CCNA 3- Scaling Networks Certification Exam Practice Test
-
What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
-
Failure domain
-
Collision domain
-
Broadcast domain
-
User domain
-
Welcome to the CCNA 3- Scaling Networks Certification Exam Practice Test. As business experiences continuous growth, it becomes more important to design a network that helps you meet your desired technological needs. The test below is designed to help you with the CCNA 3 certification exam. Give it a try and get to know what to expect come exam time.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
-
It holds the running configuration.
-
It holds the saved configuration.
-
It holds the VLAN database.
-
It holds the operating system.
Correct Answer
A. It holds the VLAN database.Explanation
The purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch is to hold the VLAN database. This file contains information about the virtual LANs configured on the switch, including their names, IDs, and associated ports. The VLAN database is important for the switch to properly handle and forward network traffic based on the VLAN configurations. The vlan.dat file is typically stored in non-volatile memory, allowing the switch to retain the VLAN database even after a power cycle or reboot.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What eliminates switching loops?
-
hold-down timers
-
Poison reverse
-
Spanning Tree Protocol
-
Time to Live
-
VTP
Correct Answer
A. Spanning Tree ProtocolExplanation
The Spanning Tree Protocol is designed to prevent and eliminate switching loops in a network. It accomplishes this by creating a loop-free logical topology and blocking redundant paths. By selecting a root bridge and calculating the shortest path to each network segment, the Spanning Tree Protocol ensures that only one active path exists between any two network devices, effectively eliminating switching loops.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
-
Rack unit
-
Port density
-
Domain size
-
Module size
Correct Answer
A. Rack unitExplanation
The term "rack unit" is used to express the thickness or height of a switch. A rack unit is a standard unit of measurement for the height of equipment that is mounted in a rack. It is equal to 1.75 inches or 44.45 millimeters. By using rack units, it becomes easier to determine the amount of space that a switch or any other equipment occupies in a rack.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
-
It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
-
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
-
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
-
It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
Correct Answer
A. It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.Explanation
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a network protocol that prevents loops in a layer 2 network. By disabling redundant paths, it ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, thus eliminating the possibility of Layer 2 loops. This prevents broadcast storms and ensures efficient and reliable network communication.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
-
It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
-
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
-
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
-
It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
Correct Answer
A. It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.Explanation
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is used in a scalable network to disable redundant paths and prevent Layer 2 loops. Layer 2 loops can occur when there are multiple paths between switches, causing broadcast storms and network congestion. By disabling redundant paths, STP ensures that there is only one active path between switches, eliminating the possibility of loops. This helps in maintaining a stable and efficient network by preventing packet duplication and ensuring proper forwarding of data.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
-
PAgP
-
DTP
-
LACP
-
STP
Correct Answer
A. PAgPExplanation
The correct answer is PAgP. PAgP stands for Port Aggregation Protocol, which is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to group multiple physical ports into one logical link. It allows for increased bandwidth and redundancy by combining the bandwidth of multiple ports into a single logical link. This protocol is commonly used in EtherChannel configurations to provide link aggregation and load balancing.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
-
R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
-
R1-R3-R2-R6-R7
-
R1-R2-R6-R7
-
R1-R4-R5-R6-R7
Correct Answer
A. R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7Explanation
The preferred path to get from the LAN network connected to R1 to the LAN network connected to R7 is R1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7. This path follows a direct route from R1 to R7, passing through R3, R4, R5, and R6 along the way. This path is preferred because it has the fewest number of hops and avoids unnecessary detours through other routers.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
-
Channel-group 2 mode auto
-
Interface port-channel 2
-
channel-group 1 mode desirable
-
Interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5
Correct Answer
A. Interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5Explanation
The correct answer is "interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5". This command is used to specify the range of physical interfaces (GigabitEthernet 0/4 - 5) that will be bundled together to create an EtherChannel group.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
-
Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
-
Network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
-
Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
-
Network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
Correct Answer
A. Network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63Explanation
The correct answer is "network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63". This command specifies the network address and wildcard mask to be advertised by EIGRP. In this case, the wildcard mask 0.0.0.63 matches the range of addresses from 172.16.23.64 to 172.16.23.127, which includes the network attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface. The other network statements either have a larger wildcard mask or do not cover the entire range of addresses for the attached network.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?
-
Router(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0
-
router(config-rtr)# redistribute static
-
router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0
-
router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing
Correct Answer
A. router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0Explanation
The correct answer is "router(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0". This command will configure an IPv6 default static route. The "::/0" represents the default route, and "s0/0/0" specifies the exit interface for the route. By using this command, the router will forward any IPv6 traffic for which it does not have a specific route to the specified interface.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
-
Configuring trunk links on the VTP server
-
Configuring or changing the VTP password
-
Configuring or changing the VTP domain name
-
Configuring or changing the VTP version number
-
Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
Correct Answer
A. Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN nameExplanation
Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server because these actions involve making changes to the VLAN database. The configuration revision number is a value that is incremented each time a change is made to the VLAN database, allowing VTP clients to determine if they have the most up-to-date VLAN information.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
-
Providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
-
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
-
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
-
Providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
Correct Answer
A. grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switchesExplanation
EtherChannel is a configuration that involves grouping multiple physical ports together to increase the bandwidth between two switches. By combining these ports, the network administrator can effectively create a higher-speed connection between the switches, allowing for increased data transfer rates and improved network performance. This configuration helps to optimize network utilization and provides a more efficient and reliable network infrastructure.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
-
Active
-
Auto
-
On
-
Desirable
Correct Answer
A. OnExplanation
The "on" mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets. In this mode, the interface will be immediately added to the port channel without any negotiation or exchange of information with the other end. This can be useful in situations where you want to manually configure the port channel without relying on any negotiation protocols.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?
-
Multihomed network
-
converged network
-
discontiguous network
-
data network
Correct Answer
A. discontiguous networkExplanation
A discontiguous network is a term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address. In other words, the subnets within the network are not contiguous or adjacent to each other, but rather have non-adjacent addresses between them. This can be done for various reasons, such as to accommodate future growth or to isolate different parts of the network for security purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?
-
if the router no longer receives routing updates
-
if the router no longer receives hello packets
-
if the router receives an update with a hop count of 16
-
If the router receives an LSP with previously learned information
Correct Answer
A. if the router no longer receives hello packetsExplanation
A link-state router determines that a neighbor is unreachable if it no longer receives hello packets from that neighbor. Hello packets are used by link-state routing protocols to establish and maintain neighbor relationships. If a router stops receiving hello packets from a neighbor, it indicates that the neighbor is no longer reachable or has failed.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?
-
Access
-
Distribution
-
Transport
-
Internet
-
Core
Correct Answer
A. AccessExplanation
In the Cisco hierarchical design model, the access layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers. This is because the access layer is responsible for connecting end-user devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. These devices typically have less complex networking requirements and do not need the flexibility and scalability provided by switches in the distribution or core layers. Therefore, fixed configuration switches are commonly used in the access layer to provide a cost-effective and simplified solution for connecting end-user devices to the network.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
-
Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
-
Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
-
Configure the VLANs on the new switch.
-
Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
Correct Answer
A. Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.Explanation
To ensure that the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain, the network administrator needs to configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch. This is because VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) allows switches to share VLAN information within a domain, and in order for the new switch to participate in this exchange, it needs to have the same domain name and password as the other switches in the network. By configuring the correct VTP domain name and password, the new switch will be able to communicate and synchronize VLAN information with the other switches in the VTP domain.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?
-
1
-
28672
-
32768
-
34816
-
61440
Correct Answer
A. 28672Explanation
The bridge priority value is used in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to determine the root bridge. The lower the bridge priority value, the higher the priority. In this scenario, all switches are currently using the default bridge priority value, which is 32768. To ensure that one of the switches becomes the root bridge, a lower bridge priority value must be configured. The value 28672 is lower than the default value and can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to become the root bridge.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Refer to the exhibit. In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?
-
Point-to-point
-
Virtual link
-
Point-to-multipoint
-
Nonbroadcast multiaccess
Correct Answer
A. Virtual linkExplanation
In order to connect Area 40 to Area 0 when direct connection is not possible, a virtual link must be configured in Area 1. A virtual link is used to establish a logical connection between two areas that are not directly connected. It allows traffic to be routed through intermediate areas to reach the desired destination.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
-
Trunking
-
Port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports
-
VLAN configuration
-
Router port configuration
Correct Answer
A. VLAN configurationExplanation
The VLAN configuration is the part of the inter-VLAN configuration that causes the problem. This could mean that the VLANs are not properly configured or assigned to the correct ports on the switches. Without the correct VLAN configuration, the hosts in different VLANs will not be able to communicate with each other.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
-
The EtherChannel fails.
-
The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.
-
The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.
-
One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.
Correct Answer
A. The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.Explanation
If one of the three interfaces in the EtherChannel link is down, the remaining two interfaces will still continue to load balance traffic. This means that the traffic will be distributed across the two remaining interfaces, ensuring that the network continues to function efficiently. The load balancing mechanism will distribute the traffic based on various factors such as source and destination IP addresses, MAC addresses, or protocols. This helps to optimize the utilization of the available bandwidth and prevents any single interface from becoming overloaded.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?
-
EIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.
-
EIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.
-
Neither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
-
Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
Correct Answer
A. Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.Explanation
Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?
-
EIGRP
-
OSPF
-
OSPFv3
-
RIPng
Correct Answer
A. EIGRPExplanation
EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command. This command allows EIGRP to consider routes with metrics that are more than a certain value (variance) as equal-cost paths, and distribute traffic across them accordingly. By doing so, EIGRP can effectively utilize multiple paths with varying metrics, optimizing network performance and balancing the traffic load.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
-
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
-
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
-
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
-
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
Correct Answer
A. The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.Explanation
The primary advantage of deploying a switch block is that the failure of a switch block will not impact all end users. This means that if one switch in the block fails, only the users connected to that specific switch will be affected, while the rest of the network will continue to function normally. This provides better network reliability and minimizes the impact of failures on overall network performance.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
-
10.0.0.0/8
-
10.1.0.0/16
-
10.1.0.0/28
-
10.1.1.0/2410.1.2.0/2410.1.3.0/2410.1.4.0/28
Correct Answer
A. 10.0.0.0/8 -
- 27.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
-
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
-
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
-
Cost equals bandwidth.
-
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Correct Answer
A. A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.Explanation
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does because in OSPF, the cost of a link is inversely proportional to its bandwidth. Therefore, a lower cost means a higher bandwidth, which results in a faster and more efficient path to the destination.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
-
It carries the geographical information of the organization.
-
It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
-
It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
-
It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
Correct Answer
A. It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.Explanation
The autonomous system number (ASN) used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router functions as a process ID in the operation of the router. This means that it is used to identify and differentiate multiple instances of EIGRP running on the same router. Each instance of EIGRP is treated as a separate process, and the ASN is used to uniquely identify each process. This allows for the routing table and other EIGRP parameters to be maintained separately for each process, ensuring proper operation and scalability of the network.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?
-
The highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
-
The lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch
-
the VTP revision number
-
the path cost
Correct Answer
A. the path costExplanation
The value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network is the path cost. The path cost is a value assigned to each port based on the speed of the link connected to that port. The port with the lowest path cost will be selected as the root port.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
-
The path with the least number of hops.
-
The path with the smallest delays.
-
The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
-
The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
Correct Answer
A. The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.Explanation
The SPF (Shortest Path First) algorithm considers the path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links to be the best path to a network. This means that the algorithm prioritizes the path that has the highest total bandwidth available along its links. By choosing this path, the algorithm aims to maximize the overall data transfer rate and minimize congestion.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
-
Show ip protocols
-
Show ip interface
-
Show cdp neighbors
-
Show port-security
-
Show mac-address-table
Correct Answer
A. Show cdp neighborsExplanation
The command "show cdp neighbors" provides information about the directly connected Cisco devices. This command is relevant to both distribution and access layer devices as it displays the neighbors of a device, allowing the engineer to see the devices it is directly connected to. This information can be useful for troubleshooting, verifying connectivity, and understanding the network topology.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
-
HSRP uses active and standby routers.
-
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
-
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
-
HSRP is nonproprietary.
Correct Answer
A. HSRP uses active and standby routers.Explanation
HSRP is a first-hop router redundancy protocol that allows for the use of active and standby routers. This means that one router will be actively forwarding traffic while the other remains on standby, ready to take over if the active router fails. This provides redundancy and ensures that there is no single point of failure in the network.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
-
Only when necessary
-
when learned routes age out
-
Every 5 seconds via multicast
-
every 30 seconds via broadcast
Correct Answer
A. Only when necessaryExplanation
EIGRP update packets are sent only when necessary, meaning they are only sent when there are changes in the network topology or when there is new information to be shared. This approach helps to reduce unnecessary network traffic and conserve bandwidth. By sending updates only when necessary, EIGRP ensures that routers are kept up-to-date with the latest routing information without overwhelming the network with excessive update packets.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
-
the 32-bit router ID
-
The IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
-
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
-
The interface IPv6 link-local address
Correct Answer
A. The interface IPv6 link-local addressExplanation
The interface IPv6 link-local address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages. This address is automatically generated by the router based on the interface's MAC address and allows communication between devices on the same link or network segment. It is commonly used for neighbor discovery and initial communication before obtaining a global unicast address. The link-local address is unique to each interface and does not change unless the interface is reconfigured or replaced. Therefore, it is a suitable choice for identifying the source of hello messages in EIGRP.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
-
HTTP access to the device
-
A terminal emulation client
-
Telnet or SSH access to the device
-
A direct connection to the console or AUX port
-
A connection to an operational network interface on the device
Correct Answer(s)
A. A terminal emulation client
A. A direct connection to the console or AUX portExplanation
When using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device, two requirements are a terminal emulation client and a direct connection to the console or AUX port. A terminal emulation client is necessary to establish a connection with the device and configure it. The direct connection to the console or AUX port allows for direct access to the device's management interface, bypassing the network interface. This ensures that configuration can be performed even if the network is down or experiencing issues.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
-
Include a router in the topology.
-
Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
-
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
-
Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
-
Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
Correct Answer
A. Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.Explanation
The administrator should configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode. This is because the exhibit shows that the connection between SW1 and SW2 is a trunk link. By configuring either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode, it allows the switches to negotiate the trunking protocol and establish a trunk link between them. This will enable the communication between the hosts on VLAN 10, which includes host C and host D, as well as host E and host F.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
-
SW1 will become the root bridge.
-
SW2 will become the root bridge.
-
SW2 will get a port blocked.
-
SW4 will get a port blocked.
-
SW3 will become the root bridge.
-
SW4 will become the root bridge.
Correct Answer(s)
A. SW4 will get a port blocked.
A. SW3 will become the root bridge.Explanation
SW3 will become the root bridge because it has the lowest bridge ID (priority + MAC address). SW4 will get a port blocked because it has the highest path cost to reach the root bridge.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
-
The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
-
The router uses the default route.
-
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
-
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
Correct Answer
A. The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.Explanation
When an EIGRP router loses the route to a network and has two feasible successors to the same network in its topology table, the router will immediately insert the best alternative backup route into the routing table. This is because EIGRP uses the successor and feasible successor routes to provide redundancy and load balancing. So, when one route is lost, the router can quickly switch to the backup route without recomputing the DUAL algorithm or querying neighbors for an alternate route.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?
-
Hello
-
Triggered bounded update
-
Acknowledge
-
Reply
Correct Answer
A. Triggered bounded updateExplanation
When there is a change in the EIGRP topology, triggered bounded updates are sent as packets. These updates are specifically generated in response to the change and are sent to the affected routers in order to inform them about the new network topology. This helps in quickly updating the routing tables and ensuring efficient and accurate routing within the network.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
-
The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
-
R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
-
The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
-
The neighbor adjacency has formed.
Correct Answer
A. The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.Explanation
The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2. This means that if R1 does not receive a hello packet from R2 within the specified dead timer interval, it will consider R2 as dead or unreachable. This could be due to a network issue or a problem with R2. The dead timer is an important parameter in OSPF to determine the reachability of neighboring routers.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
-
Listening
-
Learning
-
Blocking
-
Disabled
-
Forwarding
Correct Answer(s)
A. Listening
A. Blocking
A. DisabledExplanation
The three STP states that were replaced with the RSTP discarding state are listening, blocking, and disabled. In RSTP, the discarding state combines the functionality of these three states. The listening state is used by STP to learn the network topology before forwarding any traffic. The blocking state is used to prevent loops in the network by blocking certain ports. The disabled state represents a port that is administratively disabled and not participating in STP. RSTP simplifies the process by combining these states into a single discarding state.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
-
Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
-
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
-
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
-
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
Correct Answer
A. Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.Explanation
The command "spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default" enables BPDU guard on all switch ports that have been configured with PortFast. BPDU guard error-disables a switch port if it receives a BPDU, which helps to prevent loops in the network. This ensures that any switch port configured with PortFast will be disabled if it receives a BPDU, providing additional security and stability to the network.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
-
Delay
-
MTU
-
Reliability
-
Transmit and receive load
-
Bandwidth
Correct Answer(s)
A. Delay
A. BandwidthExplanation
EIGRP uses delay and bandwidth by default to calculate the best path. Delay is the measure of the time it takes for a packet to travel from one router to another, while bandwidth refers to the capacity of a network link to carry data. By considering both delay and bandwidth, EIGRP can determine the most efficient and reliable path for routing traffic. Other parameters like MTU, reliability, and transmit and receive load are not used by default in EIGRP's path calculation process.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
-
FF02::5
-
2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
-
2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2
-
FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538
Correct Answer
A. FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538Explanation
R1 would use the address FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538 as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet. This is because the address FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538 is a link-local address, which is used for communication within the same network segment. Since R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors, they are in the same network segment. Therefore, R1 would use the link-local address of R2 (FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538) as the next hop for packets destined for the Internet.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?
-
EIGRP
-
BGP
-
OSPF
-
RIPv2
Correct Answer
A. OSPFExplanation
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a routing protocol that is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion. OSPF uses a hierarchical structure, dividing the network into areas, with each area having its own routing table. This allows for efficient routing and reduces the amount of routing information that needs to be exchanged between routers. Non-backbone areas can be added to the network as it expands, allowing OSPF to handle large networks effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
-
OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
-
SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
-
A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
-
OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.
Correct Answer
A. OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.Explanation
If the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router, OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database. This is because the dead interval is the time period in which the router expects to receive a hello packet from its neighbors. If the hello packet is not received within this time frame, the router assumes that the neighbor is no longer available and removes it from its database.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)
-
FF02::5
-
224.0.0.5
-
FF02::A
-
FE80::42
-
2001:db8:acad:1::1
Correct Answer(s)
A. FF02::5
A. FE80::42Explanation
The correct answer is FF02::5 and FE80::42.
FF02::5 is a valid destination address for an OSPFv3 message because it is the link-local all OSPFv3 routers multicast address.
FE80::42 is also a valid destination address for an OSPFv3 message because it is a link-local unicast address, which is used for communication within the same network segment.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?
-
Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.
-
Implement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.
-
Implement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.
-
Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
Correct Answer
A. Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.Explanation
The command "no passive-interface Serial0/1" should be implemented to fix the problem. By default, OSPF interfaces are in passive mode, which means they do not actively participate in forming neighbor adjacencies. By removing the passive-interface configuration on Serial0/1, the interface will actively participate in OSPF neighbor discovery and form a neighbor adjacency with the other router.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?
-
Route different Layer 3 protocols
-
exchange summary routes between areas
-
Combine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table
-
load balance between routing protocols
Correct Answer
A. Route different Layer 3 protocolsExplanation
Protocol-dependent modules provide the capability to route different Layer 3 protocols in the EIGRP routing protocol. This means that EIGRP can handle routing for multiple types of protocols, such as IP, IPX, and AppleTalk, allowing the network to support diverse communication requirements. By supporting different Layer 3 protocols, EIGRP enables efficient and effective routing across various network environments.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 31, 2024 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
May 31, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Sep 07, 2017Quiz Created by
Ad.bjxx
Back to top