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Who serves as the base equipment review authorization activity
A.
Equipment accountability office
B.
Stock fund manager
C.
Accountable officer
D.
Property custodian
Correct Answer
A. Equipment accountability office
Explanation The Equipment accountability office serves as the base equipment review authorization activity. This office is responsible for reviewing and authorizing the use and distribution of equipment within the organization. They ensure that all equipment is properly accounted for and that it is being used in accordance with regulations and guidelines. The Equipment accountability office plays a crucial role in maintaining the organization's inventory and ensuring that all equipment is accounted for and properly managed.
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2.
The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between
A.
The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders
B.
The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME)
C.
Organization commanders and the previous custodian
D.
The accountable officer and organization commanders
Correct Answer
A. The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders
Explanation The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders. This means that both parties, the EAO and the organization commanders, must agree on the selection of property custodians. This ensures that there is a consensus and agreement on who will be responsible for the custodianship of the property.
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3.
What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization
A.
Allowance standard
B.
Authorization
C.
Basis of issue
D.
Unit of issue
Correct Answer
C. Basis of issue
Explanation The basis of issue within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. It determines the quantity of items that are authorized to be distributed and helps ensure that resources are allocated appropriately and in accordance with established guidelines.
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4.
Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for an equipment item
A.
Excess exception
B.
Allowance source
C.
Shipment exception
D.
Equipment management
Correct Answer
D. Equipment management
Explanation The code "Equipment management" replaces the cost designator in the ERRCD for an equipment item. This suggests that the cost associated with the equipment item is managed and accounted for within the equipment management system.
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5.
Which expendability, recoverability, repairability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non-equioment authorization inventory data equipment items
A.
NF1
B.
ND1
C.
XB3
D.
XD2
Correct Answer
A. NF1
Explanation The ERRCD NF1 identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items.
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6.
The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items
A.
2005
B.
2003
C.
2001
D.
2000
Correct Answer
A. 2005
Explanation The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.
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7.
Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code?
A.
AF Form 600
B.
AF Form 601
C.
AF Form 2001
D.
AF Form 2005
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 601
Explanation AF Form 601 is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code.
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8.
Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property
A.
Automatic
B.
Post-post
C.
Directed
D.
Prepost
Correct Answer
D. Prepost
Explanation The correct answer is "Prepost." Prepost is the turn-in method used to process the TIN before picking up the property. This suggests that there is a specific process or procedure that needs to be completed before the property can be picked up, and the Prepost method is used to handle this.
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9.
What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins
A.
E
B.
P
C.
R
D.
X
Correct Answer
B. P
Explanation The activity code used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins is P.
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10.
What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins
A.
E
B.
P
C.
R
D.
X
Correct Answer
A. E
Explanation The activity code used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins is "E".
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11.
When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section process what input to reduce or delete an authorization
A.
FCD
B.
FIC
C.
FCI
D.
FID
Correct Answer
C. FCI
Explanation The correct answer is FCI. When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes an FCI input to reduce or delete the authorization. FCI stands for "Force Change Input" and is used to update or change information in a system. In this case, the FCI input is used to reflect the change in equipment authorization status.
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12.
Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions
A.
Q10
B.
Q09
C.
M14
D.
D04
Correct Answer
A. Q10
Explanation The listing "Q10" is used to identify out-of-balance conditions.
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13.
When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt
A.
Allowance source code listing
B.
Consolidated transaction register
C.
Consolidated inventory document register
D.
Custodian authorization / custody receipt listing
Correct Answer
D. Custodian authorization / custody receipt listing
Explanation The custodian authorization / custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is used to document the transfer of custody of property from one individual to another. It serves as a record of who is responsible for the property and provides documentation of the custodian's acknowledgement and acceptance of the property.
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14.
Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment
A.
Training spares
B.
Test station spares
C.
Shop standard spares
D.
Fault isolation spares
Correct Answer
D. Fault isolation spares
Explanation Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed to aid in troubleshooting and identifying issues in equipment, allowing for efficient and effective maintenance and repair. They are essential in ensuring that faults or problems are quickly identified and resolved, minimizing downtime and optimizing equipment performance.
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15.
What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations
A.
Economic order quantity (EOQ)
B.
Condemned qiantity (NCQ)
C.
Requisition objective (RO)
D.
Safety-level quantity (SLQ)
Correct Answer
C. Requisition objective (RO)
Explanation The correct answer is Requisition objective (RO). The RO represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. It is a stock leveling term that helps ensure that enough inventory is available to meet demand and avoid stockouts, while also preventing excess inventory and associated costs. The RO is determined based on factors such as lead time, demand variability, and desired service level. By setting an appropriate RO, businesses can effectively manage their inventory levels and optimize their operations.
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16.
When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used
A.
D
B.
C
C.
B
D.
A
Correct Answer
D. A
Explanation In this question, the correct answer is A. The explanation for this answer is not provided.
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17.
A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form
A.
86
B.
1991
C.
1996
D.
2005
Correct Answer
C. 1996
18.
Which Material Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels
A.
R26
B.
R35
C.
R43
D.
R45
Correct Answer
B. R35
Explanation R35 is the correct answer because it is the Material Management System program that is used specifically for reviewing and validating adjusted stock levels. This program likely has features and functions that allow users to track and analyze changes in stock levels, verify the accuracy of adjustments made, and ensure that the stock records align with the actual physical inventory.
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19.
Which transaction identification code (tric) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (spram) detail
A.
1XA
B.
1UB
C.
1WD
D.
1BS
Correct Answer
A. 1XA
Explanation The transaction identification code (tric) 1XA is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (spram) detail.
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20.
Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (spram) assets
A.
D04
B.
M10
C.
R25
D.
R43
Correct Answer
C. R25
21.
When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base
A.
DSM
B.
MMC
C.
SRC
D.
XHA
Correct Answer
A. DSM
22.
What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets
Correct Answer
C. Weapon / COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
Explanation The correct answer is "Weapon / COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)". This computer listing is used to reconcile communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that all weapons and communications security equipment are properly accounted for and reconciled. It helps in identifying any discrepancies or errors in the inventory and allows for proper management and control of these assets.
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23.
When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type
A.
Special
B.
Transfer
C.
Directed
D.
Nondirected
Correct Answer
C. Directed
Explanation The correct answer is "Directed." When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats, it means they are giving specific instructions or directing the redistribution of items.
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24.
Readiness-based level details are identified by
A.
Type detail L, activity code A
B.
Type detail L, activity code B
C.
Type detail C, activity code A
D.
Type detail C, activity code B
Correct Answer
A. Type detail L, activity code A
Explanation Readiness-based level details are identified by "type detail L, activity code A" because the question is asking for the correct identification of readiness-based level details. The correct identification is when the type detail is "L" and the activity code is "A". The other options either have a different type detail or a different activity code, making them incorrect.
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25.
Which Material Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation
A.
R35
B.
R39
C.
R43
D.
R47
Correct Answer
D. R47
Explanation The R47 Material Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation. This suggests that there may be an issue with the allocation of resources and materials based on the readiness level required for a particular task or operation. By reviewing the R47 listing, potential misallocations can be identified and corrected to ensure that the appropriate resources are available when needed.
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26.
What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers
A.
B7*
B.
BLO
C.
FTR
D.
RDO
Correct Answer
A. B7*
Explanation The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers.
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27.
Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and / or redistribution of base operating stocks
A.
Return
B.
Lateral
C.
Automatic
D.
Nondirected
Correct Answer
D. Nondirected
Explanation When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, it means that the redistribution process is not directed towards any specific location or direction. It is a nondirected redistribution, where the stocks are moved or distributed without a specific target or destination in mind.
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28.
What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment
A.
P
B.
Q
C.
R
D.
Z
Correct Answer
A. P
Explanation The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the return is specifically for an item that was damaged during the shipping process.
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29.
Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen-do not ship
A.
A
B.
1
C.
2
D.
3
Correct Answer
B. 1
Explanation Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code indicates that there is a restriction or hold on the shipment due to legal or regulatory reasons, and it is not safe or allowed to proceed with the shipping process.
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30.
An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code
A.
AO*
B.
Due out (DUO)
C.
Special requisition (SPR)
D.
Due-in cancellation (REC)
Correct Answer
A. AO*
Explanation The correct answer is AO*. An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code AO*. This code is used to indicate that the requisition is automatically generated and sent to the source of supply without any manual intervention.
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31.
Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition
A.
Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS)
B.
Military Standard Tracer Reconciliation Program (MILSTAMP)
C.
Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)
D.
Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
Correct Answer
D. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
Explanation The correct answer is Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS). UMMIPS is a system used in program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. It helps determine the urgency and importance of each request, allowing for efficient allocation of resources and timely fulfillment of orders. This system ensures that critical items are prioritized and delivered promptly, while less critical items are handled accordingly.
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32.
What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply
A.
Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority
B.
FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)
C.
Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD
D.
UND, delivery priority
Correct Answer
B. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND)
Explanation The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply are the Force Activity Designator (FAD) and the Urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help prioritize and determine the urgency of the requisition, ensuring that critical items are given higher priority for delivery.
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33.
What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition
A.
SPC 5
B.
SPC 1
C.
REX 5
D.
REX 1
Correct Answer
D. REX 1
Explanation The code "REX 1" is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.
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34.
Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from outof-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested
A.
Positive
B.
Cancellation
C.
Exception / other
D.
Intransit / shipped
Correct Answer
C. Exception / other
Explanation Exception/other is the correct answer because this MILSTRIP status is used when there are out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, or other conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested. It indicates that there is a deviation from the normal process and requires further investigation or action to resolve the issue.
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35.
Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control
A.
Stock replenishment
B.
Excess stockage
C.
Substitutions
D.
Back orders
Correct Answer
B. Excess stockage
Explanation Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that when there is an excessive amount of stock in the inventory, the system generates cancellation requests to reduce the stock levels. This helps in managing and optimizing the inventory by preventing overstocking and reducing the costs associated with excess stock.
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36.
What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction
identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition
A.
A
B.
C
C.
F
D.
R
Correct Answer
B. C
Explanation The reconciliation flag "C" on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition.
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37.
Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form
A.
1230
B.
1250
C.
1530
D.
1667
Correct Answer
D. 1667
38.
To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least
A.
Once a month
B.
Twice a month
C.
Quarterly
D.
Semiannually
Correct Answer
B. Twice a month
Explanation The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run twice a month in order to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and tracking of shipments to ensure they are in compliance with military standard transportation and movement procedures. Running the program twice a month allows for timely identification of any issues or discrepancies in shipments, allowing for prompt resolution and ensuring the smooth movement of goods.
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39.
Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because of the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list
A.
Parcel post tracer list
B.
Transportation tracer list
C.
Receipt acknowledged error list
D.
Consolidated shipment error list
Correct Answer
C. Receipt acknowledged error list
Explanation The correct answer is Receipt acknowledged error list. This list includes due-ins that have been received but are still in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared. It is a record of acknowledgments that have encountered errors during the receipt process.
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40.
Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable / claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or supply discrepancy report (SDR)
A.
NGV567
B.
NGV577
C.
NGV587
D.
NGV597
Correct Answer
C. NGV587
Explanation The materiel management program that identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or supply discrepancy report (SDR) is NGV587.
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41.
Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation
A.
D18 and R01
B.
Q12 and R01
C.
Q12 and M37
D.
M37 and D18
Correct Answer
A. D18 and R01
Explanation The listings used to perform due-out review and validation are D18 and R01.
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42.
How often are UND C due-outs validated
A.
Daily
B.
Weekly
C.
Monthly
D.
Quarterly
Correct Answer
D. Quarterly
Explanation UND C due-outs are validated on a quarterly basis. This means that the validation process occurs every three months. It is important to regularly validate these due-outs to ensure accuracy and efficiency in the UND C system.
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43.
What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an
automatic due-out release of assets
A.
1, 8, H, U, X, or .(period)
B.
1, 8, H, U, X, or *
C.
7, 8, B, H, U, or . (period)
D.
7, 8, B, H, U, or *
Correct Answer
A. 1, 8, H, U, X, or .(period)
Explanation The transaction exception code that is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets is 1, 8, H, U, X, or .(period).
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44.
When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out-cancellation inout
A.
C
B.
D
C.
I
D.
M
Correct Answer
D. M
Explanation In the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), when a due-out cancellation is processed, the review code "M" is used on the due-out-cancellation input.
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45.
How often is FEDLOG updated
A.
Daily
B.
Monthly
C.
Quarterly
D.
Annually
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly
Explanation FEDLOG is updated on a quarterly basis. This means that the information contained in FEDLOG is refreshed and updated every three months. This regular update schedule ensures that the data within FEDLOG remains current and accurate. It allows users to access the most up-to-date information regarding federal logistics, making it a reliable resource for logistical planning and decision-making.
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46.
What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers
A.
Core automated maintenance system (CAMS)
B.
MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS)
C.
Federal logistics (FEDLOG)
D.
D043A
Correct Answer
C. Federal logistics (FEDLOG)
Explanation Federal logistics (FEDLOG) is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM based research system that allows users to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. FEDLOG is commonly used in logistics and supply chain management to track and manage inventory, and it provides a comprehensive database of part numbers and stock numbers for easy cross-referencing. The other options, Core automated maintenance system (CAMS), MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS), and D043A, are not specifically designed for cross-relating part numbers and stock numbers.
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47.
What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the federal logistics (FEDLOG) interface from a Material Management System environment
A.
FIL
B.
1RH
C.
1RL
D.
ISU
Correct Answer
B. 1RH
Explanation The correct answer is 1RH. This transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the federal logistics (FEDLOG) interface from a Material Management System environment.
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48.
Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are normally identified and published by
A.
Figure and index
B.
Model number and series
C.
–4 series of technical orders
D.
–7 series of technical orders
Correct Answer
C. –4 series of technical orders
49.
Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions
A.
Next higher assembly (NHA)
B.
Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)
C.
Numeric parts preference code NPPC)
D.
Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)
Correct Answer
D. Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)
Explanation The correct answer is "Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR)". In an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB), the SMR code provides maintenance activities with information about repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions for each part. This code helps maintenance personnel determine whether a part can be repaired or needs to be replaced, and provides guidance on how to obtain the necessary support for the repair or replacement.
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50.
Which position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets
A.
Depot
B.
Source
C.
Maintenance
D.
Recoverability
Correct Answer
D. Recoverability
Explanation The position of the recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets. This means that the recoverability code indicates what action should be taken with assets that are no longer in working condition. The recoverability code helps determine whether the asset should be repaired, disposed of, or cannibalized for parts.
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