BRC 104 - Traffic Stops Part 2 (377-408)
This quiz covers all material from page 377 (INITIATING THE HIGH RISK STOP) to page 408 (DRUGGED DRIVING). It is 50 questions. 80% is a passing score. Good luck!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The primary officer will coordinate a stopping site based on.......
- A.
# of occpants in the violator's vehicle
- B.
Proximinty to school
- C.
Officer firepower
- D.
The backup unit's ETA
Correct Answer
D. The backup unit's ETAExplanation
The primary officer will coordinate a stopping site based on the backup unit's ETA. This means that the officer will choose a stopping site that is most convenient and suitable based on how quickly the backup unit can arrive at the location. This is important for ensuring that the officer has the necessary support and assistance in dealing with the violator, as well as maintaining the safety of everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In regards to a backup officer's lights, all of them should be focused on...
- A.
The driver of the vehicle
- B.
The vehicle's passenger side
- C.
The vehicle's tallights
- D.
The vehicle's headlights
Correct Answer
B. The vehicle's passenger sideExplanation
The backup officer's lights should be focused on the vehicle's passenger side. This is important because the backup officer needs to have a clear view of the area around the vehicle, especially on the side where the officer may need to exit or where potential hazards or obstacles may be present. Focusing the lights on the vehicle's passenger side helps to ensure the officer's safety and allows for effective monitoring of the surroundings.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which backup technique is used when there are more than 2 backup officers?
- A.
The Tactical "L"
- B.
The "Wedge"
- C.
The "Sidewinder"
- D.
The "Low-Ready"
Correct Answer
B. The "Wedge"Explanation
The "Wedge" backup technique is used when there are more than 2 backup officers. In this technique, the officers form a triangular formation with one officer in the front and the other officers positioned to the sides, creating a wedge shape. This formation allows for better coverage and visibility, as well as providing multiple angles of approach and defense. It is commonly used in situations where there is a need for a larger team to provide backup and support.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A suspect's hands must always be visible. If the violator's vehicle tint is too dark to see inside, the officer should....
- A.
Instruct all suspects to raise their hands to the ceiling of the vehicle
- B.
Instruct all suspects to exit the vehicle
- C.
Instruct all suspects to place both hands out the windows
- D.
Approach the vehicle using the "Tactical L"
Correct Answer
C. Instruct all suspects to place both hands out the windowsExplanation
The correct answer is to instruct all suspects to place both hands out the windows. This is because when a suspect's vehicle tint is too dark to see inside, having all suspects place their hands out the windows ensures that their hands are visible to the officer. This allows the officer to maintain control of the situation and ensures their safety during the interaction with the suspects.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the "plus one" rule?
- A.
Always assume there is another suspect in the vehicle
- B.
Always have more officers than needed just in case
- C.
Never assume there is another suspect in the vehicle
- D.
Always load an extra round into your duty weapon's chamber for an "extra" round.
Correct Answer
A. Always assume there is another suspect in the vehicleExplanation
The "plus one" rule refers to the practice of always assuming that there is another suspect in the vehicle. This means that even if there is only one known suspect, law enforcement officers should be prepared for the possibility of an additional suspect hiding or being present in the vehicle. This rule helps to ensure the safety of the officers and allows them to be prepared for any potential threats or surprises during a vehicle stop or arrest.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
- A.
When opening a trunk, one officer should open the trunk, and the other officer should stand directly in front of the trunk to surprise any suspects in the trunk
- B.
When opening a trunk, always use keyless entry
- C.
When opening the trunk, never use the key, but rather the trunk latch inside the vehicle
- D.
When opening the trunk of a vehicle, one officer pops the trunk while the other officer holds it down. This prevents any suspects from jumping out
Correct Answer
D. When opening the trunk of a vehicle, one officer pops the trunk while the other officer holds it down. This prevents any suspects from jumping outExplanation
When opening the trunk of a vehicle, it is important for one officer to pop the trunk while the other officer holds it down. This is done to prevent any suspects who may be hiding in the trunk from jumping out and potentially escaping or causing harm. By having one officer hold the trunk down, it ensures that any potential suspects are unable to surprise or overpower the officers during the opening of the trunk. This method helps to maintain control of the situation and ensures the safety of the officers and any potential suspects.Rate this question:
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- 7.
_____ refers to when a person operates a vehicle while impaired by drugs or alcohol.
- A.
Driving Under the Influence (DUI)
- B.
Driving While Impaired (DWI)
- C.
Operating Under Control of Hallucinogens (OUCH)
- D.
Impaired Operation (IO)
Correct Answer
A. Driving Under the Influence (DUI)Explanation
Driving Under the Influence (DUI) refers to when a person operates a vehicle while impaired by drugs or alcohol. This term is commonly used to describe the illegal act of driving while intoxicated or under the influence of substances that impair one's ability to drive safely. It is important to note that DUI laws vary by jurisdiction, but generally, it is considered a serious offense with penalties that may include fines, license suspension, and even imprisonment.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The Florida law sets it is illegal for a person to have a BAC or BrAC of ______ or more while in actual physical control of a motor vehicle.
- A.
.06
- B.
.08
- C.
.10
- D.
.02
Correct Answer
B. .08Explanation
The correct answer is .08. In Florida, it is illegal for a person to have a Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) or Breath Alcohol Concentration (BrAC) of .08 or more while in control of a motor vehicle. This means that if a person's BAC or BrAC is .08 or higher, they are considered to be legally intoxicated and can be charged with driving under the influence (DUI). This law is in place to ensure the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road, as alcohol impairs judgment, coordination, and reaction time.Rate this question:
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- 9.
True or False: It is possible to get a DUI on a bicycle
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
It is possible to get a DUI (Driving Under the Influence) on a bicycle because in many jurisdictions, the law considers bicycles as vehicles. Therefore, if a person is riding a bicycle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, they can be charged with a DUI, just like if they were driving a car. This is done to ensure the safety of both the cyclist and other road users.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A man is sitting in a running vehicle and is drinking an alcoholic beverage. The vehicle is located in his own driveway. Can he be charged with DUI?
- A.
Yes, it doesn't matter whether he is on private property.
- B.
No, DUI is enforceable on public roadways only.
Correct Answer
A. Yes, it doesn't matter whether he is on private property.Explanation
The answer is "Yes, it doesn't matter whether he is on private property." This is because DUI (Driving Under the Influence) laws typically apply to any person operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, regardless of whether they are on public or private property. The focus is on the act of operating a vehicle while impaired, rather than the location of the vehicle. Therefore, the man can still be charged with DUI even if he is in his own driveway.Rate this question:
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- 11.
______ means that something is apparent at face value. It is not obvious, yet requries more than mere suspicion.
- A.
Hearsay
- B.
Habeas Corpus
- C.
Normal Faculties
- D.
Prima Facie
Correct Answer
D. Prima FacieExplanation
Prima facie means that something is apparent at face value. It suggests that there is initial evidence or a presumption of truth, even though it may not be obvious or conclusive. Prima facie requires more than mere suspicion and indicates that there is enough evidence to support a claim or argument until proven otherwise.Rate this question:
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- 12.
____ is the process where alcohol enters the bloodstream.
- A.
Absorption
- B.
Distribution
- C.
Metabolism
- D.
Elimination
Correct Answer
A. AbsorptionExplanation
Absorption is the correct answer because it refers to the process where alcohol enters the bloodstream. After consumption, alcohol is absorbed through the walls of the stomach and small intestine and then enters the bloodstream, where it is distributed throughout the body. This process is crucial in determining the effects of alcohol on the body and how quickly it reaches the brain, leading to intoxication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
____ is the biological process by which the body breaks down alcohol into compounds that are more readily eliminated.
- A.
Absorption
- B.
Distribution
- C.
Metabolism
- D.
Elimination
Correct Answer
C. MetabolismExplanation
Metabolism is the biological process by which the body breaks down alcohol into compounds that are more readily eliminated. During metabolism, enzymes in the liver convert alcohol into acetaldehyde, which is then further broken down into carbon dioxide and water. This process allows the body to eliminate alcohol from the system more efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The average alcohol elimination rate of humans is _____ per hour.
- A.
.08%
- B.
.10%
- C.
.15%
- D.
.20%
Correct Answer
C. .15%Explanation
The average alcohol elimination rate of humans is 0.15% per hour. This means that, on average, the human body eliminates 0.15% of alcohol from the bloodstream every hour. This rate can vary depending on various factors such as body weight, metabolism, and liver function. It is important to note that this elimination rate is an average and individual rates may differ.Rate this question:
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- 15.
There are 3 phases to the DUI detection process. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
- A.
Vehicle in motion or actual physical control
- B.
Personal contact
- C.
Pre-arrest screening
- D.
Violator due process
Correct Answer
D. Violator due processExplanation
The correct answer is Violator due process. Violator due process is not one of the phases in the DUI detection process. The three phases are: vehicle in motion or actual physical control, personal contact, and pre-arrest screening. Violator due process refers to the legal rights and procedures that must be followed after a person is arrested for DUI, rather than a phase in the detection process itself.Rate this question:
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- 16.
There are 2 major tasks and 1 major observation in Phase 1. Which is missing?1. Observe the vehicle in motion2. Determine whether to stop the vehicle3. _______________________
- A.
Observe the stopping sequence of the vehicle
- B.
Stop the vehicle and contact the driver
- C.
Prepare to stop the vehicle
- D.
Notify dispatch of the traffic stop
Correct Answer
A. Observe the stopping sequence of the vehicle -
- 17.
Which of the following is NOT a clue of DUI?
- A.
Braking erratically
- B.
Turning with a wide radius
- C.
Following too closely
- D.
Driving at night with headlights off
- E.
Anticipated reactions
Correct Answer
E. Anticipated reactionsExplanation
Anticipated reactions are not a clue of DUI because they refer to a driver's ability to predict and respond to other drivers' actions on the road. While impaired driving can certainly affect a person's ability to anticipate reactions, it is not specifically a clue of DUI itself. The other options listed, such as braking erratically, turning with a wide radius, following too closely, and driving at night with headlights off, are all potential signs of impaired driving and can be indicative of DUI.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the major decision that must be made in Phase 2?
- A.
Observing the stopping sequence
- B.
Determining whether or not to stop the vehicle
- C.
Determining whether or not to ask the driver to exit the vehicle
- D.
Determining whether or not to arrest the driver
Correct Answer
C. Determining whether or not to ask the driver to exit the vehicleExplanation
In Phase 2, the major decision that must be made is determining whether or not to ask the driver to exit the vehicle. This decision is crucial as it helps in ensuring the safety of the officer and assessing the situation further. Asking the driver to exit the vehicle allows the officer to have a better view of the driver and potentially minimize any potential threat or danger. It also provides an opportunity for the officer to conduct further investigations or assessments if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In the acronym "MEDIC", what does the "I" stand for?
- A.
Injury to the head
- B.
Impairment of the Driver
- C.
Initiation of the Stop
- D.
Initiate the EMS System
Correct Answer
A. Injury to the headExplanation
The acronym "MEDIC" is commonly used in emergency medical situations. The "I" in "MEDIC" stands for "Injury to the head." This indicates that the acronym is used to assess and address head injuries in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In the acronym 'MEDIC', what does the "C" stand for?
- A.
Crazy (Signal 20)
- B.
Call EMS
- C.
Create a crime scene perimeter
- D.
Cognitive problems
Correct Answer
D. Cognitive problemsExplanation
The acronym 'MEDIC' is commonly used in emergency medical situations. The "C" in 'MEDIC' stands for cognitive problems. This means that the person experiencing the medical emergency is having difficulties with their mental processes, such as thinking, memory, or problem-solving. This could be indicative of a variety of conditions or injuries, and it is important for medical professionals to assess and address these cognitive problems in order to provide appropriate care and treatment.Rate this question:
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- 21.
True or False: An officer must administer Miranda warnings before initiating Standardized Field Sobriety Exercises
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
An officer is not required to administer Miranda warnings before initiating Standardized Field Sobriety Exercises. Miranda warnings are only necessary when a person is in custody and will be questioned. Standardized Field Sobriety Exercises are considered non-custodial and are used to determine a person's level of impairment. Therefore, Miranda warnings are not required in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 22.
There are 2 major tasks to be accomplished in Phase 3 of DUI detection. One of them is administering SFSEs (Standardized Field Sobriety Exercises). What is the other?
- A.
Performing SFSEs
- B.
Determining whether or not to arrest the driver
- C.
Determining a "PASS" or "FAIL" status for each SFSE
- D.
Arranging for a Preliminary Breath Test (PBT)
Correct Answer
D. Arranging for a Preliminary Breath Test (PBT)Explanation
In Phase 3 of DUI detection, one of the major tasks is administering SFSEs (Standardized Field Sobriety Exercises). The other major task is arranging for a Preliminary Breath Test (PBT). This test is conducted to determine the blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of the driver. It helps in providing additional evidence to support the decision of whether or not to arrest the driver for driving under the influence.Rate this question:
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- 23.
True or False: Phase 2 cannot be reached if Phase 1 is not present.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement implies that Phase 2 can be reached even if Phase 1 is not present. This means that Phase 1 is not a necessary condition for Phase 2 to occur. Therefore, the correct answer is False.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When doing HGN tests, 3 things are checked for. Which of the following checks are missing?1. _______________2. Distinct and sustained nystagmus at maximum deviation3. Onset of nystagmus prior to 45 degrees.
- A.
Presence of Vertical Gaze Nystagmus
- B.
Lack of smooth pursuit
- C.
Distinct eye movement
- D.
Eye color and pupil dilation
Correct Answer
B. Lack of smooth pursuitExplanation
The correct answer is "Lack of smooth pursuit." In HGN tests, smooth pursuit refers to the ability of the eye to smoothly track a moving object. This test is used to assess the functioning of the eye muscles and the coordination between the eyes. If the smooth pursuit is lacking, it may indicate a problem with the eye muscles or the brain's ability to control eye movements. Therefore, the lack of smooth pursuit is an important factor that should be checked for during HGN tests.Rate this question:
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- 25.
_____ are methods of assessing a suspect's mental and physical impairment in performing tasks.
- A.
Psychophysical exercises
- B.
Standardized Field Sobriety Tests
- C.
Psychosomatic exercises
- D.
Impairment
Correct Answer
A. Psychophysical exercisesExplanation
Psychophysical exercises refer to methods used to assess a suspect's mental and physical impairment in performing tasks. These exercises involve evaluating the individual's coordination, balance, reaction time, and cognitive abilities to determine if they are impaired. By observing their performance in these exercises, authorities can gather evidence of impairment, particularly in cases related to driving under the influence or other situations where mental and physical capabilities are crucial. Standardized Field Sobriety Tests, on the other hand, specifically focus on assessing impairment caused by alcohol or drugs. Psychosomatic exercises involve the mind-body connection and are not directly related to assessing impairment.Rate this question:
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- 26.
All Standardized Field Sobriety Tests focus on the suspect's ability...
- A.
To recognize impairment
- B.
To develop a conscience
- C.
To focus attention
- D.
To divide attention
Correct Answer
D. To divide attentionExplanation
Standardized Field Sobriety Tests are designed to assess a suspect's level of impairment while driving under the influence. One crucial aspect of impairment is the ability to divide attention between multiple tasks simultaneously. These tests, such as the walk-and-turn or one-leg stand, require individuals to perform physical movements while also following instructions and maintaining balance. Dividing attention is an essential skill for safe driving, and if impaired, it can indicate intoxication. Therefore, the correct answer is "To divide attention."Rate this question:
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- 27.
How many indicators can be present in the "Walk and Turn" exercise?
- A.
6
- B.
7
- C.
8
- D.
12
Correct Answer
C. 8Explanation
In the "Walk and Turn" exercise, there can be a total of eight indicators. These indicators are specific actions or behaviors that the person performing the exercise needs to follow. These indicators include starting the exercise in the proper position, maintaining balance during the instructions, taking the correct number of steps, touching heel-to-toe, turning properly, and counting the steps out loud. By correctly performing these eight indicators, the person demonstrates their ability to follow instructions and maintain coordination, which is crucial in determining their level of impairment.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All 3 Standardized Field Sobriety Tests (SFSEs) are validated by the.....
- A.
National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
- B.
Insurance Institute for Highway Safety
- C.
National Traffic Enforcement Association
- D.
Police Benelovence Association
Correct Answer
A. National Highway Traffic Safety AdministrationExplanation
The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) is responsible for validating the three Standardized Field Sobriety Tests (SFSTs). SFSTs are a series of tests used by law enforcement officers to determine if a driver is impaired by alcohol or drugs. The NHTSA has conducted extensive research and studies to develop and validate these tests, ensuring their accuracy and reliability in detecting impairment. Therefore, the correct answer is the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.Rate this question:
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- 29.
In the "One Leg Stand" exercise, there are two stages. The first stage is the "Instruction" stage. What is the second stage?
- A.
Balancing stage
- B.
Counting stage
- C.
Balance and Counting stage
- D.
Performance stage
Correct Answer
C. Balance and Counting stageExplanation
The second stage of the "One Leg Stand" exercise is the Balance and Counting stage. In this stage, the individual is required to lift one leg off the ground and maintain balance while counting out loud for a specific duration of time. This stage tests the person's ability to balance on one leg and perform a mental task simultaneously, which is important for assessing their level of impairment or intoxication.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is NOT a clue for the One Leg Stand?
- A.
Swaying while balancing
- B.
Using arms for balance
- C.
Not counting out loud
- D.
Putting foot down
- E.
Hopping
Correct Answer
C. Not counting out loudExplanation
The One Leg Stand is a standardized field sobriety test used to assess a person's balance and coordination. During this test, the person is required to stand on one leg while counting out loud. The other clues listed in the question, such as swaying while balancing, using arms for balance, putting foot down, and hopping, are all indicators of impairment and would suggest that the person is unable to successfully perform the test. However, not counting out loud is not a specific clue for the One Leg Stand, as it is not directly related to balance or coordination.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In the Pre-arrest screening phase (Phase 3), what is the officer's main decision?
- A.
Whether or not to arrest the subject
- B.
Whether or not to make the driver exit the vehicle
- C.
What is impairing the subject
- D.
Is the DUI alcohol related or drug related?
Correct Answer
A. Whether or not to arrest the subjectExplanation
In the Pre-arrest screening phase, the officer's main decision is to determine whether or not to arrest the subject. This phase involves evaluating the evidence and observations to determine if there is enough probable cause to make an arrest. The officer considers factors such as the suspect's behavior, physical appearance, and any other evidence of impairment or illegal activity. Based on this assessment, the officer decides whether or not to proceed with the arrest.Rate this question:
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- 32.
True or False: Drivers in Florida are considered to have given their consent to submit to an approved chemical or physical test to determine the alcohol, chemical substance, or controlled substance content of their blood.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
In Florida, drivers are considered to have given their consent to submit to an approved chemical or physical test to determine the alcohol, chemical substance, or controlled substance content of their blood. This means that if a driver is suspected of driving under the influence, they are legally obligated to comply with the testing. Refusing to take the test can result in penalties such as license suspension. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately reflects the consent laws for drivers in Florida.Rate this question:
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- 33.
If a person who has a CDL refuses a breath, blood, or urine test a SECOND time, what is the penalty?
- A.
1 year in prison
- B.
Permanent suspension from driving a Commercial Motor Vehicle
- C.
2 months in prison
- D.
6 months in prison
Correct Answer
B. Permanent suspension from driving a Commercial Motor VehicleExplanation
If a person who has a CDL (Commercial Driver's License) refuses a breath, blood, or urine test a SECOND time, the penalty is a permanent suspension from driving a Commercial Motor Vehicle. This means that the person will no longer be able to operate a commercial vehicle for the rest of their life.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If a person under 21 has a BAC of .04, what can the officer do?
- A.
Arrest the person for DUI
- B.
The person's driver's license is revoked until they turn 21
- C.
The person's license is suspended
- D.
The person is released from custody.
Correct Answer
C. The person's license is suspendedExplanation
If a person under 21 has a BAC of .04, the officer can suspend their license. This means that the person will not be allowed to drive for a certain period of time. This is a common consequence for individuals who are caught driving under the influence of alcohol, even if their BAC is below the legal limit for adults. By suspending their license, it serves as a deterrent and punishment for the person's actions, while also ensuring the safety of others on the road.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A _____ (as it relates to DUI) is any substance, which when taken into the human body, can impair the ability of the person to operate a vehicle safely.
- A.
Drug
- B.
Polydrug
- C.
Impairment
- D.
Intoxicant
Correct Answer
A. DrugExplanation
The correct answer is "Drug." In the context of DUI (Driving Under the Influence), a drug refers to any substance that, when consumed by a person, can hinder their ability to safely operate a vehicle. This can include illegal drugs, prescription medications, or even over-the-counter drugs that have the potential to impair one's motor skills, judgment, or reaction time. It is important to note that alcohol is also considered a drug in this context.Rate this question:
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- 36.
There are 7 different types of "drugs" listed in the text. This type of drug has symptoms which include restlessness, excessive talking, agitation, euphoria, exaggerated reflexes, grinding of teeth, redness of nasal area, and/or body tremors.HGN/VGN not presentPupils can be dilated
- A.
CNS Depressant
- B.
CNS Stimulant
- C.
Hallicinogens
- D.
Narcotic Analgesic
Correct Answer
B. CNS StimulantExplanation
The correct answer is CNS Stimulant because the symptoms mentioned in the question, such as restlessness, excessive talking, agitation, euphoria, exaggerated reflexes, grinding of teeth, redness of nasal area, and body tremors, are commonly associated with the use of stimulant drugs. CNS stimulants, such as amphetamines and cocaine, increase brain activity and alertness, leading to these symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 37.
This type of drug (which includes PCP and Ketamine) has symptoms which include excessive perspiration, repetitive speech, confusion, violence, blank stare, incomplete verbal responses, and/or muscle rigidity.HGN/VGN usually presentPupil size generally normal
- A.
CNS Depressant
- B.
Hallucinogen
- C.
Dissociative Analgesic
- D.
Narcotic Analgesic
Correct Answer
C. Dissociative AnalgesicExplanation
A dissociative analgesic is a type of drug that includes PCP and Ketamine. These drugs can cause symptoms such as excessive perspiration, repetitive speech, confusion, violence, blank stare, incomplete verbal responses, and muscle rigidity. The presence of Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) and Vertical Gaze Nystagmus (VGN) is usually observed in individuals under the influence of dissociative analgesics. Additionally, pupil size is generally normal.Rate this question:
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- 38.
This type of drug include nitrous oxide, paint, and glue. Symptoms include disorientation, confusion, slurred speech, nausea, residue on subject's face, hands, or clothing, and/or chemical odorHGN present/VGN possibly presentPupil size normal
- A.
Inhalants
- B.
Narcotic Analgesic
- C.
Cannabis
- D.
CNS Depressant
Correct Answer
A. InhalantsExplanation
Inhalants are substances that are inhaled, typically through the nose or mouth, to produce mind-altering effects. They include substances like nitrous oxide, paint, and glue. When someone uses inhalants, they can experience symptoms such as disorientation, confusion, slurred speech, nausea, residue on their face, hands, or clothing, and/or a chemical odor. The presence of Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN) and possibly Vertical Gaze Nystagmus (VGN) can indicate inhalant use, and pupil size is usually normal. Therefore, the correct answer is Inhalants.Rate this question:
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- 39.
"DRE" stands for
- A.
A type of drug symptom
- B.
A Drug Recognition Expert
- C.
A Drug Reinforcement Exercise
- D.
A name for someone who deals drugs
Correct Answer
B. A Drug Recognition ExpertExplanation
"DRE" stands for Drug Recognition Expert. A Drug Recognition Expert is a highly trained law enforcement officer who specializes in identifying individuals impaired by drugs. They are trained to conduct thorough evaluations and assessments to determine the presence and influence of drugs on an individual's behavior and physical characteristics. These experts play a crucial role in enforcing drug-related laws and ensuring public safety on the roads.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A complete and comprehensive evaluation of an impaired driver is a....
- A.
DUI Evaluation
- B.
Drug evaluation
- C.
Interdiction evaluation
- D.
Drug Influence Evaluation
Correct Answer
D. Drug Influence EvaluationExplanation
A Drug Influence Evaluation is a comprehensive assessment conducted to determine the level of impairment caused by drug use in a driver. It involves various tests and assessments to evaluate the individual's physical and mental condition, as well as their ability to operate a vehicle safely. This evaluation helps to determine the influence of drugs on the driver's ability to drive and make informed decisions regarding their driving privileges or any necessary treatment.Rate this question:
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- 41.
_____ is using two or more drugs simultaneously.
- A.
Drugging
- B.
Experimenting
- C.
Polydrug use
- D.
Substance Abuse Syndrome
Correct Answer
C. Polydrug useExplanation
Polydrug use refers to the act of using multiple drugs at the same time. This can involve combining different types of drugs, such as alcohol and opioids, or using multiple drugs within the same drug class, such as taking multiple benzodiazepines. Polydrug use can increase the risks and potential negative effects of drug use, including overdose and interactions between drugs. It is important to note that polydrug use is different from substance abuse syndrome, which is a broader term that encompasses a range of behaviors and symptoms related to drug abuse.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Injecting heroin laced with cocaine is known as.....
- A.
Speedballing
- B.
Cannonballing
- C.
Cannonball Running
- D.
Hypertripping
Correct Answer
A. SpeedballingExplanation
Speedballing refers to the practice of injecting heroin and cocaine together. This combination produces a powerful and dangerous high, as heroin is a depressant and cocaine is a stimulant. The effects of these two drugs can be unpredictable and potentially lethal. The term "speedballing" is commonly used in drug culture to describe this specific drug mixture.Rate this question:
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- 43.
If an officer administers a breath test and the test is not consistent with the driver's level of impairment, the officer should....
- A.
Do the breath test again
- B.
Perform a urine or blood test
- C.
Do the breath test 2 more times for validity
- D.
Call a supervisor
Correct Answer
B. Perform a urine or blood testExplanation
If an officer administers a breath test and the test is not consistent with the driver's level of impairment, it is recommended to perform a urine or blood test. This is because breath tests can sometimes be inaccurate and may not always reflect the true level of impairment. Urine or blood tests are more reliable and can provide a more accurate measure of the driver's impairment level. Therefore, performing a urine or blood test would be the appropriate course of action in this situation.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 02, 2009Quiz Created by
Brc104
Grammar Mastery: A Quiz on Simple, Compound, and Complex Sentences
Grammar Mastery: A Quiz on Simple, Compound, and Complex Sentences
STEM Entrance Exam Quiz: Can you pass this Stem Exam?
STEM Entrance Exam Quiz: Can you pass this Stem Exam?
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