A Training Quiz For Correctly Diagnosing Various Diseases

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A Training Quiz For Correctly Diagnosing Various Diseases - Quiz

As an aspiring medical practitioner, you have no doubt undergone extensive training on how to decipher the symptoms that a patient is experiencing and what they may be likely suffering from. On that note below is a training quiz for correctly diagnosing various diseases. Why don’t you give it a try and see how prepared you are for your profession?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Dr. Kelley A 32-year-old woman presents to her obstetrician’s office for a routine follow-up visit. She is 18 weeks pregnant and has been doing well. She states that she experienced nausea and vomiting until the 14th week, but since then has had no complaints. Physical examination is normal. Lab studies are normal except for a urine dipstick positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrite. Which of the following statements most accurately pertains to asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women?

    • A.

      Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria have the same risk of a urinary tract infection on long-term follow-up as women without bacteriuria

    • B.

      If untreated, pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for developing pyelonephritis later in pregnancy.

    • C.

      Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are not at increased risk for perinatal mortality or morbidity.

    • D.

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be monitored closely but treated only after symptoms develop

    Correct Answer
    B. If untreated, pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for developing pyelonephritis later in pregnancy.
    Explanation
    Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at increased risk for developing pyelonephritis later in pregnancy if left untreated. Asymptomatic bacteriuria refers to the presence of bacteria in the urine without any symptoms of a urinary tract infection. While it may not cause immediate symptoms, it can progress to a more serious infection, such as pyelonephritis, which is an infection of the kidneys. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women to prevent complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 2. 

    Dr. Beevers A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of significant hematemesis and passing of melena for the past 2.5 hrs.  The patient’s wife reports that her husband has no significant past medical history and that he has been a daily alcohol drinker for the past 20 years.  Physical examination results include:   BP                               78/40 mmHg Pulse                            110 bpm Respirations                22/min Chest/Cardiac             Within normal limits Abdomen                    Ascites, palpable spleen, normal bowel sounds   Laboratory work is performed with the following results:   Hgb                             7 g/dL (normal 13.5-17.5) Hct                              27% (normal 41-53) AST                             160 U/L (normal 8-20) ALT                            250 U/L (normal 8-20) Alkaline phosphatase  40 U/L (normal 20-70) An ECG reveals sinus tachycardia.  The patient is transfused with three units of whole blood and two units of fresh frozen plasma.  Gastric lavage with saline was performed and gastric aspirate from the nasogastric tube was strongly positive for blood.  The patient is prepped for immediate endoscopy in order to determine the source of the bleeding, which included the administration of a drug to promote gastric emptying of blood.  In the meantime, the physician orders the parenteral administration of a drug that will help to treat the patient’s suspected condition.  What is the mechanism of action of the pharmacological agents that were most likely administered to this patient?

    • A.

      Inhibition of serotonin 5-HT3 receptors; inhibition of dopamine D2 receptors

    • B.

      Antagonism of peripheral -opioid receptors; inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase

    • C.

      Stimulation of motilin receptors; stimulation of somatostatin receptors

    • D.

      Stimulation of soluble and membrane-bound TNF-stimulation of PG-receptor

    • E.

      Regulation of target cell gene expression; inhibition of histamine H2-receptors

    Correct Answer
    C. Stimulation of motilin receptors; stimulation of somatostatin receptors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the stimulation of motilin receptors and stimulation of somatostatin receptors. Motilin is a hormone that promotes gastrointestinal motility, and somatostatin is a hormone that inhibits the release of other hormones, including gastrin. Stimulation of motilin receptors can help to increase gastric emptying and promote the movement of blood out of the stomach. Stimulation of somatostatin receptors can help to decrease gastric acid secretion and reduce the risk of further bleeding. These pharmacological agents were likely administered to help treat the patient's suspected condition of gastrointestinal bleeding.

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  • 3. 

    A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis and an opportunistic fungal infection.  The patient has a history of severe ulcerative colitis for which she has been taking more aggressive therapy for the past several months.  Her current therapy is working well and seems to have her on a course to enter into remission.  Which of the following drugs is the patient most likely taking to treat her IBD?

    • A.

      Mercaptopurine

    • B.

      Infliximab

    • C.

      Azathioprine

    • D.

      Mesalamine

    • E.

      Cholestyramine

    Correct Answer
    B. Infliximab
    Explanation
    The patient is most likely taking Infliximab to treat her inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Infliximab is a medication commonly used to manage severe ulcerative colitis. It works by targeting and blocking a specific protein in the body that causes inflammation. This drug has been shown to be effective in inducing and maintaining remission in patients with IBD.

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  • 4. 

    Dr. Odutola A 37-year-old mother of six children complained to her doctor of right upper quadrant pain related to fatty meals, nausea and occasional loss of appetite. On examination, she is not jaundiced, but tender in the epigastrium. Palpation reveals normal liver size. She has an ultrasound scan performed which is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Gestational sac

    • B.

      Renal cyst

    • C.

      Hepatoma

    • D.

      Multiple gall stones

    Correct Answer
    D. Multiple gall stones
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for this patient is multiple gall stones. The patient's symptoms of right upper quadrant pain related to fatty meals, nausea, and occasional loss of appetite are consistent with biliary colic, which is often caused by gall stones obstructing the bile duct. The tenderness in the epigastrium and normal liver size on examination further support this diagnosis. The ultrasound scan would likely show multiple gall stones in the gallbladder or bile ducts, confirming the diagnosis.

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  • 5. 

    A 66-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of weak urinary stream, waking up 2-3 times at night to micturate, dribbling at the end of urination and hesitancy. On examination the external genitalia is normal. The suprapubic region is dull to percussion. A firm, smooth mass is felt on digital rectal examination. The patient has a pelvic ultrasound scan and excretory urogram performed.  Below is the bladder view of the excretory urogram. What is responsible for the image shown?  

    • A.

      Carcinoma of the bladder

    • B.

      Benign prostatic hypertrophy

    • C.

      Carcinoma of the prostate

    • D.

      Chronic cystitis

    • E.

      Neurogenic bladder

    Correct Answer
    B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
    Explanation
    The image shown in the bladder view of the excretory urogram is most likely due to benign prostatic hypertrophy. This condition is characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can cause urinary symptoms such as weak urinary stream, nocturia, dribbling, and hesitancy. The firm, smooth mass felt on digital rectal examination is consistent with an enlarged prostate. Carcinoma of the bladder or prostate would typically present with different imaging findings or other clinical manifestations. Chronic cystitis and neurogenic bladder would not typically cause an enlarged prostate.

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  • 6. 

    Dr. Loy A 3-year-old baby presents with acute liver failure after drinking a bottle of liquid acetaminophen. What would a liver biopsy most likely show?

    • A.

      Acute hepatitis

    • B.

      Marked steatosis

    • C.

      Steatohepatits

    • D.

      Extensive necrosis

    • E.

      Marked cholestasis

    Correct Answer
    D. Extensive necrosis
    Explanation
    A liver biopsy in a 3-year-old baby who presents with acute liver failure after consuming liquid acetaminophen would most likely show extensive necrosis. Acetaminophen overdose can cause severe liver damage, leading to necrosis of liver cells. This occurs due to the toxic effects of acetaminophen metabolites on the liver. Necrosis refers to the death of liver cells, and extensive necrosis would indicate a severe and widespread damage to the liver tissue.

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  • 7. 

    A 20-year-old patient develops acute renal failure after being in an auto accident with extensive burn injury.  Creatinine is 2.1 mg/dl.  BUN is 60 mg/dl.  What is the most likely cause of the renal failure?

    • A.

      Decreased renal perfusion

    • B.

      Acute tubular necrosis

    • C.

      Post infectious GN

    • D.

      Urinary tract obstruction

    • E.

      Pyelonephritis

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased renal perfusion
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the renal failure in this patient is decreased renal perfusion. This is indicated by the elevated BUN (indicating impaired filtration and reabsorption) and the normal creatinine (indicating that the kidneys are still able to excrete some waste products). In the setting of an auto accident with extensive burn injury, it is common to have hypovolemia and hypotension, which can lead to decreased renal perfusion and subsequent renal failure.

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  • 8. 

    A 60-year-old man with a family history of adult polycystic kidney disease presents with hematuria.  Work up shows normal BUN and creatinine.  CT shows one massively enlarged solid and cystic kidney and one normal kidney.  Most likely diagnosis:

    • A.

      Adult polycystic kidney disease.

    • B.

      Infantile polycystic kidney disease

    • C.

      Oncocytoma

    • D.

      Renal cell carcinoma

    • E.

      Nephroblastoma

    Correct Answer
    D. Renal cell carcinoma
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is renal cell carcinoma. This is because the patient's family history of adult polycystic kidney disease, along with the presence of hematuria and a CT scan showing one massively enlarged solid and cystic kidney, suggests the possibility of a tumor. Renal cell carcinoma is a common type of kidney cancer that can cause the enlargement of the affected kidney. The normal BUN and creatinine levels indicate that the kidney function is still normal, which is consistent with renal cell carcinoma in its early stages.

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  • 9. 

    A patient presents with hematuria and acute renal failure.  A renal biopsy is performed and shows numerous crescents.  What is the best diagnosis so far?

    • A.

      Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

    • B.

      Nephritic syndrome

    • C.

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Amyloidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
    Explanation
    The presence of hematuria and acute renal failure, along with the finding of numerous crescents on renal biopsy, suggests rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This condition is characterized by a rapid decline in renal function and the formation of crescent-shaped lesions in the glomeruli. Nephritic syndrome and nephrotic syndrome may present with hematuria, but the presence of crescents on biopsy indicates a more severe and rapidly progressing disease. Diabetes and amyloidosis may cause renal complications, but they do not typically present with the combination of hematuria and acute renal failure.

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  • 10. 

    A 60-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome.  PAS stain of his renal biopsy is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Diabetes

    • B.

      Minimal change disease

    • C.

      Membranous GN

    • D.

      Amyloidosis

    • E.

      Post infectious GN

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old man presenting with nephrotic syndrome and a PAS stain of his renal biopsy showing changes consistent with diabetes. Diabetes is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome and can lead to diabetic nephropathy, which is characterized by glomerular basement membrane thickening and mesangial expansion. This is supported by the patient's age and the presence of nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease and membranous GN are less likely in this age group, while amyloidosis and post-infectious GN would typically present with different histological findings.

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  • 11. 

    A patient with blood and protein in his urine undergoes a renal biopsy.  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Post infectious GN

    • B.

      Membranous GN

    • C.

      IgA nephropathy

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Membranoproliferative GN

    Correct Answer
    E. Membranoproliferative GN
    Explanation
    Membranoproliferative GN is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with blood and protein in their urine who undergoes a renal biopsy. Membranoproliferative GN is a type of glomerulonephritis characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and proliferation of mesangial cells. This condition often presents with hematuria (blood in the urine) and proteinuria (protein in the urine). The renal biopsy would confirm the diagnosis by showing the characteristic findings of membranoproliferative GN.

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  • 12. 

    A 3-year-old underwent resection of a 7 cm renal mass.  Histology of the tumor is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Renal cell carcinoma

    • B.

      Angiomyolipoma

    • C.

      Oncocytoma

    • D.

      Urothelial carcinoma

    • E.

      Wilm’s tumor

    Correct Answer
    E. Wilm’s tumor
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is Wilm's tumor. Wilm's tumor, also known as nephroblastoma, is a malignant tumor that typically occurs in children. It is the most common kidney cancer in children and is often diagnosed before the age of 5. The fact that the patient is a 3-year-old who underwent resection of a renal mass is consistent with Wilm's tumor. The histology of the tumor would also support this diagnosis.

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  • 13. 

    A patient with lupus presents with the nephrotic syndrome.   What WHO class of lupus would a biopsy be most likely to show?

    • A.

      V

    • B.

      I

    • C.

      III

    • D.

      II

    • E.

      IV

    Correct Answer
    A. V
    Explanation
    Lupus nephritis is classified into six different classes based on the histological findings on kidney biopsy. Class V lupus nephritis, also known as membranous lupus nephritis, is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and deposition of immune complexes. This class is commonly associated with the nephrotic syndrome, which includes symptoms like proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. Therefore, if a patient with lupus presents with the nephrotic syndrome, a kidney biopsy would most likely show Class V lupus nephritis.

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  • 14. 

    A renal transplant patient develops azotemia 6 months after transplant.  A renal biopsy shows many lymphocytes in the interstitium and tubules (tubulitis).  What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Hyperacute rejection

    • B.

      Chronic rejection

    • C.

      Infection

    • D.

      Acute rejection

    • E.

      Drug reaction

    Correct Answer
    D. Acute rejection
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is acute rejection. Acute rejection is a common complication after renal transplantation, typically occurring within the first few months after the procedure. It is characterized by an immune response against the transplanted kidney, leading to infiltration of lymphocytes in the interstitium and tubules. This immune response can result in impaired kidney function, leading to azotemia. Hyperacute rejection occurs immediately after transplantation, chronic rejection develops over a longer period of time, and infection or drug reactions may present with different clinical features.

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  • 15. 

    An 8-year-old boy develops hematuria, azotemia, oliguria and hypertension 2 weeks after having strep throat.  Urinalysis shows red cell casts.  What finding would a renal biopsy most likely show?

    • A.

      Membranous GN

    • B.

      Acute proliferative GN

    • C.

      Acute tubular necrosis

    • D.

      Pyelonephritis

    • E.

      Malignant cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Acute proliferative GN
    Explanation
    The given clinical presentation of hematuria, azotemia, oliguria, and hypertension, along with the presence of red cell casts in the urine, is consistent with acute proliferative glomerulonephritis (GN). Acute proliferative GN is an immune-mediated inflammation of the glomeruli, often occurring after an infection such as strep throat. A renal biopsy in this case would most likely show the characteristic findings of acute proliferative GN, including glomerular hypercellularity, neutrophil infiltration, and immune complex deposition. This diagnosis is supported by the clinical presentation and urinalysis findings.

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  • 16. 

    A 64-year-old man undergoes biopsy of a renal mass (shown below). What is the most likely diagnosis:

    • A.

      Oncocytoma

    • B.

      Urothelial carcinoma

    • C.

      Angiomyolipoma

    • D.

      Metastatic colon cancer

    • E.

      Renal cell carcinoma

    Correct Answer
    E. Renal cell carcinoma
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for a renal mass in a 64-year-old man is renal cell carcinoma. Renal cell carcinoma is the most common type of kidney cancer and typically presents with a mass in the kidney. Other potential diagnoses such as oncocytoma, urothelial carcinoma, angiomyolipoma, and metastatic colon cancer are less likely based on the patient's age and clinical presentation.

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  • 17. 

    Dr. Kolli A 20-year-old college student seeks medical attention for passing small quantity of urine and light-headedness. He completed a rigorous tennis match the day before and did not drink any water or fluids and went to bed being very tired. On examination in the physician’s office, he appeared tired, and listless. His tongue is dry and his supine blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 105/min. Upright, the blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a heart rate of 125/min. Temperature and mental status are normal. Which of the following laboratory results is most likely to be seen in this patient?

    • A.

      Blood urea nitrogen/creatinine ratio

    • B.

      Urine osmolality > 500 mOsmol/kg

    • C.

      Urine specific gravity

    • D.

      Urine sodium >40 mEq/L

    • E.

      Urine red blood cell casts

    Correct Answer
    B. Urine osmolality > 500 mOsmol/kg
    Explanation
    The most likely laboratory result to be seen in this patient is urine osmolality > 500 mOsmol/kg. The patient's symptoms, including passing small quantity of urine and light-headedness, along with the physical examination findings of dry tongue and low blood pressure, suggest dehydration. The high urine osmolality indicates concentrated urine, which is a characteristic finding in dehydration.

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  • 18. 

    A patient has the following laboratory tests: Serum electrolytes (mEq/L): Na 138; K 3.2; Cl 100; Serum HCO3 13; pH 7.48; pCO2 21 mmHg Which of the following patients is most likely to have these laboratory results?

    • A.

      A 35-year-old man who has ingested a large amount of aspirin in a suicide attempt

    • B.

      A 5-year-old child who has accidentally swallowed an unknown quantity of antifreeze liquid (ethylene glycol) in the garage

    • C.

      A 28-year-old woman with bulimia and vomiting

    • D.

      A 50-year-old woman with surreptitious chronic laxative abuse

    • E.

      A 50-year-old female diabetic patient non-compliant with her insulin

    Correct Answer
    A. A 35-year-old man who has ingested a large amount of aspirin in a suicide attempt
    Explanation
    Monitoring of biochemical parameters such as electrolytes, liver and kidney function, urinalysis, and complete blood count is undertaken along with frequent checking of salicylate and blood sugar levels.
    ARTERIAL BLOOD GAS ASSESSMENTS WILL TYPICALLY FIND RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS EARLY IN THE COURSE OF THE OVERDOSE DUE TO HYPERSTIMULATION OF THE RESPIRATORY CENTER,
    and may be the only finding in a mild overdose. An anion-gap metabolic acidosis occurs later in the course of the overdose especially if it is a moderate to severe overdose, due to the increase in protons (acidic contents) in the blood

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  • 19. 

    A 40-year-old man presents to his doctor’s office with a complaint of polyuria. Physical examination of the patient did not reveal any significant abnormality. On laboratory exam he has a serum osmolality 320 mOsm/kg and urine osmolality 50 mOsm. Upon performing a water deprivation test, his serum osmolality is 316 mOsm and urine osmolality is 100 mOsm. Upon administration of vasopressin, serum osmolality decreases to 285 mOsm and urine osmolality increases to 350 mOsm. What is the most likely diagnosis?  

    • A.

      Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

    • B.

      Psychogenic polydipsia

    • C.

      Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (vasopressin)

    • D.

      Central diabetes insipidus

    Correct Answer
    D. Central diabetes insipidus
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis in this case is central diabetes insipidus. Central diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine due to a deficiency or lack of response to vasopressin (ADH). In this case, the patient's urine osmolality is low despite having a high serum osmolality, indicating an inability to concentrate urine. The water deprivation test further supports the diagnosis, as the patient's serum osmolality increases and urine osmolality remains low. Administration of vasopressin leads to an increase in urine osmolality, indicating a response to exogenous ADH.

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  • 20. 

    A 68-year-old woman with stable coronary artery disease undergoes a coronary angiography. The patient is on aspirin, lisinopril, metoprolol, and atorvastatin. She received a course of dicloxacillin for cellulitis 1 week ago. Three weeks after angiography the patient is evaluated for general malaise. Physical examination reveals a petechial rash and livedo reticularis on both lower extremities. Laboratory evaluation reveals that her creatinine has risen from 1.5 to 3.7 mg/dL. Other laboratory abnormalities include leukocytosis, eosinophilia, and a reduced third component of complement (C3). Urine sodium is 40 mEq/L. Urinalysis reveals 5 to 10 eosinophils/HPF, 10 to 20 WBC/HPF, no casts, and 1+ dipstick proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Prerenal azotemia

    • B.

      Radio contrast-induced acute renal failure

    • C.

      Acute tubular necrosis

    • D.

      Acute glomerulonephritis

    • E.

      Atheroembolic renal failure

    Correct Answer
    E. Atheroembolic renal failure
    Explanation
    Cholesterol embolism or atheroembolism, occurs when cholesterol is released, usually from an atherosclerotic plaque, and travels along with the bloodsteam (embolism) to other places in the body, where it obstructs blood vessels. Most commonly this causes skin symptoms (usually LIVEDO RETICULARIS), gangrene of the extremities and sometimes renal failure; problems with other organs may arise, depending on the site at which the cholesterol crystals enter the bloodstream. When the kidneys are involved, the disease is referred to as ATHEROEMBOLIC RENAL DISEASE (AERD). The diagnosis usually involves biopsy
    Kidney involvement leads to the symptoms of renal failure, which are non-specific but usually cause nausea, reduced appetite (anorexia), raised blood pressure (hypertension), and occasionally the various symptoms of electrolyte disturbance such as an irregular heartbeat. Some patients report hematuria (bloody urine) but this may only be detectable on microscopic examination of the urine. Increased amounts of protein in the urine may cause edema (swelling) of the skin (a combination of symptoms known as nephrotic syndrome).
    Tests for inflammation (C-reactive protein and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate) are typically elevated, and abnormal liver enzymes may be seen. If the kidneys are involved, tests of renal function (such as urea and creatinine) are elevated. The complete blood count may show particularly high numbers of a type of white blood cell known as EOSINOPHILS (more than 0.5 billion per liter); this occurs in only 60-80% of cases, so normal eosinophil counts do not rule out the diagnosis. Examination of the urine may show red blood cells (occasionally in casts as seen under the microscope) and increased levels of protein; in a third of the cases with kidney involvement, *** EOSINOPHILS *** can also be detected in the urine. If vasculitis is suspected, complement levels may be determined as reduced levels are often encountered in vasculitis; complement is a group of proteins that forms part of the innate immune system. Complement levels are frequently reduced in cholesterol embolism, limiting the use of this test in the distinction between vasculitis and cholesterol embolism.

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  • 21. 

    A 34-year-old woman recently diagnosed with a HCV infection is started on a two-drug therapeutic regimen which includes an agent that functions by directly inducing the JAK/STAT signal transduction pathway in its target cells. Which of the following drugs possesses this mechanism of action?

    • A.

      Ribavirin

    • B.

      Adefovir

    • C.

      Interferon alfacon-1

    • D.

      Entecavir

    • E.

      Lamivudine

    • F.

      Telbivudine

    Correct Answer
    C. Interferon alfacon-1
    Explanation
    Interferon alfacon-1 is a recombinant form of the human cytokine interferon alpha whose binding to plasma membrane bound receptors activates the JAK/STAT pathway.

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  • 22. 

    A 45-year-old woman recently infected with HBV is found to have developed rapid resistance to her antiviral medication after only a few months of therapy. Which of the following drugs did the patient’s HBV strain most likely develop this rapid resistance to?  

    • A.

      Adefovir

    • B.

      Entecavir

    • C.

      Ribavirin

    • D.

      Interferon alfa-2B

    • E.

      Telbivudine

    • F.

      Lamivudine

    Correct Answer
    E. Telbivudine
    Explanation
    Of all the anti-HBV drugs currently on the market, telbivudine displays the highest incidence of viral resistance to its action.

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  • 23. 

    A 46-year-old man diagnosed six months ago with a chronic HBV infection reports to his physician for a routine checkup. A HBV blood panel is performed with the following results: HBV surface antigen (HBsAg): Negative HBV type e antigen (HBeAg): Negative HBV core antigen antibody: Positive HBsAg Antibody: Positive HBV DNA: Undetectable Liver function tests reveal the following results: ALT: 19 U/L AST: 19 U/L At the time of the patient’s diagnosis, he was prescribed an oral anti-HBV drug that has almost a 100% oral bioavailability when taken on an empty stomach. Which of the following drugs is the patient currently taking?

    • A.

      Entecavir

    • B.

      Adefovir

    • C.

      Ribavirin

    • D.

      Peginterferon alfa-2A

    • E.

      Lamivudine

    Correct Answer
    A. Entecavir
    Explanation
    Entecavir is the only listed drug that possesses such a pharmacokinetic profile.

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  • 24. 

    A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a HCV infection. The patient’s history reveals that she is a heavy drinker and has been so for the past 5 years. The patient is started on a two-drug regimen that consists of

    • A.

      Interferon alfa-2A, adefovir

    • B.

      Ribavirin, lamivudine

    • C.

      Entecavir, tenofovir

    • D.

      Peginterferon alfa-AB, entecavir

    • E.

      Interferon alfa-2B, ribavirin

    • F.

      Lamivudine, telbivudine

    Correct Answer
    E. Interferon alfa-2B, ribavirin
    Explanation
    In patients suffering with HCV infection who are in particular danger of developing cirrhosis, the infection should be treated with a combination of ribavirin and interferon alfa.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly
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