations of the UIF monitor. It is important to send the appointment letter within the specified time frame to ensure a smooth transition and clear communication between the parties involved.

The correct answer is Humanitarian because in the event of a family member's death, a humanitarian assignment may be offered to the member. This type of assignment allows the member to be relocated to a different location for compassionate reasons, such as being closer to family or for personal support during a difficult time.

The casualty representative is responsible for preparing written instructions to supplement AFI 36-3002, which outlines the responsibilities of various individuals. The force support superintendent is not included in the list of individuals whose responsibilities need to be outlined, making it the correct answer.