Take The Business Law Midterm Exam Test!

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Take The Business Law Midterm Exam Test! - Quiz

Over the first half of the semester we have been able to cover much on business law and as we come closer to the midterms there is increased need to be on our feet on what we learnt so far. The take up the business law midterm 1 part two quiz and refresh your memory.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Each state has its own constitution.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Each state in a country has the authority to create and enforce its own set of laws and regulations. This is done through a document called a constitution, which outlines the fundamental principles, rights, and governance structure of the state. Therefore, it is true that each state has its own constitution.

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  • 2. 

    "Stare decisis" is a doctrine obligating judges to follow precedents established within their jurisdictions.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because "stare decisis" is a legal principle that means "to stand by things decided." It is a doctrine that requires judges to follow the legal precedents set by higher courts within their jurisdiction. This principle ensures consistency and predictability in the legal system, as decisions made in similar cases should be treated similarly. Therefore, judges are obligated to follow established precedents unless there are compelling reasons to deviate from them.

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  • 3. 

    A substantive law creates or defines legal rights and obligations.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Substantive law refers to the body of law that establishes and outlines the rights and obligations of individuals and organizations. It sets the rules and regulations that govern various aspects of society, such as property rights, contracts, and criminal offenses. This law creates legal rights and duties that individuals must adhere to. Therefore, the statement that substantive law creates or defines legal rights and obligations is true.

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  • 4. 

    The function of the courts is to interpret and apply the law.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the primary role of the courts is to interpret and apply the law. When disputes arise, the courts are responsible for hearing arguments from both sides, examining the relevant laws and legal precedents, and making decisions based on their interpretation of the law. This ensures that the law is consistently applied and justice is served. The courts also play a crucial role in resolving conflicts, protecting individual rights, and upholding the rule of law in society.

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  • 5. 

    A state court cannot exercise jurisdiction over all of the property located withing the boundaries of the state.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because a state court does have the authority to exercise jurisdiction over all of the property located within the boundaries of the state. State courts have the power to hear cases involving property disputes, such as ownership, title, and other related matters. They can enforce laws and regulations regarding property within their jurisdiction. Therefore, the statement is incorrect.

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  • 6. 

    Mandatory arbitration clauses in employment contracts are not enforceable.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because mandatory arbitration clauses in employment contracts are indeed enforceable. These clauses require employees to resolve any disputes through arbitration rather than going to court. While there may be some limitations and exceptions to the enforceability of these clauses, they are generally upheld by courts. Many employers include mandatory arbitration clauses in their contracts to avoid costly and time-consuming litigation processes.

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  • 7. 

    A state's rules of civil procedure govarn a civil trial held in that state's courts.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because a state's rules of civil procedure indeed govern a civil trial held in that state's courts. These rules outline the procedures and guidelines that must be followed during the trial process, including the filing of complaints, the exchange of evidence, the conduct of depositions, and the presentation of arguments and evidence in court. These rules ensure fairness and consistency in the judicial system and help to maintain the integrity of civil trials.

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  • 8. 

    An answer can deny the allegations made in a complaint.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An answer can deny the allegations made in a complaint. This means that when responding to a complaint, the person or party accused can refute or reject the claims made against them. They have the opportunity to present their side of the story and provide evidence or arguments to counter the allegations. This is an important aspect of the legal process, allowing for a fair and balanced evaluation of the complaint.

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  • 9. 

    In most states, if neither party requests a jry , the court will seat a jury on its own motion.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    In most states, if neither party requests a jury, the court will not seat a jury on its own motion.

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  • 10. 

    The courts can hold acts of the legislative and executive branches unconstitutional.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the courts have the power of judicial review, which allows them to determine whether laws and actions of the legislative and executive branches are in accordance with the constitution. If the courts find that a law or action is unconstitutional, they can declare it null and void, effectively invalidating it. This power serves as a check and balance on the other branches of government, ensuring that they do not exceed their constitutional authority.

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  • 11. 

    Congress may regulate any activity that substantially affects interstate commerce.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because according to the Commerce Clause of the United States Constitution, Congress has the power to regulate any activity that has a significant impact on interstate commerce. This includes activities that may seem purely local in nature, as long as they have a substantial effect on the overall national economy. This power has been interpreted broadly by the courts, allowing Congress to regulate a wide range of activities in order to ensure the smooth functioning of interstate commerce.

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  • 12. 

    The First Amendment protects obscene speech.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The First Amendment does not protect obscene speech. Obscenity is not considered a form of protected speech under the Constitution. The Supreme Court has established a three-pronged test to determine if material is obscene, known as the Miller test. According to this test, material is considered obscene if it appeals to prurient interests, depicts sexual conduct in an offensive way, and lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 13. 

    The unethical conduct of corporate management is unlikely to affect the behavior of lower-level employees.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the unethical conduct of corporate management can have a significant impact on the behavior of lower-level employees. When employees witness unethical behavior from their superiors, it can create a culture of misconduct and lower morale within the organization. This can lead to a decrease in productivity, trust, and overall ethical standards among employees. Additionally, if management is not held accountable for their unethical actions, it sends a message to lower-level employees that such behavior is acceptable, further perpetuating unethical conduct throughout the organization.

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  • 14. 

    Setting realistic workplace goals can reduce the probability that employees will act unethically.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Setting realistic workplace goals can reduce the probability that employees will act unethically because when employees are given achievable goals, they are more likely to feel motivated and satisfied with their work. This can help create a positive work environment where employees are less likely to resort to unethical behavior in order to meet unrealistic expectations. Additionally, setting realistic goals allows employees to focus on quality and ethical practices rather than cutting corners or engaging in unethical behavior to meet unattainable targets.

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  • 15. 

    According to utilitarianism, it does not matter how many people benefit from an act.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Utilitarianism is an ethical theory that suggests the right action is the one that maximizes overall happiness or utility for the greatest number of people. Therefore, according to utilitarianism, it does matter how many people benefit from an act. The more people who benefit, the greater the overall happiness or utility achieved. Therefore, the statement that it does not matter how many people benefit from an act is false.

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  • 16. 

    To commit an intentional tort, a person need not act with a harmful motive.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An intentional tort refers to a deliberate act that causes harm or injury to another person. It does not require the person to have a harmful motive or intent. Even if the person did not intend to cause harm, if their actions were intentional and resulted in harm, it can still be considered an intentional tort. Therefore, the statement that a person need not act with a harmful motive to commit an intentional tort is true.

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  • 17. 

    An assault may be committed when a person acts in a way so as to create an apprehension of offensive contact in the distant future.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false. An assault is not committed when a person acts in a way to create an apprehension of offensive contact in the distant future. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension or fear of immediate harmful or offensive contact. It does not pertain to future events or distant possibilities. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 18. 

    A store manager may delay a suspected shoplifter if the manager has probable cause to justify delaying the suspect.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because a store manager has the authority to delay a suspected shoplifter if there is probable cause to justify it. Probable cause refers to having reasonable grounds to believe that the person has committed or is about to commit a crime. In this situation, the store manager can detain the suspect until the police arrive to further investigate the situation. This is done to protect the store's property and prevent any potential harm or loss.

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  • 19. 

    Strict liability is imposed for reasons other than fault.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Strict liability is a legal concept that holds individuals or entities responsible for the consequences of their actions, regardless of whether they were negligent or at fault. This means that even if a person or organization did not intend to cause harm or act recklessly, they can still be held liable for any damages caused. The imposition of strict liability is based on the idea that certain activities or products are inherently dangerous and should be regulated to protect the public. Therefore, the statement that strict liability is imposed for reasons other than fault is true.

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  • 20. 

    A party who unintentionally uses the trademark of another will not be liable for trademark infringement.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Using someone else's trademark without permission can still be considered trademark infringement, even if it was unintentional. Trademark law protects the exclusive rights of the trademark owner to use their mark in commerce and prevent others from using it without authorization. Intent is not a requirement for trademark infringement, as long as there is a likelihood of confusion or damage to the trademark owner's rights. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 21. 

    A patent applicant must demonstrates that the invention, discovery, or design is commercially practicable to receive a patent.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    To receive a patent, a patent applicant does not need to demonstrate that the invention, discovery, or design is commercially practicable. The requirement for receiving a patent is that the invention is novel, non-obvious, and useful. The commercial viability of the invention is not a factor in determining whether a patent should be granted. Therefore, the statement is false.

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