Biomedical Science Multiple Choice Questions

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  • 1/90 Questions

    Contributing factors of mental disorders includes: 

    • Heredity
    • Trauma
    • Stress
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz


Have you studied biomedical science? Do you have a good understanding of it? Here is a biomedical science quiz consisting of multiple-choice questions on this topic. Try this quiz, and you'll get the chance to refresh your concepts today. For starters, let us remind you that Biomedical science is a field of study focusing on how certain areas of biology See moreand chemistry can apply to health care. Play this quiz now and test your knowledge.

Biomedical Science Multiple Choice Questions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application, to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. The subsequent injections are termed as __________. 

    • Alerting shots

    • Warning shots.

    • Booster shots.

    • Unnecessary shots.

    Correct Answer
    A. Booster shots.
    Explanation
    Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. These subsequent injections are called booster shots. Booster shots help to enhance and prolong the immune response that was initiated by the initial immunization. They are necessary to ensure long-term immunity and protection against the specific disease or infection.

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  • 3. 

    Etiologies of dementia include 

    • Brain tumors

    • Ischemia

    • Trauma

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Dementia can be caused by various factors, including brain tumors, ischemia (restriction of blood flow to the brain), and trauma. All of these conditions can lead to damage or dysfunction in the brain, resulting in cognitive decline and the symptoms associated with dementia. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 4. 

    Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) include those 

    • With sleep apnea

    • With respiratory problems

    • Who are premature infants

    • AII of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. AII of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "aII of the above". Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) include those with sleep apnea, respiratory problems, and who are premature infants. These factors contribute to an increased likelihood of SIDS as they can disrupt normal breathing patterns during sleep and compromise the respiratory system's ability to function properly.

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  • 5. 

    In ______ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated crescents in the presence of low oxygen concentration.

    • Aplastic

    • Folic acid

    • Sickle cell

    • Vitamin B12

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle cell
    Explanation
    Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become crescent-shaped when exposed to low oxygen levels. This abnormal shape makes it difficult for the cells to flow smoothly through blood vessels, leading to various complications such as pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that produces hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.

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  • 6. 

    Pain is a symptom of which of the following conditions?

    • First-degree burn (superficial)

    • Second-degree burn (partial thickness)

    • Third-degree bum (full thickness)

    • Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both first-degree burns (superficial) and second-degree burns (partial thickness) can cause pain. First-degree burns affect only the outer layer of the skin and can cause redness, swelling, and pain. Second-degree burns extend deeper into the skin and can cause blistering, along with more intense pain. Third-degree burns (full thickness) can actually damage nerve endings, leading to a loss of sensation in the affected area, so they do not typically cause pain.

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  • 7. 

    Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is characteristic of

    • Malnutrition

    • Mastitis

    • Migraines

    • Myasthenia gravis

    Correct Answer
    A. Migraines
    Explanation
    Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is a characteristic symptom of migraines. Migraines are a type of headache disorder that often involve intense throbbing pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and visual disturbances (aura) such as seeing flashing lights or zigzag lines. While malnutrition, mastitis, and myasthenia gravis can cause various symptoms, they are not specifically associated with photophobia and visual aura preceding a severe headache.

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  • 8. 

    The opposing interaction of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effects of the other is termed a

    • Placebo effect

    • Potentiation effect

    • Synergistic effect

    • Antagonistic effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Antagonistic effect
    Explanation
    An antagonistic effect refers to the opposing interaction between two drugs, where one drug decreases or cancels out the effects of the other. In other words, when two drugs have an antagonistic effect, they work against each other, resulting in reduced or nullified effects. This can occur when one drug blocks the receptors or actions of the other drug, leading to a decrease in the intended therapeutic effect.

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  • 9. 

    Margaret needs to have her mitral valve replaced. Her surgeon will discuss which of the following issues with her before the surgery? 

    • A mechanical valve will I require that she take a "blood thinner" for the rest of her life.

    • A biological valve (usually porcine) will last 10 to 15 years.

    • A mechanical valve increases the risk of blood clots that can cause stroke.

    • AlI of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. AlI of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." Before the surgery, Margaret's surgeon will discuss the issues related to both mechanical and biological valves. A mechanical valve will require her to take a "blood thinner" for the rest of her life to prevent blood clots. A biological valve, usually made from porcine tissue, will last for 10 to 15 years before needing to be replaced. Additionally, the surgeon will inform Margaret that a mechanical valve increases the risk of blood clots that can cause a stroke.

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  • 10. 

    Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the 

    • Intervertebral disks.

    • Hips and shoulders.

    • Knees and small joints of the hands and feet.

    • Large, weight-bearing joints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Knees and small joints of the hands and feet.
    Explanation
    Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that primarily affects the joints. It is characterized by joint pain, stiffness, and swelling. The disease commonly affects the synovial joints, which include the small joints of the hands and feet, as well as the knees. Inflammation in these joints can lead to joint damage and deformity over time. While other joints, such as the hips and shoulders, can also be affected by rheumatoid arthritis, the knees and small joints of the hands and feet are typically more commonly involved.

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  • 11. 

    Which is the most common etiology of dementia in Canada?

    • Autism

    • Alzheimer's disease

    • Alcohol abuse

    • Anxiety disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Alzheimer's disease
    Explanation
    Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia in Canada. It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It accounts for approximately 60-80% of all dementia cases. The disease is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, leading to the destruction of brain cells and the subsequent decline in cognitive function. Other causes of dementia, such as alcohol abuse and anxiety disorder, may contribute to cognitive impairment but are not as prevalent as Alzheimer's disease. Autism, on the other hand, is a developmental disorder that primarily affects social interaction and communication skills and is not a common cause of dementia.

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  • 12. 

    Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the 

    • Ascending colon

    • Esophagus

    • Small intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for the breakdown of food into smaller molecules through the action of enzymes, and the absorption of these molecules into the bloodstream. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases its capacity for nutrient absorption. In contrast, the ascending colon primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, the esophagus transports food from the mouth to the stomach, and the stomach mainly functions in the initial digestion of food through the release of enzymes and acid.

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  • 13. 

    A bee stung little Bobby. He experiences itching, erythema, and respiratory distress caused by laryngeal edema and vascular collapse. In the emergency room where he is given an epinephrine injection, Bobby is diagnosed with

    • Allergic rhinitis

    • Allergic sinusitis

    • Anaphylactic shock

    • Asthma

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaphylactic shock
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as itching, erythema, respiratory distress, laryngeal edema, and vascular collapse, it can be inferred that Bobby is experiencing anaphylactic shock. Anaphylactic shock is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen, in this case, a bee sting. The administration of epinephrine is a common treatment for anaphylactic shock, as it helps to reverse the symptoms and stabilize the individual. Allergic rhinitis, allergic sinusitis, and asthma do not typically cause the same severe symptoms as seen in anaphylactic shock.

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  • 14. 

    A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is brought to the ER by his roommates, complaining of a severe headache, nuchal rigictity, fever, and photophobia. The ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The young man is admitted to the ICU with a provisional diagnosis of 

    • A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection.

    • A methcillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection.

    • Tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacteriuum tuberculosis-positive sputum

    • Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.
    Explanation
    The patient's symptoms of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, fever, and photophobia are consistent with meningitis. The ER physician performs a lumbar puncture (LP) to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. The provisional diagnosis is meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis, as indicated by a positive CSF culture for this bacteria. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in young adults living in close quarters, such as college dormitories. Treatment with antibiotics and admission to the ICU is appropriate for this potentially life-threatening condition.

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  • 15. 

    Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at _______. 

    • Alveoli

    • Bronchi

    • Bronchioles

    • Trachea

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveoli
    Explanation
    Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at the alveoli. Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the walls of the alveoli into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, moves from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. The large surface area and thin walls of the alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange, allowing oxygen to be taken up by the body and carbon dioxide to be eliminated.

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  • 16. 

    The positive belief in a drug and its ability to cure a patient's illness, even if this drug is an inactive or inert substance, typically positively influences a patient's perception of their outcome. What is this effect called? 

    • Synergistic effect

    • Potentiation effect

    • Placebo effect

    • Antagonistic effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Placebo effect
    Explanation
    The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no active therapeutic effect. This effect is believed to be driven by the patient's positive belief and expectation in the treatment, which can influence their perception of their outcome. In other words, the placebo effect demonstrates the power of the mind in influencing health outcomes.

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  • 17. 

    One of the most common causes of peptic ulcer disease is the consumption of aspirin and NSAlDs. Another common cause is infection by Helicobacter pylori, and the usual treatment for this condition is use of    

    • Antivirals

    • Antibiotics

    • Antifungals

    • Antiemetics

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibiotics
    Explanation
    The correct answer is antibiotics. Peptic ulcer disease can be caused by the infection of Helicobacter pylori bacteria. Antibiotics are commonly used to treat this condition by eliminating the bacteria and allowing the ulcer to heal. Antivirals, antifungals, and antiemetics are not effective against bacterial infections and would not be suitable for treating peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori.

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  • 18. 

    Victor Newman was in a car accident and sustained severe chest trauma resulting in a tension pneumothorax. Manifestations of this disorder include all of the following EXCEPT 

    • Severe chest pain

    • Dyspnea

    • Shock

    • Clubbing

    Correct Answer
    A. Clubbing
    Explanation
    Tension pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space causing the lung to collapse and putting pressure on the heart and other structures in the chest. Common manifestations of tension pneumothorax include severe chest pain, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and shock (low blood pressure). However, clubbing, which is the swelling of the fingertips and nails, is not associated with tension pneumothorax. Clubbing is typically seen in conditions such as chronic lung disease or heart disease.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease?

    • It is an autounmune disease

    • It most commonly affects males

    • Lt usually cannot be treated

    • It usually affects the elderly

    Correct Answer
    A. It is an autounmune disease
    Explanation
    Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease, which means that the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells and tissues. This condition primarily affects females, although it can also occur in males. While there is no cure for Graves' disease, there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms and control the overactive thyroid. Contrary to the statement, Graves' disease usually affects younger individuals, typically between the ages of 20 and 40.

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  • 20. 

    Graves' disease be treated by: 

    • Antithyroid drugs

    • Radioactive iodine therapy

    • Surgery

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options can be used to treat Graves' disease. Antithyroid drugs are commonly prescribed to reduce the production of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine therapy involves the administration of radioactive iodine, which destroys the overactive thyroid cells. Surgery, known as thyroidectomy, may be recommended in severe cases where medication and radioactive iodine therapy are not effective or suitable. Therefore, all of these treatment options can be used individually or in combination, depending on the patient's condition and the severity of the disease.

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  • 21. 

    Impetigo can be 

    • Spread through autonoculation

    • Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

    • Caused by Staphylococcus aureus

    • Either B or C

    Correct Answer
    A. Either B or C
    Explanation
    Impetigo
    Bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by vesicles, pustules, and crusted-over lesions

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  • 22. 

    The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive method for diagnosing 

    • Carpal tunnel syndrome

    • Down syndrome

    • Severe acute respiratory syndrome

    • Tourette's syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    Explanation
    The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive diagnostic method used to identify carpal tunnel syndrome. Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition characterized by compression of the median nerve in the wrist, leading to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers. The Phalen's test involves flexing the wrist for a prolonged period, which increases pressure on the median nerve. If the test reproduces the patient's symptoms, it suggests the presence of carpal tunnel syndrome. This test is commonly used by healthcare professionals to aid in the diagnosis of this condition.

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  • 23. 

    An HIV-positive patient has raised red or purple lesions that appear on his skin, in his mouth, and almost anywhere on his body. What is the stage of his disease process in today's medical terminology? 

    • ARC

    • HIV positive

    • AZT

    • AIDS

    Correct Answer
    A. AIDS
    Explanation
    The presence of raised red or purple lesions on the skin, in the mouth, and throughout the body is a characteristic symptom of AIDS. AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is the final stage of HIV infection. It occurs when the immune system is severely damaged, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancer. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, the patient is in the AIDS stage of the disease process.

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  • 24. 

    A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. A blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erythromycin. The diagnosis in this case is 

    • A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection

    • A methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection

    • Tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.

    • Meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. A group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. This is indicated by the symptoms of fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. The complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies on the blood agar culture plate confirms the presence of group A streptococcus. Erythromycin is an appropriate antibiotic choice for treating this type of infection.

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  • 25. 

    A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic symptom of _________. 

    • Epilepsy

    • Guiillain-Barre syndrome

    • Myasthenia gravis

    • Parkinson disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Parkinson disease
    Explanation
    A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand refers to a specific type of tremor where the fingers move in a rolling motion, as if rolling a pill between the thumb and fingers. This type of tremor is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and is characterized by symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with balance and coordination. The "pill-rolling" tremor is one of the hallmark signs of Parkinson's disease and is often one of the first symptoms to appear.

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  • 26. 

    What common vitamin should be taken by pregnant women to substantially reduce the occurrence of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, in a developing fetus? 

    • Folic acid

    • Calcium

    • B12

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. Folic acid
    Explanation
    Folic acid is the common vitamin that should be taken by pregnant women to substantially reduce the occurrence of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, in a developing fetus. Folic acid plays a crucial role in the development of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the baby's brain and spinal cord. Adequate intake of folic acid before and during early pregnancy can help prevent neural tube defects. Calcium, B12, and E are not specifically associated with reducing the occurrence of neural tube defects.

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  • 27. 

    Why must influenza immunizations be developed and administered on an annual basis?

    • The virus mutates significantly each year.

    • People develop resistance to the vaccine.

    • The immunization is only strong enough for one year.

    • The pharmaceutical companies produce the lowest dosage possible

    Correct Answer
    A. The virus mutates significantly each year.
    Explanation
    Influenza immunizations must be developed and administered on an annual basis because the virus mutates significantly each year. This means that the strains of the virus circulating in one flu season may be different from the strains in the next season. Therefore, the previous year's vaccine may not provide adequate protection against the new strains. By developing and administering new vaccines each year, scientists can target the specific strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent in that particular flu season, increasing the effectiveness of the immunization.

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  • 28. 

    Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to 

    • Falling from loss of balance.

    • Fibrous joint adhesions tearing apart small bones.

    • Loss of bone mass.

    • A tendency to fall from a lack of joint mobility

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of bone mass.
    Explanation
    Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to the loss of bone mass. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened and brittle bones, which makes them more susceptible to fractures. As bone mass decreases, the bones become less dense and more fragile, increasing the risk of fractures even with minor trauma or falls. This is why individuals with osteoporosis are more prone to fractures, as their bones lack the necessary strength and density to withstand normal stress and impact.

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  • 29. 

    Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to person. Which of the diseases listed next is a bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector? 

    • Legionnaires' disease

    • Lyme disease

    • Tetanus

    • Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Lyme disease
    Explanation
    Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi and is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. These ticks are commonly found in grassy and wooded areas. The bacteria can enter the bloodstream and cause a range of symptoms, including fever, fatigue, headache, muscle and joint aches, and swollen lymph nodes. If left untreated, it can spread to the joints, heart, and nervous system. Therefore, Lyme disease is the bacterial disease transmitted by way of a tick vector.

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  • 30. 

    Sam Spade has been severely injured in an MVA because he was not wearing a seat belt. The organ in his body, situated at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, that is part of his lymphatic system has been ruptured, and he is bleeding internally. Sam needs a surgical procedure known as 

    • Sequestrectomy

    • Sialoadenectomy

    • Sigmoidoscopy

    • Splenectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Splenectomy
    Explanation
    Sam Spade has suffered a severe injury in a motor vehicle accident because he was not wearing a seat belt. As a result, one of the organs in his body, located at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, has been ruptured and he is experiencing internal bleeding. The surgical procedure that Sam requires is called a splenectomy. A splenectomy involves the removal of the spleen, which is a part of the lymphatic system. This procedure is necessary to address the internal bleeding and prevent further complications.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease EXCEPT 

    • Contaminated foods

    • Droplet spread

    • Coughing or sneezing

    • Physical contact

    Correct Answer
    A. Contaminated foods
    Explanation
    Direct transmission of a disease refers to the transfer of the infectious agent from one person to another through direct contact or close proximity. Contaminated foods, on the other hand, are typically associated with indirect transmission, where the disease-causing agent is transferred through contaminated objects or substances, such as contaminated water or food. Therefore, contaminated foods do not fall under the category of direct transmission of a disease.

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  • 32. 

    Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of ______ type of diabetes. 

    • Type 1 diabetes

    • Juvenile diabetes

    • IDDM

    • Type 2 diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 2 diabetes
    Explanation
    Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition where the body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't produce enough insulin to regulate blood sugar levels. It is more common in adults, especially those who are overweight or obese, and can be influenced by genetic factors. In contrast, type 1 diabetes, also known as juvenile diabetes or IDDM, is an autoimmune disease that typically develops in childhood or adolescence and is not associated with obesity or family history.

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  • 33. 

    Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent 

    • Breathing restrictions

    • Miscarriage

    • Torsion

    • Torticollis

    Correct Answer
    A. Miscarriage
    Explanation
    Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent miscarriage. It involves stitching the cervix closed to provide support and prevent it from opening prematurely during pregnancy. This procedure is typically performed in women who have a history of cervical incompetence or previous miscarriages. By reinforcing the cervix, cervical cerclage can reduce the risk of miscarriage and increase the chances of a successful pregnancy.

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  • 34. 

    The interaction of two drugs working together to where each simultaneously helps the other achieve an effect that neither could produce alone is termed a _________. 

    • Placebo effect.

    • Potentiation effect.

    • Synergistic effect

    • Antagonistic effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. Synergistic effect
    Explanation
    A synergistic effect refers to the interaction of two drugs that work together to enhance each other's effects, resulting in a more powerful outcome than either drug could produce alone. In this case, both drugs complement each other and contribute to achieving a desired effect. This term is used to describe the positive interaction between drugs, unlike an antagonistic effect where drugs work against each other. The placebo effect, on the other hand, refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in symptoms due to their belief in the treatment, even if it is an inactive substance.

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  • 35. 

    The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of ______ cells. 

    • Helper B cells

    • Mast cells

    • Immunosurveillance

    • Memory cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory cells
    Explanation
    Memory cells are formed after vaccination and play a crucial role in preventing illness. These cells "remember" the specific pathogen encountered during vaccination and mount a rapid and effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen. This memory response helps to eliminate the pathogen before it can cause illness, providing long-term immunity.

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  • 36. 

    Genital warts are caused by 

    • HAV

    • HlV

    • HPV

    • VZV

    Correct Answer
    A. HPV
    Explanation
    Genital warts are caused by HPV (Human Papillomavirus). HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can be spread through vaginal, anal, or oral sex. It is one of the most common sexually transmitted infections worldwide. HPV can cause warts to develop on or around the genitals, and it can also lead to certain types of cancers, including cervical, anal, and throat cancer. Vaccines are available to protect against HPV and reduce the risk of developing genital warts and related cancers.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following conditions is NOT a predisposing risk associated with essential hypertension? 

    • Age

    • Cigarette smoking

    • Iow dietary sodium intake

    • Obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. Iow dietary sodium intake
    Explanation
    Low dietary sodium intake is not a predisposing risk associated with essential hypertension. Essential hypertension is primarily influenced by factors such as age, cigarette smoking, and obesity. While a high dietary sodium intake can contribute to hypertension, a low intake of sodium does not increase the risk. In fact, a low sodium diet is often recommended as a way to manage and prevent hypertension.

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  • 38. 

    The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is a 

    • Bacteria

    • Protozoa

    • Prion

    • Virus

    Correct Answer
    A. Protozoa
    Explanation
    Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium, not by bacteria, prions, or viruses. This parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the parasite multiplies in the liver and then infects red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria.

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  • 39. 

    The presence of fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is NOT characteristic of ________. 

    • COPD

    • Pneumonia

    • Crohn's disease

    • Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Crohn's disease
    Explanation
    Fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is not characteristic of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, causing inflammation and ulcers. It does not directly affect the lungs or cause fluid accumulation in the alveoli. On the other hand, fluid in the alveoli can be seen in conditions such as COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), pneumonia, and tuberculosis, which are respiratory diseases.

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  • 40. 

    Prevention programs identify risk factors and use strategies to modify attitudes and behaviors to reduce the chance of developing cancers. Which of the following '"otild NOT be an identified risk factor for colorectaI cancer? 

    • Alcohol use

    • Physical inactivity

    • A high-fiber diet

    • Obesity

    Correct Answer
    A. A high-fiber diet
    Explanation
    A high-fiber diet would not be identified as a risk factor for colorectal cancer. In fact, a high-fiber diet is often recommended as a preventive measure for colorectal cancer. Fiber helps to promote regular bowel movements and reduce the risk of constipation, which in turn reduces the exposure of the colon to potential carcinogens. Additionally, a high-fiber diet can help to maintain a healthy weight and prevent obesity, which is a known risk factor for colorectal cancer. Therefore, a high-fiber diet is actually beneficial in reducing the chance of developing colorectal cancer.

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  • 41. 

    When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, the ulcer has extended to the 

    • Bone

    • Muscle

    • Fascia

    • Subcutaneous tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone
    Explanation
    When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, it means that the infection has spread to the bone. Osteomyelitis is a serious condition where the bone becomes infected, usually due to bacteria entering through an open wound or sore. In this stage, the ulcer has penetrated through the layers of tissue and reached the bone, causing a potentially life-threatening infection.

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  • 42. 

    Softening of the bone in children is termed __________________ . 

    • Raynaud's disease

    • Reye's syndrom

    • Rickets

    • Rubella

    Correct Answer
    A. Rickets
    Explanation
    Rickets is the correct answer because it refers to the softening and weakening of the bones in children, usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate. This condition can lead to skeletal deformities and impaired growth. Raynaud's disease is a condition that affects blood flow to the extremities, Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious illness that can cause brain and liver damage, and rubella is a viral infection that can cause rash and other symptoms.

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  • 43. 

    Ln general, excessive RBC breakdown can result in: 

    • Crohn's disease

    • Elevated BUN

    • High bilirubin levels

    • Peptic ulcers

    Correct Answer
    A. High bilirubin levels
    Explanation
    Excessive breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) can lead to high bilirubin levels. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the breakdown of heme in RBCs. Normally, bilirubin is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. However, if there is an excessive breakdown of RBCs, the liver may not be able to process bilirubin efficiently, leading to its accumulation in the blood, resulting in high bilirubin levels. This can occur in conditions such as hemolytic anemia or liver disease.

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  • 44. 

    An African American couple is undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises and is termed as ______. 

    • Hemophilia

    • Thalassemia

    • Sickle cell anemia

    • Iron-deficiency anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle cell anemia
    Explanation
    The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic blood disorder characterized by the presence of abnormal hemoglobin, which causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped. This can lead to various complications including pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections.

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  • 45. 

    In systemic circulation, which of the following vessel carries oxygenated blood? 

    • Right vena cava

    • Renal arteries

    • Pulmonary veins

    • Left ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary veins
    Explanation
    The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood in the systemic circulation. After oxygen is exchanged in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins and is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation. The right vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium, the renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys, and the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood out of the heart to the rest of the body.

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  • 46. 

    Pick the sequence that correctly depicts the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs in order for gas exchange to occur. 

    • Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, pulmonary artery

    • Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs

    • Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary artery

    • Right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs

    Correct Answer
    A. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs for gas exchange to occur is as follows: right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs. Blood enters the heart through the right atrium, then flows into the right ventricle. From the right ventricle, the blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs for oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones? 

    • Being overweight

    • Being an adolescent

    • Low-fat diets

    • The presence of a peptic ulcer

    Correct Answer
    A. Being overweight
    Explanation
    Being overweight is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones. This is because excess body weight can lead to increased cholesterol levels in the bile, which can contribute to the formation of gallstones. Additionally, being overweight is often associated with other risk factors such as a sedentary lifestyle and poor dietary habits, which further increase the risk of developing gallstones.

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  • 48. 

    Which of these cells is responsible for producing antibodies?

    • B cells

    • Cytotoxic T cells

    • Helper T cells

    • Plasma cells

    Correct Answer
    A. B cells
    Explanation
    B cells are responsible for producing antibodies. B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. When an antigen enters the body, B cells recognize it and differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies, which are proteins that bind to specific antigens and help to neutralize or eliminate them. Therefore, B cells are directly involved in the production of antibodies, making them the correct answer to the question.

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  • 49. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in anemia?

    • Excessive RBC breakdown

    • Lack of RBC maturation

    • Loss of bone marrow function

    • Loss of spleen function

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of spleen function
    Explanation
    Loss of spleen function is not a pathophysiological factor in anemia. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Excessive RBC breakdown, lack of RBC maturation, and loss of bone marrow function can all contribute to the development of anemia. However, loss of spleen function does not directly affect the production or breakdown of red blood cells, and therefore is not a factor in anemia.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 1, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 01, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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    Expert Reviewed by
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  • Jul 01, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Kevin

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