Block 7 Anat Pelv & Perineum Prt 2

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1. You examine a young boy in the emergency room who is bleeding from his penis after an accident.  This blood is derived primarily from a branch of which of the following arteries?

Explanation

The internal pudendal artery is the correct answer because it is responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia, including the penis. In cases of trauma or injury to the penis, bleeding can occur from this artery. The other arteries listed do not primarily supply blood to the penis, making them incorrect choices.

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Block 7 Anat Pelv & Perineum Prt 2 - Quiz

The perineum plays an important role in functions as such maturation, defecation, sexual intercourse and childbirth. The block 7 on anatomy of pelvis and perineum quiz below is... see morethe second in a series of tests aimed at increasing your understanding on the chapter give it a try and keep an eye out for chapter 3. see less

2. The ductus deferens:

Explanation

The ductus deferens is a tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra. It terminates by joining with the duct of the seminal glands to form the ejaculatory duct. This is an important step in the process of ejaculation, as the ejaculatory duct then carries sperm and seminal fluid into the urethra for ejaculation.

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3. The vaginal fornix:

Explanation

The vaginal fornix refers to the recess or space surrounding the vaginal part of the cervix. It is a deep recess in the vagina that forms a ring around the cervix. This structure helps to provide support and protection to the cervix and is important in sexual intercourse and childbirth. The other options mentioned in the question are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the vaginal fornix.

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4. A middle-aged male patient complains of a weak "stream" and nocturia. You believe the most likely cause to be:

Explanation

The most likely cause of the patient's weak "stream" and nocturia is benign prostatic hypertrophy. This condition commonly occurs in middle-aged and older males and is characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland. The enlarged prostate can obstruct the flow of urine through the urethra, leading to a weak stream and increased frequency of urination. Bladder infection, spinal cord lesion, ureteric calculi, and obstruction of the intramural urethra are less likely causes in this case.

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5. The trigone of the bladder:

Explanation

The trigone of the bladder refers to the internal area that is demarcated by the internal urethral and ureteric orifices. This area is triangular in shape and is important for the normal functioning of the bladder. It is a smooth region that helps in the efficient flow of urine and prevents the backflow of urine into the ureters. The trigone is clinically significant as it is the most common site for bladder cancer.

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6. Detrusor muscle contraction is stimulated by:

Explanation

The pelvic splanchnic nerves are responsible for stimulating detrusor muscle contraction. These nerves are part of the autonomic nervous system and play a crucial role in controlling the bladder function. When the pelvic splanchnic nerves are activated, they cause the detrusor muscle to contract, leading to the emptying of the bladder. This process is essential for normal urination and maintaining bladder control.

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7. In the following MRI of a woman with an anteverted and anteflexed uterus, the arrow indicates the:

Explanation

The arrow in the MRI image is indicating the external os, which is the opening of the cervix. This is the correct answer because the external os is located at the lower end of the uterus and is the pathway between the uterus and the vagina. It is important to note that the question mentions the woman has an anteverted and anteflexed uterus, which means the uterus is tilted forward and bent forward. This information helps to confirm that the arrow is indeed pointing to the external os, as it is in the correct position relative to the uterus.

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8. Which of the following is not typically a tributary of the internal iliac vein?

Explanation

The superior rectal vein is not typically a tributary of the internal iliac vein. The internal iliac vein receives blood from various veins in the pelvis, including the veins from the vesical pelvic plexus, internal pudendal vein, uterine vein, and superior gluteal vein. However, the superior rectal vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein, which then joins the splenic vein to form the portal vein. Therefore, it is not a direct tributary of the internal iliac vein.

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9. The female urethra:

Explanation

The female urethra opens into the vestibule of the vagina.

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10. Softening of the isthmus of the uterus (Hegar sign) is associated with:

Explanation

The softening of the isthmus of the uterus, known as Hegar sign, is a characteristic finding in pregnancy. This softening occurs due to hormonal changes and increased blood flow to the uterus during pregnancy. It is a common physical sign used by healthcare providers to confirm the presence of pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is pregnancy.

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11. Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the bladder?

Explanation

The statement "Withdrawal of urine from the bladder requires the needle to enter the peritoneal cavity" is incorrect. The peritoneal cavity is not involved in the process of withdrawing urine from the bladder. Urine is typically withdrawn from the bladder using a catheter, which is inserted into the bladder through the urethra, not the peritoneal cavity.

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12. Prostate cancer:

Explanation

Prostate cancer is best identified rectally when the patient has a full bladder. This is because when the bladder is full, it pushes the prostate against the rectal wall, making it easier to feel any abnormalities or softening of the prostate during a digital rectal exam. This technique is commonly used by healthcare professionals to screen for prostate cancer and assess the condition of the prostate gland.

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13. Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the ovarian artery?

Explanation

The correct answer is "It has reduced blood flow following ligature of the internal iliac artery." This statement is incorrect because the ovarian artery receives its blood supply from the aorta, not the internal iliac artery. Ligature of the internal iliac artery would not directly affect the blood flow to the ovarian artery.

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14. The ureters:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the ureters have afferent fibers that typically refer pain to the lower abdomen, especially the inguinal region. This means that when there is inflammation or obstruction in the ureters, the pain is often felt in the lower abdomen and inguinal region. This is because the nerves that transmit pain signals from the ureters to the brain follow a pathway that refers the pain to these specific areas.

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15. Pelvic lymph drainage:

Explanation

The correct answer is that pelvic lymph drainage is characterized by terminal efferent vessels that pass the lymph to lumbar (caval/aortic) nodes. This means that the lymph from the pelvic area is carried by specific vessels to the lumbar nodes located near the aorta or inferior vena cava. This pattern of drainage is well-defined and helps predict the spread of metastatic cancer from one organ to another. It does not rigidly follow venous drainage patterns and also includes vessels that drain the testis.

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16. Which of the following structures is least important for supporting the uterus and/or  maintaining its position?

Explanation

The round ligament of the uterus is the least important structure for supporting the uterus and maintaining its position. While the other structures listed, such as the broad ligament, transverse cervical (cardinal) ligaments, uterosacral ligament, and pelvic diaphragm, play important roles in providing support and maintaining the position of the uterus, the round ligament has a lesser role in comparison. The round ligament primarily helps to anchor the uterus to the anterior abdominal wall, but its function in supporting the uterus is not as significant as the other structures mentioned.

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17. Which of the following associations is incorrect?

Explanation

The incorrect association is between urethrovaginal fistula and continuous dribbling of urine from the vagina. Urethrovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the urethra and the vagina, which can result in urinary incontinence, but not specifically continuous dribbling of urine from the vagina. Continuous dribbling of urine from the vagina is more commonly associated with a vesicovaginal fistula, which is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina.

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You examine a young boy in the emergency room who is bleeding from his...
The ductus deferens:
The vaginal fornix:
A middle-aged male patient complains of a weak "stream" and...
The trigone of the bladder:
Detrusor muscle contraction is stimulated by:
In the following MRI of a woman with an anteverted and anteflexed...
Which of the following is not typically a tributary of the internal...
The female urethra:
Softening of the isthmus of the uterus (Hegar sign) is associated...
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the bladder?
Prostate cancer:
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the ovarian artery?
The ureters:
Pelvic lymph drainage:
Which of the following structures is least important for supporting...
Which of the following associations is incorrect?
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