Biomedical Science Multiple Choice Questions

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1. Contributing factors of mental disorders includes: 

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because mental disorders can be influenced by a combination of factors, including heredity, trauma, and stress. Heredity plays a role in the development of mental disorders as certain genes can increase the risk. Trauma, such as abuse or a significant life event, can also contribute to the development of mental disorders. Additionally, high levels of stress can negatively impact mental health and increase the likelihood of experiencing a mental disorder. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to the development of mental disorders.

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Biomedical Science Multiple Choice Questions - Quiz


Have you studied biomedical science? Do you have a good understanding of it? Here is a biomedical science quiz consisting of multiple-choice questions on this topic. Try this... see morequiz, and you'll get the chance to refresh your concepts today. For starters, let us remind you that Biomedical science is a field of study focusing on how certain areas of biology and chemistry can apply to health care. Play this quiz now and test your knowledge. see less

2. Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application, to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. The subsequent injections are termed as __________. 

Explanation

Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. These subsequent injections are called booster shots. Booster shots help to enhance and prolong the immune response that was initiated by the initial immunization. They are necessary to ensure long-term immunity and protection against the specific disease or infection.

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3. Etiologies of dementia include 

Explanation

Dementia can be caused by various factors, including brain tumors, ischemia (restriction of blood flow to the brain), and trauma. All of these conditions can lead to damage or dysfunction in the brain, resulting in cognitive decline and the symptoms associated with dementia. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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4. Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) include those 

Explanation

The correct answer is "aII of the above". Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) include those with sleep apnea, respiratory problems, and who are premature infants. These factors contribute to an increased likelihood of SIDS as they can disrupt normal breathing patterns during sleep and compromise the respiratory system's ability to function properly.

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5. In ______ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated crescents in the presence of low oxygen concentration.

Explanation

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become crescent-shaped when exposed to low oxygen levels. This abnormal shape makes it difficult for the cells to flow smoothly through blood vessels, leading to various complications such as pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that produces hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.

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6. Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is characteristic of

Explanation

Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is a characteristic symptom of migraines. Migraines are a type of headache disorder that often involve intense throbbing pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and visual disturbances (aura) such as seeing flashing lights or zigzag lines. While malnutrition, mastitis, and myasthenia gravis can cause various symptoms, they are not specifically associated with photophobia and visual aura preceding a severe headache.

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7. Pain is a symptom of which of the following conditions?

Explanation

Both first-degree burns (superficial) and second-degree burns (partial thickness) can cause pain. First-degree burns affect only the outer layer of the skin and can cause redness, swelling, and pain. Second-degree burns extend deeper into the skin and can cause blistering, along with more intense pain. Third-degree burns (full thickness) can actually damage nerve endings, leading to a loss of sensation in the affected area, so they do not typically cause pain.

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8. The opposing interaction of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effects of the other is termed a

Explanation

An antagonistic effect refers to the opposing interaction between two drugs, where one drug decreases or cancels out the effects of the other. In other words, when two drugs have an antagonistic effect, they work against each other, resulting in reduced or nullified effects. This can occur when one drug blocks the receptors or actions of the other drug, leading to a decrease in the intended therapeutic effect.

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9. Margaret needs to have her mitral valve replaced. Her surgeon will discuss which of the following issues with her before the surgery? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." Before the surgery, Margaret's surgeon will discuss the issues related to both mechanical and biological valves. A mechanical valve will require her to take a "blood thinner" for the rest of her life to prevent blood clots. A biological valve, usually made from porcine tissue, will last for 10 to 15 years before needing to be replaced. Additionally, the surgeon will inform Margaret that a mechanical valve increases the risk of blood clots that can cause a stroke.

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10. Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the 

Explanation

Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for the breakdown of food into smaller molecules through the action of enzymes, and the absorption of these molecules into the bloodstream. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases its capacity for nutrient absorption. In contrast, the ascending colon primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, the esophagus transports food from the mouth to the stomach, and the stomach mainly functions in the initial digestion of food through the release of enzymes and acid.

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11. Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the 

Explanation

Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints. It is characterized by joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. The disease commonly affects the synovial joints, which include the small joints of the hands and feet, as well as the knees. Inflammation in these joints can lead to joint damage and deformity over time. While other joints, such as the hips and shoulders, can also be affected by rheumatoid arthritis, the knees and small joints of the hands and feet are typically more commonly involved.

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12. A bee stung little Bobby. He experiences itching, erythema, and respiratory distress caused by laryngeal edema and vascular collapse. In the emergency room where he is given an epinephrine injection, Bobby is diagnosed with

Explanation

Based on the symptoms described, such as itching, erythema, respiratory distress, laryngeal edema, and vascular collapse, it can be inferred that Bobby is experiencing anaphylactic shock. Anaphylactic shock is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen, in this case, a bee sting. The administration of epinephrine is a common treatment for anaphylactic shock, as it helps to reverse the symptoms and stabilize the individual. Allergic rhinitis, allergic sinusitis, and asthma do not typically cause the same severe symptoms as seen in anaphylactic shock.

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13. Which is the most common etiology of dementia in Canada?

Explanation

Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia in Canada. It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It accounts for approximately 60-80% of all dementia cases. The disease is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, leading to the destruction of brain cells and the subsequent decline in cognitive function. Other causes of dementia, such as alcohol abuse and anxiety disorder, may contribute to cognitive impairment but are not as prevalent as Alzheimer's disease. Autism, on the other hand, is a developmental disorder that primarily affects social interaction and communication skills and is not a common cause of dementia.

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14. A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is brought to the ER by his roommates, complaining of a severe headache, nuchal rigictity, fever, and photophobia. The ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The young man is admitted to the ICU with a provisional diagnosis of 

Explanation

The patient's symptoms of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, fever, and photophobia are consistent with meningitis. The ER physician performs a lumbar puncture (LP) to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. The provisional diagnosis is meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis, as indicated by a positive CSF culture for this bacteria. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in young adults living in close quarters, such as college dormitories. Treatment with antibiotics and admission to the ICU is appropriate for this potentially life-threatening condition.

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15. Victor Newman was in a car accident and sustained severe chest trauma resulting in a tension pneumothorax. Manifestations of this disorder include all of the following EXCEPT 

Explanation

Tension pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space causing the lung to collapse and putting pressure on the heart and other structures in the chest. Common manifestations of tension pneumothorax include severe chest pain, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and shock (low blood pressure). However, clubbing, which is the swelling of the fingertips and nails, is not associated with tension pneumothorax. Clubbing is typically seen in conditions such as chronic lung disease or heart disease.

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16. An HIV-positive patient has raised red or purple lesions that appear on his skin, in his mouth, and almost anywhere on his body. What is the stage of his disease process in today's medical terminology? 

Explanation

The presence of raised red or purple lesions on the skin, in the mouth, and throughout the body is a characteristic symptom of AIDS. AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is the final stage of HIV infection. It occurs when the immune system is severely damaged, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancer. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, the patient is in the AIDS stage of the disease process.

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17. Graves' disease be treated by: 

Explanation

All of the above options can be used to treat Graves' disease. Antithyroid drugs are commonly prescribed to reduce the production of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine therapy involves the administration of radioactive iodine, which destroys the overactive thyroid cells. Surgery, known as thyroidectomy, may be recommended in severe cases where medication and radioactive iodine therapy are not effective or suitable. Therefore, all of these treatment options can be used individually or in combination, depending on the patient's condition and the severity of the disease.

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18. The positive belief in a drug and its ability to cure a patient's illness, even if this drug is an inactive or inert substance, typically positively influences a patient's perception of their outcome. What is this effect called? 

Explanation

The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no active therapeutic effect. This effect is believed to be driven by the patient's positive belief and expectation in the treatment, which can influence their perception of their outcome. In other words, the placebo effect demonstrates the power of the mind in influencing health outcomes.

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19. Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at _______. 

Explanation

Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at the alveoli. Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the walls of the alveoli into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, moves from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. The large surface area and thin walls of the alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange, allowing oxygen to be taken up by the body and carbon dioxide to be eliminated.

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20. Impetigo can be 

Explanation

Impetigo
Bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by vesicles, pustules, and crusted-over lesions

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21. One of the most common causes of peptic ulcer disease is the consumption of aspirin and NSAlDs. Another common cause is infection by Helicobacter pylori, and the usual treatment for this condition is use of    

Explanation

The correct answer is antibiotics. Peptic ulcer disease can be caused by the infection of Helicobacter pylori bacteria. Antibiotics are commonly used to treat this condition by eliminating the bacteria and allowing the ulcer to heal. Antivirals, antifungals, and antiemetics are not effective against bacterial infections and would not be suitable for treating peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori.

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22. Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease?

Explanation

Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease, which means that the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells and tissues. This condition primarily affects females, although it can also occur in males. While there is no cure for Graves' disease, there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms and control the overactive thyroid. Contrary to the statement, Graves' disease usually affects younger individuals, typically between the ages of 20 and 40.

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23. Why must influenza immunizations be developed and administered on an annual basis?

Explanation

Influenza immunizations must be developed and administered on an annual basis because the virus mutates significantly each year. This means that the strains of the virus circulating in one flu season may be different from the strains in the next season. Therefore, the previous year's vaccine may not provide adequate protection against the new strains. By developing and administering new vaccines each year, scientists can target the specific strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent in that particular flu season, increasing the effectiveness of the immunization.

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24. A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is 

Explanation

The correct answer is a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. This is indicated by the symptoms of fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. The complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies on the blood agar culture plate confirms the presence of group A streptococcus. Erythromycin is an appropriate antibiotic choice for treating this type of infection.

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25. The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive method for diagnosing 

Explanation

The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive diagnostic method used to identify carpal tunnel syndrome. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition characterized by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. The Phalen's test involves flexing the wrist for a prolonged period, which increases pressure on the median nerve. If the test reproduces the patient's symptoms, it suggests the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. This test is commonly used by healthcare professionals to aid in the diagnosis of this condition.

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26. A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic symptom of _________. 

Explanation

A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand refers to a specific type of tremor where the fingers move in a rolling motion, as if rolling a pill between the thumb and fingers. This type of tremor is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and is characterized by symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with balance and coordination. The "pill-rolling" tremor is one of the hallmark signs of Parkinson's disease and is often one of the first symptoms to appear.

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27. What common vitamin should be taken by pregnant women to substantially reduce the occurrence of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, in a developing fetus? 

Explanation

Folic acid is the common vitamin that should be taken by pregnant women to substantially reduce the occurrence of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, in a developing fetus. Folic acid plays a crucial role in the development of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the baby's brain and spinal cord. Adequate intake of folic acid before and during early pregnancy can help prevent neural tube defects. Calcium, B12, and E are not specifically associated with reducing the occurrence of neural tube defects.

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28. Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to 

Explanation

Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to the loss of bone mass. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened and brittle bones, which makes them more susceptible to fractures. As bone mass decreases, the bones become less dense and more fragile, increasing the risk of fractures even with minor trauma or falls. This is why individuals with osteoporosis are more prone to fractures, as their bones lack the necessary strength and density to withstand normal stress and impact.

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29. Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to person. Which of the diseases listed next is a bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector? 

Explanation

Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. These ticks are commonly found in grassy and wooded areas. The bacteria can enter the bloodstream and cause a range of symptoms, including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and swollen lymph nodes. If left untreated, it can spread to the joints, heart, and nervous system. Therefore, Lyme disease is the bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector.

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30. Sam Spade has been severely injured in an MVA because he was not wearing a seat belt. The organ in his body, situated at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, that is part of his lymphatic system has been ruptured, and he is bleeding internally. Sam needs a surgical procedure known as 

Explanation

Sam Spade has suffered a severe injury in a motor vehicle accident because he was not wearing a seat belt. As a result, one of the organs in his body, located at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, has been ruptured and he is experiencing internal bleeding. The surgical procedure that Sam requires is called a splenectomy. A splenectomy involves the removal of the spleen, which is a part of the lymphatic system. This procedure is necessary to address the internal bleeding and prevent further complications.

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31. Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of ______ type of diabetes. 

Explanation

Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition where the body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't produce enough insulin to regulate blood sugar levels. It is more common in adults, especially those who are overweight or obese, and can be influenced by genetic factors. In contrast, type 1 diabetes, also known as juvenile diabetes or IDDM, is an autoimmune disease that typically develops in childhood or adolescence and is not associated with obesity or family history.

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32. All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease EXCEPT 

Explanation

Direct transmission of a disease refers to the transfer of the infectious agent from one person to another through direct contact or close proximity. Contaminated foods, on the other hand, are typically associated with indirect transmission, where the disease-causing agent is transferred through contaminated objects or substances, such as contaminated water or food. Therefore, contaminated foods do not fall under the category of direct transmission of a disease.

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33. The interaction of two drugs working together to where each simultaneously helps the other achieve an effect that neither could produce alone is termed a _________. 

Explanation

A synergistic effect refers to the interaction of two drugs that work together to enhance each other's effects, resulting in a more powerful outcome than either drug could produce alone. In this case, both drugs complement each other and contribute to achieving a desired effect. This term is used to describe the positive interaction between drugs, unlike an antagonistic effect where drugs work against each other. The placebo effect, on the other hand, refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in symptoms due to their belief in the treatment, even if it is an inactive substance.

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34. Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent 

Explanation

Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent miscarriage. It involves stitching the cervix closed to provide support and prevent it from opening prematurely during pregnancy. This procedure is typically performed in women who have a history of cervical incompetence or previous miscarriages. By reinforcing the cervix, cervical cerclage can reduce the risk of miscarriage and increase the chances of a successful pregnancy.

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35. Genital warts are caused by 

Explanation

Genital warts are caused by HPV (Human Papillomavirus). HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can be spread through vaginal, anal, or oral sex. It is one of the most common sexually transmitted infections worldwide. HPV can cause warts to develop on or around the genitals, and it can also lead to certain types of cancers, including cervical, anal, and throat cancer. Vaccines are available to protect against HPV and reduce the risk of developing genital warts and related cancers.

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36. The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of ______ cells. 

Explanation

Memory cells are formed after vaccination and play a crucial role in preventing illness. These cells "remember" the specific pathogen encountered during vaccination and mount a rapid and effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen. This memory response helps to eliminate the pathogen before it can cause illness, providing long-term immunity.

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37. Which of the following conditions is NOT a predisposing risk associated with essential hypertension? 

Explanation

Low dietary sodium intake is not a predisposing risk associated with essential hypertension. Essential hypertension is primarily influenced by factors such as age, cigarette smoking, and obesity. While a high dietary sodium intake can contribute to hypertension, a low intake of sodium does not increase the risk. In fact, a low sodium diet is often recommended as a way to manage and prevent hypertension.

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38. The presence of fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is NOT characteristic of ________. 

Explanation

Fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is not characteristic of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, causing inflammation and ulcers. It does not directly affect the lungs or cause fluid accumulation in the alveoli. On the other hand, fluid in the alveoli can be seen in conditions such as COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), pneumonia, and tuberculosis, which are respiratory diseases.

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39. The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is a 

Explanation

Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium, not by bacteria, prions, or viruses. This parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the parasite multiplies in the liver and then infects red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria.

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40. Prevention programs identify risk factors and use strategies to modify attitudes and behaviors to reduce the chance of developing cancers. Which of the following '"otild NOT be an identified risk factor for colorectaI cancer? 

Explanation

A high-fiber diet would not be identified as a risk factor for colorectal cancer. In fact, a high-fiber diet is often recommended as a preventive measure for colorectal cancer. Fiber helps to promote regular bowel movements and reduce the risk of constipation, which in turn reduces the exposure of the colon to potential carcinogens. Additionally, a high-fiber diet can help to maintain a healthy weight and prevent obesity, which is a known risk factor for colorectal cancer. Therefore, a high-fiber diet is actually beneficial in reducing the chance of developing colorectal cancer.

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41. When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, the ulcer has extended to the 

Explanation

When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, it means that the infection has spread to the bone. Osteomyelitis is a serious condition where the bone becomes infected, usually due to bacteria entering through an open wound or sore. In this stage, the ulcer has penetrated through the layers of tissue and reached the bone, causing a potentially life-threatening infection.

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42. Ln general, excessive RBC breakdown can result in: 

Explanation

Excessive breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) can lead to high bilirubin levels. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the breakdown of heme in RBCs. Normally, bilirubin is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. However, if there is an excessive breakdown of RBCs, the liver may not be able to process bilirubin efficiently, leading to its accumulation in the blood, resulting in high bilirubin levels. This can occur in conditions such as hemolytic anemia or liver disease.

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43. Softening of the bone in children is termed __________________ . 

Explanation

Rickets is the correct answer because it refers to the softening and weakening of the bones in children, usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate. This condition can lead to skeletal deformities and impaired growth. Raynaud's disease is a condition that affects blood flow to the extremities, Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious illness that can cause brain and liver damage, and rubella is a viral infection that can cause rash and other symptoms.

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44. An African American couple is undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises and is termed as ______. 

Explanation

The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic blood disorder characterized by the presence of abnormal hemoglobin, which causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped. This can lead to various complications including pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections.

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45. In systemic circulation, which of the following vessel carries oxygenated blood? 

Explanation

The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood in the systemic circulation. After oxygen is exchanged in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins and is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation. The right vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium, the renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys, and the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood out of the heart to the rest of the body.

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46. Pick the sequence that correctly depicts the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs in order for gas exchange to occur. 

Explanation

The correct sequence for the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs for gas exchange to occur is as follows: right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs. Blood enters the heart through the right atrium, then flows into the right ventricle. From the right ventricle, the blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs for oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide.

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47. Which of these cells is responsible for producing antibodies?

Explanation

B cells are responsible for producing antibodies. B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. When an antigen enters the body, B cells recognize it and differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies, which are proteins that bind to specific antigens and help to neutralize or eliminate them. Therefore, B cells are directly involved in the production of antibodies, making them the correct answer to the question.

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48. Which of the following is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones? 

Explanation

Being overweight is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones. This is because excess body weight can lead to increased cholesterol levels in the bile, which can contribute to the formation of gallstones. Additionally, being overweight is often associated with other risk factors such as a sedentary lifestyle and poor dietary habits, which further increase the risk of developing gallstones.

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49. Name the cells that produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.  

Explanation

Mast cells are the cells that produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. Histamine is a chemical mediator that is released by mast cells in response to an allergen. It plays a key role in the inflammatory response by causing vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction. This release of histamine leads to the symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, redness, and swelling.

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50. Pick a statement that BEST describes tuberculosis. 

Explanation

The given statement that BEST describes tuberculosis is "a chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungs." This statement accurately captures the nature of tuberculosis, which is a long-term, widespread disease that initially infects the lungs. Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria and can spread to other parts of the body if left untreated.

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51. A 28-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with morning nausea and vomiting, weight gain, and two missed menstrual cycles. The physician orders a pregnancy test. What chemical in the urine does this lab test detect? 

Explanation

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It is detectable in the urine and blood of pregnant women. The presence of hCG in the urine is used as a marker to confirm pregnancy in lab tests. In this case, the patient is experiencing symptoms that are commonly associated with pregnancy, such as morning nausea and vomiting, weight gain, and missed menstrual cycles. Therefore, the physician orders a pregnancy test to detect the presence of hCG in the patient's urine.

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52. Increasing peristalsis of the intestines, increasing salivation, and a slowing heart rate are examplesof

Explanation

Increasing peristalsis of the intestines, increasing salivation, and slowing heart rate are all examples of bodily functions that are controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for promoting rest and relaxation in the body. It helps to conserve energy, stimulate digestion, and slow down the heart rate. These responses are involuntary and automatic, controlled by the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.

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53. Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in anemia?

Explanation

Loss of spleen function is not a pathophysiological factor in anemia. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Excessive RBC breakdown, lack of RBC maturation, and loss of bone marrow function can all contribute to the development of anemia. However, loss of spleen function does not directly affect the production or breakdown of red blood cells, and therefore is not a factor in anemia.

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54. A disease of the inner ear with fluid disruption in the semicircular canal that causes vertigo is 

Explanation

Both labyrinthitis and Meniere's disease are conditions that affect the inner ear and can cause vertigo. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the inner ear, specifically the labyrinth, which includes the semicircular canals. This inflammation can disrupt the fluid in the semicircular canal and lead to vertigo. Meniere's disease, on the other hand, is a chronic condition characterized by fluid buildup in the inner ear, which also affects the semicircular canals and can cause vertigo. Therefore, both A (labyrinthitis) and C (Meniere's disease) can cause fluid disruption in the semicircular canal and result in vertigo.

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55. Which of the following pieces of equipment records the electrical activity of the brain? 

Explanation

The correct answer is EEG. EEG stands for electroencephalogram, which is a test that records the electrical activity of the brain. It is commonly used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as epilepsy, sleep disorders, and brain injuries. EEG is a non-invasive procedure that involves placing electrodes on the scalp to detect and measure the electrical signals produced by the brain. This information is then recorded and analyzed by healthcare professionals to evaluate brain function and detect any abnormalities. EMG (electromyogram) records the electrical activity of muscles, ECG (electrocardiogram) records the electrical activity of the heart, and EKG (also electrocardiogram) is a variant spelling of ECG.

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56. Which of these organs have endocrine and exocrine functions?

Explanation

Pancreas Exocrine gland – produces amylase to digest starch, lipase to digest fat, protease to digest proteins Endocrine gland secretes insulin (sugar needed for energy)

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57. _______________is usually the first symptom of benign prostate hyperplasia. 

Explanation

Difficulty in urinating is usually the first symptom of benign prostate hyperplasia. This condition occurs when the prostate gland enlarges and puts pressure on the urethra, making it difficult to pass urine. As the prostate continues to grow, it can cause further urinary symptoms such as weak urine flow, frequent urination, and the need to strain to start or stop urination. Therefore, difficulty in urinating is commonly experienced by individuals with benign prostate hyperplasia.

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58. The leading cause of blindness caused by diabetes. It is called

Explanation

Retinopathy is the correct answer because it is commonly associated with diabetes and is a leading cause of blindness in individuals with diabetes. Retinopathy refers to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. This condition is a result of high blood sugar levels damaging the small blood vessels in the retina over time. Regular eye exams and proper management of diabetes can help prevent or delay the progression of retinopathy.

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59. A chronic inflammatory bowel disease where affected segments of the bowel may be separated by normal bowel tissue is characteristic of 

Explanation

Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that is characterized by the presence of affected segments of the bowel that can be separated by normal bowel tissue. This condition causes inflammation and irritation in the digestive tract, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue. It can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus, and can cause complications such as strictures, ulcers, and fistulas. Crohn's disease is a lifelong condition with no known cure, but it can be managed with medication and lifestyle changes.

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60. Early detection programs apply screening guidelines to detect cancers at an early stage, which provides the likelihood of increased survival and decreased morbidity. Which of the following would NOT be a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer? 

Explanation

An upper GI x-ray is not a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer because it focuses on the upper part of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Colorectal cancer affects the lower part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the colon and rectum. Therefore, an upper GI x-ray would not provide any information about the presence or stage of colorectal cancer.

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61. Name the most common type of skin cancer and the most deadly type of skin cancer.

Explanation

Basal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma are the most common and most deadly types of skin cancer, respectively. Basal cell carcinoma is a slow-growing cancer that usually appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin, such as the face and neck. It rarely spreads to other parts of the body and is typically curable with early detection and treatment. On the other hand, malignant melanoma is a more aggressive and dangerous form of skin cancer that can spread to other organs and tissues. It often develops from abnormal moles or pigmented areas of the skin and requires prompt medical attention for the best chance of survival.

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62. The most common blood borne infection in Canada is _________. 

Explanation

Hepatitis C is the most common blood borne infection in Canada. It is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles, receiving blood transfusions, or having unprotected sex with an infected person. Hepatitis C can lead to chronic liver disease, liver cirrhosis, and even liver cancer if left untreated. It is important to raise awareness about this infection and promote preventive measures to reduce its spread.

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63. Scabies, a highly contagious condition that produces intense pruritus and a rash, is caused by 

Explanation

Scabies is a highly contagious condition characterized by intense itching and a rash. It is caused by itch mites, which burrow into the skin and lay eggs, leading to the development of the characteristic symptoms. Pediculosis capitis refers to head lice infestation, candidiasis is a fungal infection, and ringworm is a fungal infection caused by different types of fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is itch mites.

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64. Sex-linked genetic diseases

Explanation

Sex-linked genetic diseases are caused by a defect on a chromosome, specifically on the sex chromosomes (X or Y). These diseases are typically inherited from one's parents and are more commonly observed in males because they only have one X chromosome. Females have two X chromosomes, which can serve as a backup if one is defective. This defect on the chromosome can result in various genetic disorders, such as hemophilia or color blindness.

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65. Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. Which of the following tests would be ordered to confirm the disease?

Explanation

The glucose tolerance test would be ordered to confirm the disease because it measures how well the body is able to process glucose over a certain period of time. This test involves drinking a sugary solution and then having blood samples taken at regular intervals to measure blood sugar levels. If the body is unable to properly process glucose, it may indicate the presence of diabetes, which would explain the clinical manifestations mentioned in the question.

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66. The first stage of alcoholic liver disease is

Explanation

The first stage of alcoholic liver disease is fatty liver. This condition occurs when excessive alcohol consumption leads to the accumulation of fat in the liver cells. Fatty liver is reversible if alcohol consumption is stopped, but if left untreated, it can progress to more severe stages such as alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis. Jaundice, on the other hand, is a symptom that can occur in any stage of liver disease, including alcoholic liver disease.

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67. A 75-year-old patient has a sore tongue with tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. She has headaches and is fatigued. Following diagnostic workup, the doctor orders monthly injections of vitamin B12. This patient most likely has which of the following conditions? 

Explanation

Pernicious Anemia - Lack of mature erythrocytes caused by inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the bloodstream.

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68. Which of these is the most common type of vaginitis?

Explanation

Both yeast and protozoan infections are common types of vaginitis. Yeast infections, also known as candidiasis, are caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida. Protozoan infections, such as trichomoniasis, are caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. These two types of infections are often seen in women and can cause symptoms like itching, discharge, and discomfort. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B.

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69. Which tube conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra. 

Explanation

The ejaculatory duct is the tube that conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra. The seminal vesicle produces a fluid that combines with sperm to form semen, and this mixture is then transported through the ejaculatory duct to the urethra for ejaculation. The epididymis is responsible for storing and maturing sperm, while the oviduct is part of the female reproductive system and the vas deferens transports sperm from the testes to the urethra.

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70. A toxic goiter has a __________ type of distinguishing characteristic. 

Explanation

A toxic goiter is a condition characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This excessive production of hormones is known as thyroid hyperfunction. Therefore, thyroid hyperfunction is a distinguishing characteristic of a toxic goiter.

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71. Which of the following diseases can not be cured using Penicillin? 

Explanation

Penicillin is an antibiotic that is effective against certain types of bacteria. Influenza, commonly known as the flu, is caused by a virus and not bacteria. Since penicillin only targets bacteria, it is not effective in treating viral infections such as influenza. Therefore, influenza cannot be cured using penicillin.

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72. Which of the following anatomical parts is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems? 

Explanation

The pharynx is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems. It serves as a common passage for both air and food. In the respiratory system, the pharynx helps in the passage of air from the nasal cavity to the trachea. In the digestive system, it plays a role in the swallowing process, allowing food to pass from the mouth to the esophagus. Therefore, the pharynx is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems.

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73. A common contraceptive that is implanted in the uterus induces slight endometrial inflammation, which attracts neutrophils to the uterus. These neutrophils are toxic to sperm and prevent the fertilization of the ovum. This contraception is termed

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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74. Which drug is commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings?

Explanation

Lithium carbonate is commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings. It is a mood stabilizer that helps to balance the chemicals in the brain and prevent extreme shifts in mood. Lanoxin and Lasix are not used for bipolar disorder, they are medications used for heart conditions and edema respectively. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, but it is not specifically indicated for bipolar disorder. Therefore, lithium carbonate is the correct answer for treating bipolar mood swings.

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75. The etiology of a plastic anemia is 

Explanation

Bone marrow failure is the correct answer because aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough new blood cells. This can be due to various factors such as radiation exposure, certain medications, autoimmune disorders, or inherited conditions. In bone marrow failure, the bone marrow is unable to produce an adequate number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to a decrease in their levels in the bloodstream. This can result in symptoms such as fatigue, increased susceptibility to infections, and bleeding tendencies.

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76. Identify the autoimmune diseases that affects tissues of the nervous system. 

Explanation

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that affects the tissues of the nervous system. It is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, as the immune system mistakenly attacks the receptors on muscle cells, preventing proper nerve signaling. This condition primarily affects the voluntary muscles, such as those used for movement and breathing. Unlike the other options listed, Goodpasture's syndrome affects the kidneys and lungs, Hashimoto's disease affects the thyroid gland, and rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects the joints.

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77. A 76-year-old white female patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of the following tests is commonly ordered to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels?

Explanation

Prothrombin time is commonly ordered to monitor Coumadin levels in patients. Coumadin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, including prothrombin. Prothrombin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effectiveness of Coumadin therapy. By regularly monitoring prothrombin time, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of Coumadin to ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range, balancing the risk of bleeding and the prevention of blood clots.

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78. Necrosis extending down to the underlying fascia is characteristic of a decubitus ulcer in stage 

Explanation

Necrosis extending down to the underlying fascia is characteristic of a decubitus ulcer in stage three. In this stage, the ulcer has progressed to involve the full thickness of the skin and underlying tissue, reaching the fascia. The necrosis indicates tissue death, which is a significant sign of advanced ulcer progression. Staging decubitus ulcers is important for proper treatment and management, as it helps determine the severity and appropriate interventions needed.

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79. Which of these conditions DO NOT fall under the category of COPD?

Explanation

Pneumonia does not fall under the category of COPD because COPD refers to a group of chronic lung diseases characterized by airflow obstruction, while pneumonia is an acute infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. COPD conditions, such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema, are typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants like cigarette smoke, whereas pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents. Therefore, pneumonia is not considered a chronic condition like COPD.

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80. Diastole occurs when 

Explanation

Diastole (relaxation) occurs when the ventricle walls relax and blood flows into the heart from the venae cavae and the pulmonary veins

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81. Common kidney stone treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system does NOT include ___________. 

Explanation

Ureteroscopy and stone basketing is not a treatment that allows small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system. Ureteroscopy involves inserting a thin tube into the ureter to remove or break up larger kidney stones, but it does not involve flushing out small particles. Stone basketing is a technique used during ureteroscopy to grab and remove stones, but it does not involve flushing out particles either. Therefore, ureteroscopy and stone basketing do not fit the description of treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system.

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82. A sweat test was done on a patient with the following symptoms: frequent respiratory infections, chronic cough, and foul-smelling bloody stools. Which of the following diseases is probably suspected? 

Explanation



Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder characterized by frequent respiratory infections, chronic cough, foul-smelling or greasy stools, and other symptoms. The sweat test is a common diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis, as individuals with the condition have higher than normal levels of salt in their sweat.
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83. Which of the following is a lethal arrhythmia? 

Explanation

Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal arrhythmia characterized by chaotic electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart. This condition causes the heart to quiver instead of pumping blood effectively, leading to a rapid loss of consciousness and ultimately death if not treated immediately. Atrial fibrillation and atrial tachycardia are also abnormal heart rhythms, but they are not typically considered immediately life-threatening. Bradycardia, on the other hand, is a slow heart rate but is not necessarily lethal.

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84. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of ____ nerve. 

Explanation

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the entrapment of the median nerve. The median nerve runs through the carpal tunnel in the wrist and is responsible for providing sensation to the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger. When the median nerve becomes compressed or trapped, it can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers.

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85. Before leaving the hospital, all newborns are screened for an autosomal recessive genetic disorder of defective enzymatic conversion in protein metabolism. With early detection and a protein restricted diet, brain damage is prevented. This disease is 

Explanation

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the enzymatic conversion of the amino acid phenylalanine. If left untreated, the accumulation of phenylalanine can lead to brain damage. However, with early detection through newborn screening and a protein-restricted diet, brain damage can be prevented. Therefore, PKU is the correct answer in this case.

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86. Which is the most fatal type of lung cancer?

Explanation

Non–small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) - Three main types: adenocarcinoma (derived from mucus-secreting cells), squamous cell carcinoma (derived from the lining cells of the upper airway), and large cell lung cancer Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) - Derives from small, round (“oat” cells) cells found in pulmonary epithelium; Grows rapidly early and quickly spreads outside the lung

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87. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the ________.  

Explanation

The correct answer is red blood cells. Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which has the ability to bind to carbon dioxide. This allows the red blood cells to transport the carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs, where it can be exhaled.

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88. Portal hypertension can contribute to all of the following EXCEPT 

Explanation

Portal hypertension is a condition characterized by increased blood pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver. This increased pressure can lead to several complications, including ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdomen), dilation of blood vessels in the intestinal tract, and esophageal varices (enlarged veins in the esophagus). However, kidney failure is not directly caused by portal hypertension. Kidney failure can occur due to various other factors such as diabetes, high blood pressure, or kidney disease, but it is not a direct consequence of portal hypertension.

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89. Mary has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable? 

Explanation

Increased blood supply would probably NOT be applicable as a factor that puts Mary more at risk for infections. While hypoxia and increased glucose in body fluids can both weaken the immune system and make it easier for infections to occur, increased blood supply actually helps deliver more oxygen and nutrients to tissues, which can enhance the immune response and aid in fighting off infections.

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90. Which of the following is a congenital condition that is the most severe neural tube defect? 

Explanation

Myelomeningocele is a congenital condition that is the most severe form of neural tube defect. It occurs when the spinal cord and the protective covering around it, called the meninges, protrude through an opening in the spine. This condition can lead to significant neurological impairments and physical disabilities, as the spinal cord is exposed and vulnerable to damage. Meningocele, on the other hand, is a less severe form of neural tube defect where only the meninges protrude through the opening. Severe combined immunodeficiency and spina bida occulta are unrelated conditions and not neural tube defects.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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Contributing factors of mental disorders includes: 
Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application, to...
Etiologies of dementia include 
Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)...
In ______ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated...
Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is...
Pain is a symptom of which of the following conditions?
The opposing interaction of two drugs in which one decreases or...
Margaret needs to have her mitral valve replaced. Her surgeon will...
Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in...
Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the 
A bee stung little Bobby. He experiences itching, erythema, and...
Which is the most common etiology of dementia in Canada?
A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is...
Victor Newman was in a car accident and sustained severe chest trauma...
An HIV-positive patient has raised red or purple lesions that appear...
Graves' disease be treated by: 
The positive belief in a drug and its ability to cure a patient's...
Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at _______. 
Impetigo can be 
One of the most common causes of peptic ulcer disease is the...
Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease?
Why must influenza immunizations be developed and administered on an...
A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient...
The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive method for...
A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic symptom of...
What common vitamin should be taken by pregnant women to substantially...
Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to 
Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to...
Sam Spade has been severely injured in an MVA because he was not...
Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all...
All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease...
The interaction of two drugs working together to where each...
Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent 
Genital warts are caused by 
The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the...
Which of the following conditions is NOT a predisposing risk...
The presence of fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is NOT...
The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is...
Prevention programs identify risk factors and use strategies to modify...
When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which...
Ln general, excessive RBC breakdown can result in: 
Softening of the bone in children is termed __________________ . 
An African American couple is undergoing genetic counseling to...
In systemic circulation, which of the following vessel carries...
Pick the sequence that correctly depicts the flow of blood through the...
Which of these cells is responsible for producing antibodies?
Which of the following is a risk factor involved in the etiology of...
Name the cells that produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity...
Pick a statement that BEST describes tuberculosis. 
A 28-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with morning...
Increasing peristalsis of the intestines, increasing salivation, and a...
Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in...
A disease of the inner ear with fluid disruption in the semicircular...
Which of the following pieces of equipment records the electrical...
Which of these organs have endocrine and exocrine functions?
_______________is usually the first symptom of benign prostate...
The leading cause of blindness caused by diabetes. It is called
A chronic inflammatory bowel disease where affected segments of the...
Early detection programs apply screening guidelines to detect cancers...
Name the most common type of skin cancer and the most deadly type...
The most common blood borne infection in Canada is _________. 
Scabies, a highly contagious condition that produces intense pruritus...
Sex-linked genetic diseases
Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria,...
The first stage of alcoholic liver disease is
A 75-year-old patient has a sore tongue with tingling and numbness of...
Which of these is the most common type of vaginitis?
Which tube conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the...
A toxic goiter has a __________ type of distinguishing...
Which of the following diseases can not be cured using...
Which of the following anatomical parts is involved in both the...
A common contraceptive that is implanted in the uterus induces slight...
Which drug is commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings?
The etiology of a plastic anemia is 
Identify the autoimmune diseases that affects tissues of the nervous...
A 76-year-old white female patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of...
Necrosis extending down to the underlying fascia is characteristic of...
Which of these conditions DO NOT fall under the category of COPD?
Diastole occurs when 
Common kidney stone treatments that allow small particles to be...
A sweat test was done on a patient with the following symptoms:...
Which of the following is a lethal arrhythmia? 
Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of ____ nerve. 
Before leaving the hospital, all newborns are screened for an...
Which is the most fatal type of lung cancer?
Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the ________.  
Portal hypertension can contribute to all of the following...
Mary has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that...
Which of the following is a congenital condition that is the most...
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