Viral Path Immun Response MCQ's

12 Questions | Total Attempts: 494

SettingsSettingsSettings
Immunity Quizzes & Trivia

Our immune system has a way of treating alien material within the body by noticing what is harmful to the day to day operations of the organs and what is not and creating defensive measure. Take up the viral path immune response MCQ's and get to refresh your memory on what you already know.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which structure serves as the target for neutralizing antibodies when dealing with an enveloped, (-) ssRNA virus?
    • A. 

      RNA

    • B. 

      Capsid

    • C. 

      Lipid bilayer

    • D. 

      Envelope glycoprotein

    • E. 

      RNA polymerase

  • 2. 
    An 8-year-old boy is diagnosed with swine flu. His chest x-ray is consistent with a viral pneumonia. Which of the following is responsible for his pneumonia?
    • A. 

      Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

    • B. 

      Lack of adherence factors

    • C. 

      Phagocytosis by alveolar macrophages

    • D. 

      Toxin that paralyzes cilia of respiratory epithelium

    • E. 

      Phagocytosis by neutrophils

  • 3. 
    As a means of virulence, some viruses encode virokines. A case in point is vIL-10 which is encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Which of the following immune functions would be most affected by this virokine?
    • A. 

      The TH1 response

    • B. 

      The TH2 response

    • C. 

      The lectin-binding pathway of complement activation

    • D. 

      The classical pathway of complement activation

    • E. 

      The alternate pathway of complement activation

  • 4. 
    Virulence factors play an important role in the pathogenesis of viral infections, and some of these factors alter host defence mechanisms. One such factor is the HCMV (human cytomegalovirus) U56 protein that inhibits TAP proteins (transporters associated with antigen processing). By inhibiting TAP, which host defence mechanism is affected by U56?
    • A. 

      B-cell-mediated antigen presentation to naive CD4 cells

    • B. 

      CD4+-mediated B-cell activation

    • C. 

      Dendritic cell-mediated antigen presentation to naive CD4+ cells

    • D. 

      Somatic cell-mediated antigen presentation to activated CD8+ ceils CD4+ -mediated CD8+ cell activation

  • 5. 
    What would be the phenotype of cells infected with HIV-1 during the primary stage of the infection?
    • A. 

      CD4 CXCR4

    • B. 

      CD8 CCR5

    • C. 

      CD4 CCR5

    • D. 

      CD8 / CXCR4

  • 6. 
    "Virulence of viruses can be calculated in a number of ways. For Rhinovirus, for example, the HID50 is sometimes given as between 0.1-6 ICID30. What does TCID50 stand for?
    • A. 

      The dose required to infect 50% of tissue culture cells

    • B. 

      The dose required to kill 50% of infected tissue culture cells

    • C. 

      Fifty percent of the dose required to infect all tissue culture cells

    • D. 

      Fifty percent of the dose required to kill infected tissue culture cells

  • 7. 
    During most viral infections, lack of which cell surface molecule would be the most likely to cause a major problem to the defense of the host?
    • A. 

      MHC class I

    • B. 

      CD23

    • C. 

      CD14

    • D. 

      CD20

  • 8. 
    A 32-year old man with AIDS develops symptoms of retinitts. Which enzyme is encoded by the pathogen most likely responsible for the retinitts?
    • A. 

      Integrase

    • B. 

      5N-methyl capping enzyme

    • C. 

      Neuraminidase

    • D. 

      RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

    • E. 

      Thymidine kinase

  • 9. 
    Host defense against viral infections relies on a strong THo,,1 response. The T-helper-1 response is characterized by the secretion of:
    • A. 

      1FN--y and 1L-12

    • B. 

      IL-4 and IFN-y

    • C. 

      IL-4 and 1L-12

    • D. 

      IL-10 and IFN--y

    • E. 

      1L-4 and TNF-ct

  • 10. 
    When LPS from extracellular Gram-negative bacteria is released into the patient, it interacts with a number of immune pattern recognition receptors which eventually results in activation of macrophages. What molecule initially binds to LPS and transfers this to macrophage-produced CD14?
    • A. 

      MBP

    • B. 

      LBP

    • C. 

      TLR-4

    • D. 

      CRP

  • 11. 
    You are now aware that there are a number of T cell types associated with specfic immune responses to particular pathogens. Which type of pathogen would you most associate with TH17 responses?
    • A. 

      Intracellular bacteria

    • B. 

      Extracellular bacteria

    • C. 

      Metazoan parasites

    • D. 

      Viruses

  • 12. 
    A 23-year-old male patient presents with urethritis, including balanitis; arthritis, and uni;ateral uveitis. He admits to unprotected sex with a number of partners but denies any indications of a sexually transmitted disease. However, upon questioning the patient does admit that he might have had a temporary, slight, milky discharge from his urethra, which he had dismissed as being of no significance. While you are waiting for laboratory test results which of the following might you consider likely?
    • A. 

      The patient had been infected by Neisseria gonnorrhoeae and would have low serum Rf levels

    • B. 

      The patlent had not been infected with any infectious agent but would have high serum Rf levels

    • C. 

      The patient had been infected with Neisseria gonnorrhoeae and would have high serum Rf

    • D. 

      The patient had been infected with Chlamydia trachomatis and would have low serum Rf levels

    • E. 

      The patient had been infected with Chlarnyclia trachornaris and would have high serum Rf levels

Back to Top Back to top