CCNA 3- Scaling Networks Certification Exam Practice Test

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CCNA 3- Scaling Networks Certification Exam Practice Test - Quiz

Welcome to the CCNA 3- Scaling Networks Certification Exam Practice Test. As business experiences continuous growth, it becomes more important to design a network that helps you meet your desired technological needs. The test below is designed to help you with the CCNA 3 certification exam. Give it a try and get to know what to expect come exam time.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?

    • A.

      Failure domain

    • B.

      Collision domain

    • C.

      Broadcast domain

    • D.

      User domain

    Correct Answer
    A. Failure domain
    Explanation
    The term "failure domain" is used to describe the area of a network that is impacted when a device or network service encounters issues. This means that when a failure occurs, it affects the devices or services within a specific domain or area of the network. This term helps in identifying and troubleshooting the source of the problem and determining its impact on the overall network performance.

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  • 2. 

    A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

    • A.

      A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.

    • B.

      The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.

    • C.

      This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

    • D.

      This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

    Correct Answer
    B. The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
    Explanation
    The primary advantage of deploying a switch block is that the failure of a switch block will not impact all end users. This means that if one switch in the block fails, only the users connected to that specific switch will be affected, while the rest of the network will continue to function normally. This provides better network reliability and minimizes the impact of failures on overall network performance.

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  • 3. 

    What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

    • A.

      It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

    • B.

      It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

    • C.

      It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.

    • D.

      It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

    Correct Answer
    C. It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
    Explanation
    STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a network protocol that prevents loops in a layer 2 network. By disabling redundant paths, it ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, thus eliminating the possibility of Layer 2 loops. This prevents broadcast storms and ensures efficient and reliable network communication.

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  • 4. 

    What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?

    • A.

      Rack unit

    • B.

      Port density

    • C.

      Domain size

    • D.

      Module size

    Correct Answer
    A. Rack unit
    Explanation
    The term "rack unit" is used to express the thickness or height of a switch. A rack unit is a standard unit of measurement for the height of equipment that is mounted in a rack. It is equal to 1.75 inches or 44.45 millimeters. By using rack units, it becomes easier to determine the amount of space that a switch or any other equipment occupies in a rack.

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  • 5. 

    What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      HTTP access to the device

    • B.

      A terminal emulation client

    • C.

      Telnet or SSH access to the device

    • D.

      A direct connection to the console or AUX port

    • E.

      A connection to an operational network interface on the device

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. A terminal emulation client
    D. A direct connection to the console or AUX port
    Explanation
    When using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device, two requirements are a terminal emulation client and a direct connection to the console or AUX port. A terminal emulation client is necessary to establish a connection with the device and configure it. The direct connection to the console or AUX port allows for direct access to the device's management interface, bypassing the network interface. This ensures that configuration can be performed even if the network is down or experiencing issues.

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  • 6. 

    Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?

    • A.

      Configuring trunk links on the VTP server

    • B.

      Configuring or changing the VTP password

    • C.

      Configuring or changing the VTP domain name

    • D.

      Configuring or changing the VTP version number

    • E.

      Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

    Correct Answer
    E. Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
    Explanation
    Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server because these actions involve making changes to the VLAN database. The configuration revision number is a value that is incremented each time a change is made to the VLAN database, allowing VTP clients to determine if they have the most up-to-date VLAN information.

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  • 7. 

    What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.

    • B.

      Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.

    • C.

      VTP-enabled switches exchange three types of advertisements: summary routes, subnet advertisements, and advertisement requests from transparent bridges.

    • D.

      The switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded to reset a configuration revision number.

    • E.

      VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.

    • F.

      Switches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if revision numbers are the same.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.
    B. Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.
    E. VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.
    Explanation
    In the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch. This means that a switch can add or modify VLANs without needing to be in VTP server mode. Switches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database. This allows the switch to keep track of the VLAN information and distribute it to other switches in the VTP domain. VTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only. This means that switches must have trunk links configured in order to receive and send VTP updates.

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  • 8. 

    A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

    • A.

      Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.

    • B.

      Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

    • C.

      Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

    • D.

      Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
    Explanation
    To ensure that the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain, the network administrator needs to configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch. This is because VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) allows switches to share VLAN information within a domain, and in order for the new switch to participate in this exchange, it needs to have the same domain name and password as the other switches in the network. By configuring the correct VTP domain name and password, the new switch will be able to communicate and synchronize VLAN information with the other switches in the VTP domain.

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  • 9. 

    What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?

    • A.

      It holds the running configuration.

    • B.

      It holds the saved configuration.

    • C.

      It holds the VLAN database.

    • D.

      It holds the operating system.

    Correct Answer
    C. It holds the VLAN database.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch is to hold the VLAN database. This file contains information about the virtual LANs configured on the switch, including their names, IDs, and associated ports. The VLAN database is important for the switch to properly handle and forward network traffic based on the VLAN configurations. The vlan.dat file is typically stored in non-volatile memory, allowing the switch to retain the VLAN database even after a power cycle or reboot.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?

    • A.

      Trunking

    • B.

      Port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

    • C.

      VLAN configuration

    • D.

      Router port configuration

    Correct Answer
    C. VLAN configuration
    Explanation
    The VLAN configuration is the part of the inter-VLAN configuration that causes the problem. This could mean that the VLANs are not properly configured or assigned to the correct ports on the switches. Without the correct VLAN configuration, the hosts in different VLANs will not be able to communicate with each other.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

    • A.

      Include a router in the topology.

    • B.

      Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

    • C.

      Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

    • D.

      Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

    • E.

      Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

    Correct Answer
    D. Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
    Explanation
    The administrator should configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode. This is because the exhibit shows that the connection between SW1 and SW2 is a trunk link. By configuring either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode, it allows the switches to negotiate the trunking protocol and establish a trunk link between them. This will enable the communication between the hosts on VLAN 10, which includes host C and host D, as well as host E and host F.

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  • 12. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

    • B.

      There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.

    • C.

      VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

    • D.

      VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

    • E.

      This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
    E. This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
    Explanation
    From the exhibited output, it can be inferred that there is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain. This is indicated by the "VTP Configuration Revision" value of 0, which means that the switch has not received any VTP updates and may not have the latest VLAN information. Additionally, it can be determined that this switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain, as the "VTP Operating Mode" is set to "Client" indicating that it will receive updates from a VTP server.

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  • 13. 

    What eliminates switching loops?

    • A.

      hold-down timers

    • B.

      Poison reverse

    • C.

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • D.

      Time to Live

    • E.

      VTP

    Correct Answer
    C. Spanning Tree Protocol
    Explanation
    The Spanning Tree Protocol is designed to prevent and eliminate switching loops in a network. It accomplishes this by creating a loop-free logical topology and blocking redundant paths. By selecting a root bridge and calculating the shortest path to each network segment, the Spanning Tree Protocol ensures that only one active path exists between any two network devices, effectively eliminating switching loops.

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  • 14. 

    A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      28672

    • C.

      32768

    • D.

      34816

    • E.

      61440

    Correct Answer
    B. 28672
    Explanation
    The bridge priority value is used in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to determine the root bridge. The lower the bridge priority value, the higher the priority. In this scenario, all switches are currently using the default bridge priority value, which is 32768. To ensure that one of the switches becomes the root bridge, a lower bridge priority value must be configured. The value 28672 is lower than the default value and can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to become the root bridge.

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  • 15. 

    What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?

    • A.

      The highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

    • B.

      The lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

    • C.

      the VTP revision number

    • D.

      the path cost

    Correct Answer
    D. the path cost
    Explanation
    The value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network is the path cost. The path cost is a value assigned to each port based on the speed of the link connected to that port. The port with the lowest path cost will be selected as the root port.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      SW1 will become the root bridge.

    • B.

      SW2 will become the root bridge.

    • C.

      SW2 will get a port blocked.

    • D.

      SW4 will get a port blocked.

    • E.

      SW3 will become the root bridge.

    • F.

      SW4 will become the root bridge.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. SW4 will get a port blocked.
    E. SW3 will become the root bridge.
    Explanation
    SW3 will become the root bridge because it has the lowest bridge ID (priority + MAC address). SW4 will get a port blocked because it has the highest path cost to reach the root bridge.

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  • 17. 

    Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Listening

    • B.

      Learning

    • C.

      Blocking

    • D.

      Disabled

    • E.

      Forwarding

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Listening
    C. Blocking
    D. Disabled
    Explanation
    The three STP states that were replaced with the RSTP discarding state are listening, blocking, and disabled. In RSTP, the discarding state combines the functionality of these three states. The listening state is used by STP to learn the network topology before forwarding any traffic. The blocking state is used to prevent loops in the network by blocking certain ports. The disabled state represents a port that is administratively disabled and not participating in STP. RSTP simplifies the process by combining these states into a single discarding state.

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  • 18. 

    A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

    • A.

      Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.

    • B.

      Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.

    • C.

      Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.

    • D.

      Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

    Correct Answer
    C. Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    Explanation
    The command "spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default" enables BPDU guard on all switch ports that have been configured with PortFast. BPDU guard error-disables a switch port if it receives a BPDU, which helps to prevent loops in the network. This ensures that any switch port configured with PortFast will be disabled if it receives a BPDU, providing additional security and stability to the network.

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  • 19. 

    As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

    • A.

      Providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

    • B.

      grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

    • C.

      grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

    • D.

      Providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

    Correct Answer
    B. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
    Explanation
    EtherChannel is a configuration that involves grouping multiple physical ports together to increase the bandwidth between two switches. By combining these ports, the network administrator can effectively create a higher-speed connection between the switches, allowing for increased data transfer rates and improved network performance. This configuration helps to optimize network utilization and provides a more efficient and reliable network infrastructure.

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  • 20. 

    Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

    • A.

      Channel-group 2 mode auto

    • B.

      Interface port-channel 2

    • C.

      channel-group 1 mode desirable

    • D.

      Interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

    Correct Answer
    D. Interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5". This command is used to specify the range of physical interfaces (GigabitEthernet 0/4 - 5) that will be bundled together to create an EtherChannel group.

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  • 21. 

    A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?

    • A.

      The EtherChannel fails.

    • B.

      The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.

    • C.

      The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.

    • D.

      One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.

    Correct Answer
    B. The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.
    Explanation
    If one of the three interfaces in the EtherChannel link is down, the remaining two interfaces will still continue to load balance traffic. This means that the traffic will be distributed across the two remaining interfaces, ensuring that the network continues to function efficiently. The load balancing mechanism will distribute the traffic based on various factors such as source and destination IP addresses, MAC addresses, or protocols. This helps to optimize the utilization of the available bandwidth and prevents any single interface from becoming overloaded.

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  • 22. 

    When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      Auto

    • C.

      On

    • D.

      Desirable

    Correct Answer
    C. On
    Explanation
    The "on" mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets. In this mode, the interface will be immediately added to the port channel without any negotiation or exchange of information with the other end. This can be useful in situations where you want to manually configure the port channel without relying on any negotiation protocols.

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  • 23. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

    • A.

      PAgP

    • B.

      DTP

    • C.

      LACP

    • D.

      STP

    Correct Answer
    A. PAgP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PAgP. PAgP stands for Port Aggregation Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to group multiple physical ports into one logical link. It allows for increased bandwidth and redundancy by combining the bandwidth of multiple ports into a single logical link. This protocol is commonly used in EtherChannel configurations to provide link aggregation and load balancing.

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  • 24. 

    A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

    • A.

      HSRP uses active and standby routers.

    • B.

      It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.

    • C.

      It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.

    • D.

      HSRP is nonproprietary.

    Correct Answer
    A. HSRP uses active and standby routers.
    Explanation
    HSRP is a first-hop router redundancy protocol that allows for the use of active and standby routers. This means that one router will be actively forwarding traffic while the other remains on standby, ready to take over if the active router fails. This provides redundancy and ensures that there is no single point of failure in the network.

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  • 25. 

    What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?

    • A.

      Multihomed network

    • B.

      converged network

    • C.

      discontiguous network

    • D.

      data network

    Correct Answer
    C. discontiguous network
    Explanation
    A discontiguous network is a term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address. In other words, the subnets within the network are not contiguous or adjacent to each other, but rather have non-adjacent addresses between them. This can be done for various reasons, such as to accommodate future growth or to isolate different parts of the network for security purposes.

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  • 26. 

    What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?

    • A.

      Hello

    • B.

      Triggered bounded update

    • C.

      Acknowledge

    • D.

      Reply

    Correct Answer
    B. Triggered bounded update
    Explanation
    When there is a change in the EIGRP topology, triggered bounded updates are sent as packets. These updates are specifically generated in response to the change and are sent to the affected routers in order to inform them about the new network topology. This helps in quickly updating the routing tables and ensuring efficient and accurate routing within the network.

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  • 27. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?

    • A.

      R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7

    • B.

      R1-R3-R2-R6-R7

    • C.

      R1-R2-R6-R7

    • D.

      R1-R4-R5-R6-R7

    Correct Answer
    A. R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
    Explanation
    The preferred path to get from the LAN network connected to R1 to the LAN network connected to R7 is R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7. This path follows a direct route from R1 to R7, passing through R3, R4, R5, and R6 along the way. This path is preferred because it has the fewest number of hops and avoids unnecessary detours through other routers.

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  • 28. 

    What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

    • A.

      The path with the least number of hops.

    • B.

      The path with the smallest delays.

    • C.

      The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.

    • D.

      The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

    Correct Answer
    C. The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
    Explanation
    The SPF (Shortest Path First) algorithm considers the path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links to be the best path to a network. This means that the algorithm prioritizes the path that has the highest total bandwidth available along its links. By choosing this path, the algorithm aims to maximize the overall data transfer rate and minimize congestion.

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  • 29. 

    Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      The link router interface IP address and subnet mask

    • B.

      the type of network link

    • C.

      The link next-hop IP address

    • D.

      the link bandwidth

    • E.

      the cost of that link

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The link router interface IP address and subnet mask
    B. the type of network link
    E. the cost of that link
    Explanation
    A link-state routing protocol uses the link router interface IP address and subnet mask as link-state information for locally connected links. This information is necessary to identify the specific interface and its network address. Additionally, the type of network link is used to determine the characteristics and capabilities of the link, such as whether it is a Ethernet, serial, or wireless link. Finally, the cost of the link is important as it helps the routing protocol determine the most efficient path for forwarding packets.

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  • 30. 

    What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?

    • A.

      if the router no longer receives routing updates

    • B.

      if the router no longer receives hello packets

    • C.

      if the router receives an update with a hop count of 16

    • D.

      If the router receives an LSP with previously learned information

    Correct Answer
    B. if the router no longer receives hello packets
    Explanation
    A link-state router determines that a neighbor is unreachable if it no longer receives hello packets from that neighbor. Hello packets are used by link-state routing protocols to establish and maintain neighbor relationships. If a router stops receiving hello packets from a neighbor, it indicates that the neighbor is no longer reachable or has failed.

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  • 31. 

    What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Uses the Shortest Path First algorithm

    • B.

      Establishes neighbor adjacencies

    • C.

      Uses the Reliable Transport Protocol

    • D.

      Sends full routing table updates periodically

    • E.

      Broadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers

    • F.

      supports equal and unequal cost load balancing

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Establishes neighbor adjacencies
    C. Uses the Reliable Transport Protocol
    F. supports equal and unequal cost load balancing
    Explanation
    EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has three main features. First, it establishes neighbor adjacencies, which allows routers to exchange routing information and establish a neighbor relationship. Second, it uses the Reliable Transport Protocol, ensuring that packets are delivered reliably and in order. Lastly, EIGRP supports both equal and unequal cost load balancing, allowing for efficient distribution of traffic across multiple paths with equal or different costs.

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  • 32. 

    What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?

    • A.

      Route different Layer 3 protocols

    • B.

      exchange summary routes between areas

    • C.

      Combine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table

    • D.

      load balance between routing protocols

    Correct Answer
    A. Route different Layer 3 protocols
    Explanation
    Protocol-dependent modules provide the capability to route different Layer 3 protocols in the EIGRP routing protocol. This means that EIGRP can handle routing for multiple types of protocols, such as IP, IPX, and AppleTalk, allowing the network to support diverse communication requirements. By supporting different Layer 3 protocols, EIGRP enables efficient and effective routing across various network environments.

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  • 33. 

    When are EIGRP update packets sent?

    • A.

      Only when necessary

    • B.

      when learned routes age out

    • C.

      Every 5 seconds via multicast

    • D.

      every 30 seconds via broadcast

    Correct Answer
    A. Only when necessary
    Explanation
    EIGRP update packets are sent only when necessary, meaning they are only sent when there are changes in the network topology or when there is new information to be shared. This approach helps to reduce unnecessary network traffic and conserve bandwidth. By sending updates only when necessary, EIGRP ensures that routers are kept up-to-date with the latest routing information without overwhelming the network with excessive update packets.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?

    • A.

      Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63

    • B.

      Network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192

    • C.

      Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127

    • D.

      Network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128

    Correct Answer
    A. Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63". This command specifies the network address and wildcard mask to be advertised by EIGRP. In this case, the wildcard mask 0.0.0.63 matches the range of addresses from 172.16.23.64 to 172.16.23.127, which includes the network attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface. The other network statements either have a larger wildcard mask or do not cover the entire range of addresses for the attached network.

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  • 35. 

    Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

    • A.

      It carries the geographical information of the organization.

    • B.

      It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.

    • C.

      It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

    • D.

      It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

    Correct Answer
    B. It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
    Explanation
    The autonomous system number (ASN) used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router functions as a process ID in the operation of the router. This means that it is used to identify and differentiate multiple instances of EIGRP running on the same router. Each instance of EIGRP is treated as a separate process, and the ASN is used to uniquely identify each process. This allows for the routing table and other EIGRP parameters to be maintained separately for each process, ensuring proper operation and scalability of the network.

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  • 36. 

    Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Delay

    • B.

      MTU

    • C.

      Reliability

    • D.

      Transmit and receive load

    • E.

      Bandwidth

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Delay
    E. Bandwidth
    Explanation
    EIGRP uses delay and bandwidth by default to calculate the best path. Delay is the measure of the time it takes for a packet to travel from one router to another, while bandwidth refers to the capacity of a network link to carry data. By considering both delay and bandwidth, EIGRP can determine the most efficient and reliable path for routing traffic. Other parameters like MTU, reliability, and transmit and receive load are not used by default in EIGRP's path calculation process.

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  • 37. 

    An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

    • A.

      The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

    • B.

      The router uses the default route.

    • C.

      The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.

    • D.

      The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

    Correct Answer
    C. The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
    Explanation
    When an EIGRP router loses the route to a network and has two feasible successors to the same network in its topology table, the router will immediately insert the best alternative backup route into the routing table. This is because EIGRP uses the successor and feasible successor routes to provide redundancy and load balancing. So, when one route is lost, the router can quickly switch to the backup route without recomputing the DUAL algorithm or querying neighbors for an alternate route.

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  • 38. 

    When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

    • A.

      When the EIGRP domain is converged

    • B.

      When there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network

    • C.

      When there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network

    • D.

      When the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available

    Correct Answer
    D. When the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available
  • 39. 

    Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

    • A.

      the 32-bit router ID

    • B.

      The IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface

    • C.

      the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address

    • D.

      The interface IPv6 link-local address

    Correct Answer
    D. The interface IPv6 link-local address
    Explanation
    The interface IPv6 link-local address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages. This address is automatically generated by the router based on the interface's MAC address and allows communication between devices on the same link or network segment. It is commonly used for neighbor discovery and initial communication before obtaining a global unicast address. The link-local address is unique to each interface and does not change unless the interface is reconfigured or replaced. Therefore, it is a suitable choice for identifying the source of hello messages in EIGRP.

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  • 40. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​

    • A.

      10.0.0.0/8

    • B.

      10.1.0.0/16

    • C.

      10.1.0.0/28

    • D.

      10.1.1.0/2410.1.2.0/2410.1.3.0/2410.1.4.0/28​

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.0.0.0/8
  • 41. 

    Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?

    • A.

      Router(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0

    • B.

      router(config-rtr)# redistribute static

    • C.

      router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0

    • D.

      router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

    Correct Answer
    C. router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0". This command will configure an IPv6 default static route. The "::/0" represents the default route, and "s0/0/0" specifies the exit interface for the route. By using this command, the router will forward any IPv6 traffic for which it does not have a specific route to the specified interface.

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  • 42. 

    Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?

    • A.

      EIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.

    • B.

      EIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.

    • C.

      Neither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.

    • D.

      Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
    Explanation
    Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.

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  • 43. 

    What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?

    • A.

      EIGRP

    • B.

      OSPF

    • C.

      OSPFv3

    • D.

      RIPng

    Correct Answer
    A. EIGRP
    Explanation
    EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command. This command allows EIGRP to consider routes with metrics that are more than a certain value (variance) as equal-cost paths, and distribute traffic across them accordingly. By doing so, EIGRP can effectively utilize multiple paths with varying metrics, optimizing network performance and balancing the traffic load.

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  • 44. 

    What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

    • B.

      Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.

    • C.

      Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.

    • D.

      The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

    • E.

      Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
    C. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
    Explanation
    A link-state routing protocol has two features. First, routers send triggered updates in response to a change. This means that when there is a change in the network, such as a link going down or a new link being added, routers will immediately send updates to inform other routers about the change. Second, routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. Each router collects information about the network from neighboring routers and builds a database that represents the topology of the entire network. This allows routers to make informed decisions about the best paths to send data.

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  • 45. 

    A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?

    • A.

      OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.

    • B.

      SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.

    • C.

      A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.

    • D.

      OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.

    Correct Answer
    D. OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.
    Explanation
    If the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router, OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database. This is because the dead interval is the time period in which the router expects to receive a hello packet from its neighbors. If the hello packet is not received within this time frame, the router assumes that the neighbor is no longer available and removes it from its database.

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  • 46. 

    In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?

    • A.

      It changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.

    • B.

      It enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.

    • C.

      It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.

    • D.

      It allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.

    Correct Answer
    C. It tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.
    Explanation
    The command "network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0" is used in OSPFv2 configuration to enable OSPF on a specific interface. By specifying the IP address 192.168.1.1, the command tells the router to activate OSPF on the interface associated with that IP address. This allows the router to participate in the OSPF routing process and exchange routing information with other OSPF routers in the same area.

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  • 47. 

    What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

    • A.

      A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

    • B.

      Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

    • C.

      Cost equals bandwidth.

    • D.

      A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

    Correct Answer
    D. A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
    Explanation
    A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does because in OSPF, the cost of a link is inversely proportional to its bandwidth. Therefore, a lower cost means a higher bandwidth, which results in a faster and more efficient path to the destination.

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  • 48. 

    Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      FF02::5

    • B.

      224.0.0.5

    • C.

      FF02::A

    • D.

      FE80::42

    • E.

      2001:db8:acad:1::1

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. FF02::5
    D. FE80::42
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FF02::5 and FE80::42.

    FF02::5 is a valid destination address for an OSPFv3 message because it is the link-local all OSPFv3 routers multicast address.

    FE80::42 is also a valid destination address for an OSPFv3 message because it is a link-local unicast address, which is used for communication within the same network segment.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?

    • A.

      FF02::5

    • B.

      2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2

    • C.

      2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2

    • D.

      FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538

    Correct Answer
    D. FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538
    Explanation
    R1 would use the address FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538 as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet. This is because the address FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538 is a link-local address, which is used for communication within the same network segment. Since R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors, they are in the same network segment. Therefore, R1 would use the link-local address of R2 (FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538) as the next hop for packets destined for the Internet.

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  • 50. 

    What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?

    • A.

      Networks reachable in other areas

    • B.

      Networks learned from other routing protocols

    • C.

      the router ID of the DR to all routers in the area

    • D.

      The router ID of an ASBR and the route to reach it

    Correct Answer
    A. Networks reachable in other areas
    Explanation
    OSPF type 3 LSAs contain information about networks that are reachable in other areas. This means that these LSAs provide details about networks that can be accessed through OSPF routers in different areas. These LSAs help routers in determining the best path to reach these networks and facilitate efficient routing within the OSPF network.

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  • Current Version
  • May 31, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 07, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Ad.bjxx
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