BRC 104 - Traffic Crash Investigations Part 1 (410-427)

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| By Brc104
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Brc104
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Quizzes Created: 10 | Total Attempts: 8,987
Questions: 25 | Attempts: 374

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BRC Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz covers all information from page 410 (ASSESSING THE SCENE) to page 427 (OBTAINING PERTINENT INFORMATION). It consists of 25 questions. 80% is a passing score. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A _____ is every device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or may be transported or down upon a highway, excepting devices used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks.

    • A.

      Vehicle

    • B.

      Motor Vehicle

    • C.

      Intersection

    • D.

      Limited Access Facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle
    Explanation
    A vehicle refers to any device that is used for transportation on a highway, including cars, trucks, motorcycles, bicycles, and even pedestrians. It encompasses all means of transportation except for devices that are used exclusively on stationary rails or tracks, such as trains or trams.

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  • 2. 

    The main difference between a "vehicle" and a "motor vehicle" is the_______

    • A.

      Number of wheels/tires

    • B.

      # of passengers it can carry

    • C.

      The type of road it can drive on

    • D.

      The element of "self-propulsion"

    Correct Answer
    D. The element of "self-propulsion"
    Explanation
    The main difference between a "vehicle" and a "motor vehicle" is the element of "self-propulsion". A vehicle refers to any means of transportation that can carry people or goods, while a motor vehicle specifically refers to a vehicle that is powered by an engine or motor. This means that motor vehicles have the ability to move themselves without the need for external force or assistance, distinguishing them from other types of vehicles that may require human or animal power to operate.

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  • 3. 

    Any person afoot is known as a _______

    • A.

      Walker

    • B.

      Pedestrian

    • C.

      Bystander

    • D.

      Witness

    Correct Answer
    B. Pedestrian
    Explanation
    A person who is on foot is commonly referred to as a pedestrian. This term is used to describe anyone who is walking instead of using a vehicle for transportation. It is a widely recognized and commonly used term to describe individuals who are traveling by foot.

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  • 4. 

    The "High Occupancy Vehicle (HOV)" lane is an example of....

    • A.

      Traffic control

    • B.

      Private roadway

    • C.

      Limited Access Facility

    • D.

      Easement

    Correct Answer
    C. Limited Access Facility
    Explanation
    The "High Occupancy Vehicle (HOV)" lane is an example of a limited access facility. This is because it is a designated lane on a roadway that is only accessible to vehicles with a certain number of occupants, typically two or more. This restriction on access helps to manage traffic flow and encourage carpooling, thereby reducing congestion and promoting more efficient use of the roadway.

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  • 5. 

    Any highway designated as a state-maintained road by the Department of Transportation is known as a......

    • A.

      State Road

    • B.

      Highway

    • C.

      Freeway

    • D.

      Interstate

    Correct Answer
    A. State Road
    Explanation
    A highway designated as a state-maintained road by the Department of Transportation is known as a State Road. This means that the state government is responsible for maintaining and managing the road, including repairs, signage, and other necessary maintenance. State Roads are typically funded and maintained by the state's transportation department, rather than being part of a larger national or interstate highway system.

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  • 6. 

    ____ is an injury to a person, including the driver, which consists of a physical condition that creates a substantial risk of death, serious personal disfigurement, or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

    • A.

      Bodily Injury

    • B.

      Serious Bodily Injury

    • C.

      Fatal Injury

    • D.

      Incapacitating Injury

    Correct Answer
    B. Serious Bodily Injury
    Explanation
    Serious Bodily Injury is an injury that poses a significant risk of death, severe disfigurement, or long-term impairment of bodily function. It goes beyond a simple bodily injury and involves a more severe physical condition. This term is commonly used in legal contexts to differentiate between different levels of injury severity.

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  • 7. 

    An individual can have a "fatal" injury when....

    • A.

      The individual dies on the scene

    • B.

      The individual has one or more severed limbs

    • C.

      The individual suffers "incapacitating brain trauma" that renders the person medically dead.

    • D.

      The individual suffers an injury, and because of that injury, is dead within 30 days of suffering that injury.

    Correct Answer
    D. The individual suffers an injury, and because of that injury, is dead within 30 days of suffering that injury.
    Explanation
    An individual can have a "fatal" injury when they suffer an injury that ultimately causes their death within 30 days of the injury. This means that the injury directly leads to their demise, even if it takes some time for the person to pass away. It could be due to the severity of the injury or complications that arise from it, leading to their eventual death within the specified timeframe.

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  • 8. 

    The difference between an "incapacitating injury" and a "non-incapacitating injury" is.....

    • A.

      The direct sustainable well-being of the individual

    • B.

      The body parts injured

    • C.

      The need for medical transport

    • D.

      The severity of the injury

    Correct Answer
    C. The need for medical transport
    Explanation
    The difference between an "incapacitating injury" and a "non-incapacitating injury" is the need for medical transport. An incapacitating injury is one that requires the individual to be transported to a medical facility for treatment, while a non-incapacitating injury does not require immediate medical transport. This means that the severity of the injury may not necessarily determine whether it is incapacitating or not, but rather the need for medical transport is the distinguishing factor between the two types of injuries.

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  • 9. 

    Taking control of a traffic crash situation and conducting the resulting investgiation quickly and effectively is known as....

    • A.

      Traffic interdiction

    • B.

      Crash management

    • C.

      Taking crash control

    • D.

      Traffic control interdiction

    Correct Answer
    B. Crash management
    Explanation
    Crash management refers to the process of taking control of a traffic crash situation and conducting the resulting investigation quickly and effectively. It involves managing the scene of the crash, ensuring the safety of those involved, gathering evidence, and determining the cause of the crash. By efficiently managing the crash, authorities can minimize traffic disruptions, provide immediate medical assistance, and gather crucial information for insurance claims and legal proceedings.

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  • 10. 

    The first step of "crash management" is to....

    • A.

      Assess the scene of the crash

    • B.

      Notify EMS

    • C.

      Obtain pertinent information

    • D.

      Responding to the traffic crash safely

    Correct Answer
    D. Responding to the traffic crash safely
    Explanation
    The first step of "crash management" is to respond to the traffic crash safely. This means ensuring the safety of oneself and others involved in the crash by taking appropriate measures such as moving to a safe location, turning on hazard lights, and signaling other drivers. Assessing the scene of the crash, notifying EMS, and obtaining pertinent information are important steps, but they come after ensuring the immediate safety of everyone involved.

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  • 11. 

    The first damange-producing event is known as the....

    • A.

      First harmful event

    • B.

      First element of a crash

    • C.

      Incipient contact

    • D.

      Area of Collision (AOC)

    Correct Answer
    A. First harmful event
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "First harmful event" because it refers to the initial incident or action that causes damage or harm. In the context of the question, it is the first event that leads to damage or destruction.

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  • 12. 

    This can be calculated by determining the first harmful event.

    • A.

      Minimum speed

    • B.

      Area of Collision

    • C.

      Drag Factor

    • D.

      Points assessed to a driver's license

    Correct Answer
    B. Area of Collision
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Area of Collision." This refers to the specific location or zone where a collision or accident occurs. By determining the area of collision, one can analyze the impact and damage caused by the event. This information is crucial for insurance claims, legal investigations, and improving road safety measures.

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  • 13. 

    How many feet should people be kept away from a small vehicle fire if no other hazards are present?

    • A.

      10-20 feet

    • B.

      20-25 feet

    • C.

      30-50 feet

    • D.

      60-90 feet

    Correct Answer
    B. 20-25 feet
    Explanation
    In order to ensure safety, people should be kept at a distance of 20-25 feet from a small vehicle fire when no other hazards are present. This distance allows individuals to stay out of harm's way and minimizes the risk of injury from flames, heat, or potential explosions. Being at a safe distance also allows emergency responders to effectively manage the situation and extinguish the fire without any hindrance.

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  • 14. 

    If smoke from a fire is being blown by the wind, the best direction an officer should evacuate people is....

    • A.

      Downwind

    • B.

      Crosswind

    • C.

      Upwind

    • D.

      It doesn't matter as long as they are away from the fire.

    Correct Answer
    C. Upwind
    Explanation
    When smoke from a fire is being blown by the wind, evacuating people in the direction opposite to the wind (upwind) is the best option. This is because moving upwind helps to avoid the smoke and potential dangers associated with it. By evacuating upwind, people can minimize their exposure to smoke inhalation and increase their chances of reaching a safer area. Evacuating in any other direction, such as downwind or crosswind, would mean moving towards the smoke and putting people at a higher risk.

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  • 15. 

    In regards to working a traffic crash, what should officers be doing?

    • A.

      Working facing traffic

    • B.

      Working facing away from traffic

    • C.

      Performing investigative purposes before administering aid

    • D.

      Performing DUI investigations before crash investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Working facing traffic
    Explanation
    Officers should be working facing traffic when working a traffic crash. This means that they should position themselves in a way that allows them to have a clear view of oncoming traffic while they are at the scene of the crash. This is important for their safety as it allows them to be aware of any potential dangers and take appropriate measures to protect themselves and others. By facing traffic, officers can also better direct traffic and ensure the smooth flow of vehicles around the crash site.

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  • 16. 

    True or False: If vehicles are movable after an accident, it is required by Florida law that operators of those vehicles do so

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    According to Florida law, if vehicles are movable after an accident, it is required for the operators of those vehicles to do so. This means that if the vehicles can be safely moved out of the flow of traffic, the law mandates that the operators should move them to a safe location to avoid obstructing other vehicles and causing further accidents or traffic congestion.

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  • 17. 

    The first step in placing warning devices is....

    • A.

      Placing the devices

    • B.

      Getting the devices out of an officer's patrol vehicle

    • C.

      Lighting them

    • D.

      Determining what type of warning devices to use

    Correct Answer
    D. Determining what type of warning devices to use
    Explanation
    The first step in placing warning devices is determining what type of warning devices to use. This is because different situations may require different types of warning devices, such as flares, cones, or electronic signs. By determining the appropriate type of warning devices, it ensures that the devices will effectively alert drivers and provide adequate safety measures in the given situation.

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  • 18. 

    This is known as the area between the first signs of evidence of crash avoidance or damages to vehicles or property and the final resting places of vehicles, property, and debris, including the immediate surrounding area for access to the scene.

    • A.

      Area of Collision (AOC)

    • B.

      Scope of Incidence

    • C.

      Extent of the Scene

    • D.

      Crime Scene Scop

    Correct Answer
    C. Extent of the Scene
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Extent of the Scene". This term refers to the area between the first signs of evidence of crash avoidance or damages to vehicles or property and the final resting places of vehicles, property, and debris. It also includes the immediate surrounding area for access to the scene. This term helps to define the boundaries of the accident scene and provides a comprehensive understanding of the area that needs to be investigated and documented.

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  • 19. 

    The earliest point a driver could have been aware of a potential danger or hazard is the.........

    • A.

      Point of perception

    • B.

      Point of possible perception

    • C.

      Reaction time

    • D.

      Maximum engagement

    Correct Answer
    B. Point of possible perception
    Explanation
    The point of possible perception refers to the earliest moment at which a driver could have potentially become aware of a potential danger or hazard. It signifies the point at which the driver's senses and attention could have detected the presence of a potential threat. This could include seeing an obstacle on the road, hearing a loud noise, or feeling a sudden change in the vehicle's movement. It is important for drivers to be alert and attentive in order to identify and respond to potential hazards as early as possible.

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  • 20. 

    When a driver realizes a hazard through any of the five senses, it is known as....

    • A.

      Reaction time

    • B.

      Maximum engagement

    • C.

      Observational reflexes

    • D.

      Point of perception

    Correct Answer
    D. Point of perception
    Explanation
    The point of perception refers to the moment when a driver becomes aware of a hazard through any of their five senses. It is the initial stage of hazard perception, where the driver recognizes and acknowledges the potential danger. This awareness is crucial as it allows the driver to initiate a response and take appropriate action to avoid or mitigate the hazard.

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  • 21. 

    A driver sees a tire in the road. The driver applies the brakes and makes a steering input to avoid the tire. The application of the brakes and the steering input are known as....

    • A.

      Start of evasive action

    • B.

      Reaction time

    • C.

      Incipient reaction

    • D.

      Sense-to-vehicle input

    Correct Answer
    A. Start of evasive action
    Explanation
    When a driver sees a tire in the road and applies the brakes and makes a steering input to avoid it, this is referred to as the start of evasive action. Evasive action is the immediate response taken by a driver to avoid a potential collision or hazard on the road. In this scenario, the driver's application of the brakes and the steering input are the initial actions taken to steer the vehicle away from the tire and prevent a potential accident.

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  • 22. 

    ______ is the point in time when the crash is inevitable, no matter what evasive actions the drivers may attempt

    • A.

      Area of no reaction

    • B.

      Reactionless time

    • C.

      Point of no return

    • D.

      The "Final Destination" rule

    Correct Answer
    C. Point of no return
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Point of no return". This refers to the moment when a crash is unavoidable, regardless of any evasive actions taken by the drivers. It implies that the situation has reached a critical point where there is no possibility of avoiding the crash. This term is often used in the context of aviation, where it refers to the point where an aircraft is too close to the runway to safely abort the landing.

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  • 23. 

    ____ occurs when two objects begin to enter the same space at the same time

    • A.

      Impediment

    • B.

      Encroachment

    • C.

      Impeding

    • D.

      Crash

    Correct Answer
    B. Encroachment
    Explanation
    Encroachment occurs when two objects begin to enter the same space at the same time. It refers to the act of intruding or trespassing into someone else's territory or area. In the context of the question, encroachment is the most appropriate term as it describes the situation where two objects are entering the same space simultaneously, indicating a violation of personal boundaries or physical barriers.

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  • 24. 

    When two vehicles collide, there is a point where they are together to the greatest extent. After that, the two vehicles begin to split apart. This is known as.....

    • A.

      Maximum engagement

    • B.

      Disengagement

    • C.

      Minimum Engagement

    • D.

      Final Rest

    Correct Answer
    B. Disengagement
    Explanation
    When two vehicles collide, there is a point where they are together to the greatest extent, which is the moment of impact. After that, the forces exerted during the collision cause the vehicles to separate or split apart. This separation is known as disengagement, as the vehicles no longer remain in contact with each other.

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  • 25. 

    A prosecutor must be able to prove two things to obtain a conviction:1. A  crime was committed.2. The defendant committed the crime.This is known as __________

    • A.

      Habeas Corpus

    • B.

      Hearsay

    • C.

      Beyond a Reasonable Doubt

    • D.

      Corpus Delecti

    Correct Answer
    D. Corpus Delecti
    Explanation
    Corpus Delecti refers to the principle that a prosecutor must establish evidence of a crime before convicting someone. It requires proving that a crime has been committed (the body of the crime) and that the defendant is responsible for it. In other words, the prosecutor must demonstrate both the occurrence of the crime and the defendant's involvement in it. This principle ensures that convictions are based on solid evidence rather than mere suspicion or speculation.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 05, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Brc104
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