1.
The Punch line of Turbovas is
Correct Answer
A. Turbo power to Beat Dyslipidemia
Explanation
The punch line of Turbovas is "Turbo power to Beat Dyslipidemia". This means that Turbovas is a product or solution that has the ability to effectively overcome or defeat dyslipidemia, which is a medical condition characterized by abnormal levels of lipids (such as cholesterol and triglycerides) in the blood. The use of the term "turbo power" suggests that Turbovas is a strong and powerful option for treating dyslipidemia.
2.
ACC/AHA _________recommends High Intensity statin therapy in clinical ASCVD
Correct Answer
A. 2018
Explanation
The ACC/AHA guidelines recommend High Intensity statin therapy in clinical ASCVD. This means that in 2018, the American College of Cardiology and the American Heart Association released guidelines stating that individuals with clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) should be prescribed high-intensity statin therapy. This recommendation is based on the latest evidence and research available at the time.
3.
Turbovas CV contains
Correct Answer
C. Rosuvastatin 10 Mg + Clopidogrel 75 Capsules
Explanation
The correct answer is Rosuvastatin 10 Mg + Clopidogrel 75 Capsules because it is the only option that includes both Rosuvastatin 10 Mg and Clopidogrel 75 in capsule form. The other options either have different dosages or are in tablet form.
4.
Turbo power with added CV benefits is the punch line for which brand
Correct Answer
A. Turbovas CV
Explanation
The punch line "Turbo power with added CV benefits" suggests that the brand Turbovas CV offers a product that combines turbo power with additional cardiovascular benefits. This implies that Turbovas CV is a brand that specializes in providing a medication or supplement that not only enhances performance or power but also promotes cardiovascular health.
5.
Rx _____________ In mixed dyslipidemia
Correct Answer
B. Turbovas F
Explanation
Turbovas F is the correct answer because it is specifically indicated for mixed dyslipidemia. The "F" in Turbovas F stands for fenofibrate, which is a medication used to lower cholesterol and triglyceride levels in the blood. Mixed dyslipidemia refers to a condition where there are abnormal levels of both cholesterol and triglycerides. Therefore, Turbovas F would be the most appropriate choice for treating this condition.
6.
USFDA has approved The only ARB with____________ cobination
Correct Answer
C. Chlorthalidone
Explanation
Chlorthalidone is the only ARB (Angiotensin Receptor Blocker) that has been approved by the USFDA in combination with another drug. The question is asking for the correct answer among the given options, and Chlorthalidone is the only option that fits the criteria of being an ARB.
7.
Composition of Zilarta-CT is
Correct Answer
D. Azilsartan 40 mg + Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg Tablets
Explanation
The correct answer is Azilsartan 40 mg + Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg Tablets. This is because the composition of Zilarta-CT is specifically mentioned as Azilsartan 40 mg + Chlorthalidone 12.5 mg Tablets in the given options. The other options either have different dosages or different formulations (capsules instead of tablets).
8.
Zilarta-CT exhibits greater SBP & DBP than
Correct Answer
B. Olmesartan + Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation
Olmesartan + Hydrochlorothiazide exhibits lower SBP & DBP compared to Zilarta-CT.
9.
Azilsartan has completed ____ years of clinical journey
Correct Answer
A. 2
Explanation
Azilsartan has completed 2 years of clinical journey.
10.
Azilsartan has >25 clinical studies involving __________ patients
Correct Answer
C. 24000
Explanation
Azilsartan has been involved in over 25 clinical studies with a total of 24,000 patients. This indicates that a significant number of patients have been included in these studies, suggesting that there is a substantial amount of data and evidence supporting the effectiveness and safety of Azilsartan.
11.
The recommended dosage of Zilarta in adults is _____mg OD.
Correct Answer
D. 80
Explanation
The recommended dosage of Zilarta in adults is 80mg OD. This means that adults should take a dose of 80mg once daily.
12.
Voglinorm-GM forte 2 Reduces
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Voglinorm-GM forte is a medication that effectively reduces FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose), PPBG (Postprandial Blood Glucose), and HbA1C levels. This means that it helps in controlling blood sugar levels both before and after meals, as well as the average blood sugar level over a period of time. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."
13.
Voglibose reduces PPBG ______mg/dl after 6 months
Correct Answer
D. 32.6
Explanation
Voglibose reduces postprandial blood glucose (PPBG) levels by 32.6 mg/dl after 6 months.
14.
Puch line of Zilarta is
Correct Answer
D. 24 hr Potent & Persistent BP control
Explanation
The correct answer is "24 hr Potent & Persistent BP control". This option accurately describes the main feature of Zilarta, which is its ability to provide powerful and persistent blood pressure control for a duration of 24 hours. The use of the terms "potent" and "persistent" emphasizes the effectiveness and long-lasting nature of the medication's impact on blood pressure regulation.
15.
Puch line of Zilarta-CT is
Correct Answer
D. Added Diuretic Power for Better CV Outcomes
Explanation
The correct answer is "Added Diuretic Power for Better CV Outcomes." This option accurately reflects the main point of the punch line, which is the addition of diuretic power to improve cardiovascular outcomes. The other options either have minor wording errors or use the term "CV events" instead of "CV outcomes," which does not convey the intended meaning as effectively.
16.
Dr. Calls/Month
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 500 - Meet minimum 90% of expected 300 doctor calls in the month
Explanation
The correct answer is Rs. 500 - Meet minimum 90% of expected 300 doctor calls in the month. This option offers the lowest price while still meeting the minimum requirement of 90% of expected doctor calls. The other options either have a higher price or a lower percentage requirement, making them less favorable choices.
17.
Core Dr Visit compliance
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 500 - Minimum 90% visit compliance of all core doctors (2/3 visits) as defined by division
Explanation
The correct answer is Rs. 500 - Minimum 90% visit compliance of all core doctors (2/3 visits) as defined by division. This option offers a lower payment amount but still requires a high level of visit compliance from the core doctors. It ensures that at least 90% of the required visits are completed by the doctors, which is a significant percentage. This option strikes a balance between incentivizing compliance and managing costs.
18.
Complete filling of RCPA, Detailing of brands, Samples and gift distribution , POBS
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 500 - Minimum for core and targeted doctors
Explanation
The given answer suggests that the minimum amount for core and targeted doctors is Rs. 500. This means that when filling the RCPA, detailing of brands, distributing samples and gifts, and using POBS, a minimum of Rs. 500 should be spent on core and targeted doctors.
19.
Early Sales Closing
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 500 - Achieve 70% of your sales by 21st of the month
Explanation
The correct answer is Rs. 500 because it offers the earliest sales closing date, which is the 21st of the month. This means that the sales target of achieving 70% of sales needs to be met by the 21st, giving the salesperson more time to achieve their target compared to the other options.
20.
  Disbursement will be quarterly (You should not have negative growth to earn call average, compliance, RCPA Norms incentive, with reporting schedule as per Company norms.)
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement states that disbursement will be made quarterly and in order to earn call average, compliance, RCPA Norms incentive, and to adhere to the reporting schedule as per Company norms, one should not have negative growth. The answer "True" means that this statement is correct and all the mentioned conditions need to be fulfilled in order to receive disbursements and incentives.
21.
If PCPM is 1.5 Lac and growth is >=35% How much incentive TE will get
Correct Answer
B. 3150
Explanation
Based on the given information, if the PCPM (Per Capita Per Month) is 1.5 Lac (150,000) and the growth is greater than or equal to 35%, TE (Total Earnings) will receive an incentive of 3150.
22.
If PCPM is 2.5 Lac and growth is >=30% how much incentive TE will earn
Correct Answer
A. 8400
Explanation
If the PCPM (Per Capita Per Month) is 2.5 Lac (250,000) and the growth is greater than or equal to 30%, the incentive that TE (Training Executive) will earn is 8400.
23.
Growth is calculated as
Correct Answer
D. (CYS-LYS/LYS)*100
Explanation
The given answer is (CYS-LYS/LYS)*100. This is because the formula for growth is typically calculated by taking the difference between the current value (CYS) and the previous value (LYS), divided by the previous value (LYS), and then multiplied by 100 to express it as a percentage. This formula allows for the comparison of growth rates between different periods or entities.
24.
TE PCPM is 3.80 lac and growth is >=25% what will his total earning of incentive
Correct Answer
B. 13702
Explanation
The correct answer is 13702. This can be determined by multiplying the TE PCPM (3.80 lac) by the growth percentage (25%). The result is 0.95 lac. Adding this amount to the TE PCPM gives a total earning of 4.75 lac, which is equivalent to 13702.
25.
If PCPM is 4.75 and growth is >30% what the incentive TE will get
Correct Answer
A. 20900
Explanation
Based on the given information, if the PCPM (Per Capita Per Month) is 4.75 and the growth rate is greater than 30%, the incentive TE (Training Executive) will receive 20900.
26.
If PCPM of 9 Lac and growth >=12.5 What will be the incentive amount for TE
Correct Answer
C. 49500
Explanation
The correct answer is 49500 because the question states that the PCPM (Per Capita Per Month) is 9 Lac and the growth is greater than or equal to 12.5. Based on this information, the incentive amount for TE (presumably a job position or role) would be 49500.
27.
If TE achieve 1.3 Cr annually with 25% growth then will get incentive
Correct Answer
B. 3 lac
Explanation
If TE achieves 1.3 Cr annually with a 25% growth, they will receive an incentive of 3 lac. This means that if their annual revenue reaches or exceeds 1.3 Cr and grows by 25%, they will be rewarded with 3 lac as an incentive.
28.
If TE sale is 24 Lac in one year then he will be eligible to get annual incentive of
Correct Answer
C. 30 K Utility Item
Explanation
If the TE sale is 24 Lac in one year, then the TE will be eligible to receive an annual incentive of 30 K Utility Item.
29.
If TE achieve sale of 48 lac with 30% growth and also hitting the target for 2019-20 with the base sale of 37 lac in 2018-19 then TE can earn total incentive of
Correct Answer
D. 4.65 Lac
Explanation
If TE achieves a sale of 48 lac with a 30% growth and also hits the target for 2019-20 with a base sale of 37 lac in 2018-19, then TE can earn a total incentive of 4.65 Lac. This is calculated by taking the base sale of 37 lac and adding the 30% growth, which gives a total sale of 48.1 lac. Then, the incentive is calculated as 10% of the total sale, which is 4.81 lac. However, since the maximum incentive limit is 4.65 lac, TE can earn a maximum incentive of 4.65 Lac.
30.
Product wise incentives will release
Correct Answer
C. Annually
Explanation
Product wise incentives are released annually. This means that the incentives for each product are given out once a year. This could be a strategy used by a company to motivate and reward their employees for their performance in selling specific products. By releasing the incentives annually, it allows for a longer period of time to assess the sales performance and determine the amount of incentives to be given. Additionally, annual incentives may be more substantial and impactful compared to incentives given on a monthly, quarterly, or bi-monthly basis.