# ATP 03 Gerard 2020

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Quizzes Created: 10 | Total Attempts: 2,916
Questions: 40 | Attempts: 57

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• 1.

### Why is VMCG determine with the nose wheel steering disconnected

• A.

Because nose wheel staring has no affected on the value of VMCG

• B.

Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and / or slippery rwys

• C.

Because the nose wheel steering could become inoperative after ab engine has failed

• D.

Because it must be possible to abort the take of even after the nose wheel has already been lifted off the ground

B. Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and / or slippery rwys
Explanation
VMCG (Minimum Control Speed on the Ground) is the minimum speed at which an aircraft can maintain directional control with the critical engine inoperative and the remaining engines at takeoff power. The value of VMCG must be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways because these conditions can affect the aircraft's ability to maintain directional control during takeoff. Therefore, the nose wheel steering being disconnected does not affect the determination of VMCG, but the ability to maintain control on wet or slippery runways does.

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• 2.

### When spoilers are used as speed break

• A.

CL max of the polar curve is not affected

• B.

They do not affected wheel braking action during landing

• C.

At same angle of attack CL remains unaffected

• D.

At same angle of attack ,CD is increased and CL is decreased

D. At same angle of attack ,CD is increased and CL is decreased
Explanation
When spoilers are used as speed brakes, the correct answer is that at the same angle of attack, CD (drag coefficient) is increased and CL (lift coefficient) is decreased. This means that the spoilers create additional drag, which helps to slow down the aircraft, but also reduces the lift generated by the wings. This allows the aircraft to descend more rapidly without gaining excessive speed.

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• 3.

### How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature

• A.

Increases , because al a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force

• B.

Increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases

• C.

Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases

• D.

Decreases , because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density,

C. Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases
• 4.

### The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 Kts. the speed of sound is

• A.

500 Kts

• B.

320 Kts

• C.

480 Kts

• D.

600 Kts

A. 500 Kts
Explanation
The speed of sound can be calculated using the formula: Speed of sound = TAS / Mach number. In this case, the TAS is given as 400 Kts and the Mach number is given as 0.8. Substituting these values into the formula, we get: Speed of sound = 400 Kts / 0.8 = 500 Kts. Therefore, the correct answer is 500 Kts.

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• 5.

### The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on

• A.

TAS

• B.

Weight

• C.

• D.

Wind

A. TAS
Explanation
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on True Airspeed (TAS). This is because TAS is a measure of the actual speed of the aircraft through the air, unaffected by variations in atmospheric conditions. In a rate-one turn, the aircraft maintains a constant angle of bank while also maintaining a constant rate of turn. The TAS affects the lift generated by the wings, which in turn determines the necessary bank angle to maintain the desired rate of turn. Therefore, TAS is a crucial factor in determining the bank angle in a rate-one turn.

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• 6.

### The stall speed increases , when (all other factors of importance being constant

• A.

Spoilers are selected from OUT to IN

• B.

Pulling up from a dive

• C.

Weight decreases

• D.

Minor altitude changes occur e.g 0--10.000 ft

B. Pulling up from a dive
Explanation
Pulling up from a dive increases the stall speed. When an aircraft is in a dive, the airspeed increases, causing the wings to generate more lift. When the pilot pulls up, the angle of attack of the wings increases, which can lead to a higher stall speed. This is because the wings need to generate more lift to counteract the increased angle of attack and prevent a stall. Therefore, pulling up from a dive increases the stall speed.

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• 7.

### After T.O the slats (when installed ) are always retracted later than Flaps  , why

• A.

Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag

• B.

Because SLATS EXTENDED give a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag

• C.

Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED

• D.

Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favorable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation

B. Because SLATS EXTENDED give a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
Explanation
The correct answer is because SLATS EXTENDED give a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. When the slats are extended, they create additional lift by increasing the curvature of the wing, which helps to decrease the stall speed of the aircraft. This allows the aircraft to fly at slower speeds without stalling. Additionally, the slats create less drag compared to the flaps, which helps to improve the overall efficiency of the aircraft.

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• 8.

### A higher altitudes , the stall speed (IAS)

• A.

Increases

• B.

Decreases

• C.

Remain the same

• D.

Decreases until tropopause

A. Increases
Explanation
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS) increases. This is because as the altitude increases, the air density decreases. Since stall speed is directly related to air density, a decrease in air density at higher altitudes results in an increase in stall speed. This means that an aircraft needs to maintain a higher airspeed to avoid stalling at higher altitudes.

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• 9.

### The stall speed

• A.

Does not depend on weight

• B.

Increases with the length of the wingspan

• C.

Increases with an increased weight

• D.

Decreases with an increased weight

C. Increases with an increased weight
Explanation
As weight increases, the stall speed also increases. This is because the lift produced by the wings needs to counterbalance the weight of the aircraft. As the weight increases, more lift is required to maintain level flight. To generate more lift, the aircraft needs to increase its angle of attack, which in turn increases the stall speed. Therefore, the stall speed increases with an increased weight.

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• 10.

### The following factors increase stall speed

• A.

A lower weight deceasing bank angle , a smaller flap setting

• B.

An increase in load factor , a forward c.g shift , decrease in thrust

• C.

A higher weight selecting a higher flap setting , a forward cog shift.

• D.

Increasing bank angle , increasing thrust , slat extension

B. An increase in load factor , a forward c.g shift , decrease in thrust
Explanation
An increase in load factor, a forward c.g shift, and a decrease in thrust all contribute to an increase in stall speed. Load factor refers to the additional force experienced by an aircraft due to maneuvers or changes in flight path. Increasing the load factor puts more stress on the wings, which increases the stall speed. A forward c.g shift refers to moving the center of gravity forward, which reduces the stability of the aircraft and increases the stall speed. Decreasing thrust means there is less power available to maintain lift, causing the stall speed to increase.

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• 11.

### A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn , while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude .In such a case , the Pilot has to

• A.

Increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged

• B.

Increase thrust and angle of attack

• C.

Increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged

• D.

Increase thrust and decrease angle of attack

B. Increase thrust and angle of attack
Explanation
When a jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude, the pilot needs to increase both the thrust and the angle of attack. Increasing the thrust helps to counteract the increased drag caused by the turn, while increasing the angle of attack helps to generate more lift to maintain altitude. By increasing both factors, the pilot can ensure that the aircraft remains stable and in control during the turn.

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• 12.

### The center of gravity moving after will

• A.

Increase the elevator up effectiveness

• B.

Decrease the elevator up effectiveness

• C.

Not affected the elevator up or down effectiveness

• D.

Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness , depending on wing location.

A. Increase the elevator up effectiveness
Explanation
When the center of gravity moves aft (towards the tail), it increases the elevator up effectiveness. This is because moving the center of gravity aft shifts the balance of the aircraft, causing the tail to exert more downward force. As a result, the elevator has more authority to raise the nose of the aircraft, increasing its effectiveness in pitching up.

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• 13.

### Mcritic is the free stream Mach Number at wich

• A.

Shock stall occurs.

• B.

The critical angle of attack is reached

• C.

Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally

• D.

Mach buffet occurs

C. Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally
Explanation
The correct answer is "somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally." This means that when the Mach number of the airflow around the airframe reaches approximately Mach 1, locally meaning in specific areas, certain effects such as shock stall or Mach buffet may occur. It implies that the airframe is experiencing high-speed conditions and may encounter aerodynamic challenges at this point.

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• 14.

### When comparing a rectangular wing and swept back wing of the same wing area and loading , the swept back wing has the advantage of

• A.

Winglets

• B.

Swept wings

• C.

Straight wings

• D.

Wing dihedral

B. Swept wings
Explanation
The swept back wing has the advantage of swept wings. Swept wings refer to wings that are angled backward from the fuselage. This design reduces the drag caused by the airflow over the wings, allowing for higher speeds and improved maneuverability. The angled shape also helps to delay the onset of supersonic airflow, making it more efficient for high-speed flight. Therefore, when comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and loading, the swept back wing with its swept wings provides better performance and aerodynamic advantages.

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• 15.

### One disadvantage of the swept back wing is its stalling characteristics . At the stall

• A.

Increased longitudinal stability

• B.

Lower stalling speed

• C.

Higher critical mach

• D.

Greater strength

D. Greater strength
Explanation
The swept back wing design has a disadvantage in its stalling characteristics. However, it compensates for this by providing greater strength. This means that even though the wing may have a tendency to stall, it is able to withstand higher forces and maintain structural integrity. This is important for the safety and reliability of the aircraft.

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• 16.

### What wing shape or wing characteristics is the least sensitive to turbulence

• A.

Winglets

• B.

Swept wings

• C.

Straight wings

• D.

Wing diedral

B. Swept wings
Explanation
Swept wings are the least sensitive to turbulence compared to other wing shapes or characteristics. This is because the swept-back design reduces the impact of crosswinds and turbulence by allowing the air to flow smoothly over the wing. The angled shape helps to minimize drag and maintain stability during turbulent conditions. Straight wings, on the other hand, are more susceptible to turbulence as they create more drag and are less efficient in turbulent air. Winglets and wing dihedral also provide some stability but are not as effective as swept wings in reducing the sensitivity to turbulence.

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• 17.

### One disadvantage of the swept back wing is its stalling characteristics At the stall

• A.

Wing root stall will occur first , wich produces a rolling moment

• B.

Tip stall will occur first wich produces a nose down moment

• C.

Leading edge stall will occur first , wich produces a nose down moment

• D.

Tip stall will occur first wich produces a pitch --up moment

D. Tip stall will occur first wich produces a pitch --up moment
Explanation
The correct answer is "Tip stall will occur first which produces a pitch-up moment." This means that when the swept back wing stalls, the tip of the wing loses lift first, causing the aircraft to pitch up. This can be a disadvantage because it can lead to loss of control and potentially dangerous situations.

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• 18.

### Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur

• A.

When a higher than normal angle of attack is used

• B.

At a speed approaching the stall

• C.

When the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface

• D.

When the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface

C. When the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface
Explanation
Floating due to ground effect occurs when an aircraft is flying at a low altitude, typically less than half of the wingspan above the surface. This phenomenon happens because the ground creates a cushion of air that reduces the induced drag on the wings, allowing the aircraft to maintain lift at a lower speed. As a result, the aircraft may experience a prolonged float or difficulty in landing, especially if a higher than normal angle of attack is used at a speed approaching the stall.

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• 19.

### What will happen in group effect

• A.

A significant increase in thrust required

• B.

The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreased

• C.

The wing downwash on the tail surface increases

• D.

An increase in strength in the win tip vortices

B. The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreased
Explanation
When there is a group effect, the induced angle of attack and induced drag decrease. This means that the angle at which the wing meets the oncoming airflow and the resistance experienced by the aircraft due to the production of lift are both reduced. Additionally, the wing downwash on the tail surface increases, which can affect the stability and control of the aircraft. The increase in strength in the wing tip vortices is not mentioned in relation to the group effect.

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• 20.

### If an airplane flies in the ground effect

• A.

The lift is increased and the drag is decreased

• B.

The effective angle of attack is decreased

• C.

The induced angle of attack is increased

• D.

Drag and lift are reduced

A. The lift is increased and the drag is decreased
Explanation
When an airplane flies in the ground effect, it experiences an increase in lift and a decrease in drag. The ground effect occurs when the airplane is flying close to the ground, within one wingspan or less. The air that is trapped between the wings and the ground creates an upward force, increasing the lift. At the same time, the proximity to the ground reduces the amount of air disturbance, leading to a decrease in drag. This phenomenon allows the airplane to fly more efficiently and with less drag, resulting in increased lift and decreased drag.

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• 21.

### Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance

• A.

Decreases

• B.

Does not change

• C.

Increases only if the landing flaps are fully extended

• D.

Increases

D. Increases
Explanation
Ground effect refers to the phenomenon where the airflow around an aircraft is compressed between the wings and the ground, creating an upward force that reduces drag and improves lift. This effect becomes more pronounced as the aircraft gets closer to the ground. As a result, when landing in ground effect, the increased lift allows the aircraft to maintain a shallower descent angle, reducing the rate of descent and ultimately increasing the landing distance. Therefore, the correct answer is "Increases".

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• 22.

### The centre of gravity moving aft will

• A.

Increase the elevator up effectiveness

• B.

Decrease the elevator up effectiveness

• C.

Not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness

• D.

Increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness depend on wing location

A. Increase the elevator up effectiveness
Explanation
When the center of gravity (CG) moves aft, it means that the weight of the aircraft is shifting towards the tail. This shift in weight distribution causes an increase in the downward force on the tail, which in turn increases the effectiveness of the elevator in generating an upward force. Therefore, the elevator up effectiveness is increased when the center of gravity moves aft.

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• 23.

### Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll

• A.

• B.

Rolling and Yawing

• C.

Pitching and yawing

• D.

Pitching and rolling

B. Rolling and Yawing
Explanation
In a dutch roll, the aircraft experiences an oscillatory motion characterized by alternating yawing and rolling. This occurs when there is a combination of yawing and rolling moments acting on the aircraft. The rolling moment is caused by the asymmetrical lift generated by the wings, while the yawing moment is caused by the asymmetrical drag produced by the vertical tail. These two moments interact with each other, resulting in the dutch roll motion. Therefore, the correct answer is "Rolling and Yawing."

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• 24.

### Rotation about the lateral axis is called

• A.

Yawing

• B.

Slipping

• C.

Pitching

• D.

Rolling

C. Pitching
Explanation
Rotation about the lateral axis is called pitching. This term is commonly used in aviation and refers to the movement of an aircraft's nose up or down. When the aircraft's nose moves up, it is called a positive pitch, and when it moves down, it is called a negative pitch. Pitching is one of the three primary movements of an aircraft, along with rolling and yawing.

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• 25.

### The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is

• A.

3 hours

• B.

24 hours

• C.

12 hours

• D.

6 hours

B. 24 hours
Explanation
SNOWTAM is a type of notice used in aviation to inform pilots about the conditions of the airport's runways, taxiways, and aprons during snow or ice events. It provides crucial information for safe aircraft operations. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is 24 hours because it is important for pilots to have up-to-date and accurate information about the conditions of the airport. Within this timeframe, any changes or updates in the snow conditions can be communicated to the pilots, ensuring their safety during takeoff, landing, and taxiing procedures.

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• 26.

### Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a winshear

• A.

Pitch angle

• B.

Vertical speed

• C.

Ground speed

• D.

Indicated speed

D. Indicated speed
Explanation
When penetrating a windshear, the first magnitude to change its value would be the Indicated speed. This is because windshear is a sudden change in wind direction and/or speed, which directly affects the airspeed of the aircraft. As the aircraft enters the windshear, the change in wind speed will cause a sudden change in the indicated speed, which is the speed shown on the aircraft's instruments. The other magnitudes mentioned, such as pitch angle, vertical speed, and ground speed, may also be affected by the windshear, but the indicated speed will be the first to change.

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• 27.

### Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fasten

• A.

From take off to landing

• B.

While at their station

• C.

Only during T. O and Landing

• D.

Only T.O and Landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety

B. While at their station
Explanation
The correct answer is "while at their station." Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts fastened while they are at their designated station on the flight deck. This ensures that they are securely strapped in during critical phases of the flight, such as takeoff and landing, and allows them to quickly respond to any emergency situations that may arise. It is essential for their own safety and the safety of the aircraft and passengers.

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• 28.

### For the purpose of wake turbulence separation what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplanos on the app to the same ray

• A.

3.7 km (2NM)

• B.

7.4 Km (4NM)

• C.

9.3 Km (5NM)

• D.

11.1 Km (6NM)

B. 7.4 Km (4NM)
Explanation
The ICAO minimum radar separation distance for wake turbulence separation between heavy airplanes is 4NM (7.4 Km). This distance is necessary to ensure that the trailing aircraft does not encounter the wake turbulence generated by the leading aircraft, which can be hazardous. By maintaining this separation, the risk of encountering turbulence and potential loss of control is minimized, ensuring the safety of both aircraft.

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• 29.

### An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31,000 ft What is the initial action by

• A.

Transmit a MAYDAY message

• B.

Place the seat belts sign to On

• C.

• D.

Disconnect the auto pilot

C. To put the oxygen masks
Explanation
In the event of an explosive decompression at high altitude, the initial action would be to put on the oxygen masks. This is because at such altitudes, the air becomes thin and lacks sufficient oxygen for breathing. By putting on the oxygen masks, the passengers and crew can ensure that they have a supply of breathable air until the aircraft can descend to a lower altitude where the air is more suitable for breathing. This action is crucial for the safety and well-being of everyone on board.

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• 30.

### A category III B precision app is an app wich may be carried out with a wry visual range of at least

• A.

75 m

• B.

150 m

• C.

250 m

• D.

200 m

A. 75 m
Explanation
A category III B precision app is an app that requires a minimum visual range of at least 75 m. This means that the app can only be carried out if the visibility is at least 75 m.

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• 31.

### A breaking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is

• A.

Unreliable

• B.

Medium

• C.

Good

• D.

Poor

D. Poor
Explanation
A breaking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM indicates poor braking conditions. This means that the runway surface is not suitable for efficient braking, posing a higher risk for aircraft operations. Pilots should exercise caution and take appropriate measures to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

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• 32.

### A jet power aircraft flying above the optimum altitude will have

• A.

Increased mach number stability

• B.

Reduced range

• C.

Increasing maneuvering limits

• D.

Increased flight envelope

B. Reduced range
Explanation
When a jet power aircraft flies above its optimum altitude, it experiences reduced range. This is because flying above the optimum altitude increases drag and fuel consumption, leading to a decrease in the aircraft's range. Therefore, the aircraft will be able to cover a shorter distance before needing to refuel.

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• 33.

### According JAR --OPS the rout of a twin engine A/C with T:O mass exceeding 8618 Kg , or max approving seating conf fo more than 19 pax , must be planned a way with one eng can be reached

• A.

90 min at the cruise speed one eng ions

• B.

120 min at the cruise speed one eng ions

• C.

60 min at the cruise speed one eng ions

• D.

30 min cruise speed one eng ions

C. 60 min at the cruise speed one eng ions
Explanation
According to JAR-OPS regulations, the route of a twin-engine aircraft with a takeoff mass exceeding 8618 Kg or a maximum approved seating configuration for more than 19 passengers must be planned in a way that allows the aircraft to reach a destination with only one engine operating for a minimum of 60 minutes at cruise speed. This requirement ensures that the aircraft has enough fuel and engine capability to safely continue the flight in the event of an engine failure.

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• 34.

### When a LIGHT A/C is landing behind a MEDIUM A/C the wake turbulence non radar minimum time app separation according DOC 4444 (ICAO)

• A.

1 MIN

• B.

2 MIN

• C.

4 MIN

• D.

3 MIN

D. 3 MIN
Explanation
According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), when a LIGHT A/C is landing behind a MEDIUM A/C, the minimum time for wake turbulence separation is 3 minutes. This means that the LIGHT A/C must maintain a time separation of at least 3 minutes behind the MEDIUM A/C to avoid encountering any wake turbulence. This ensures the safety of both aircraft during the landing process.

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• 35.

### The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an alt 40,000 ft is

• A.

1 minute

• B.

5 minutes

• C.

12 seconds

• D.

30 seconds

C. 12 seconds
Explanation
The time of useful consciousness refers to the time during which a person can perform tasks and make decisions effectively in a hazardous environment without supplemental oxygen. In the case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40,000 ft, the lack of oxygen causes a rapid decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs and subsequently in the bloodstream. This results in hypoxia, a condition where the body and brain do not receive enough oxygen. At this altitude, the time of useful consciousness is only 12 seconds, indicating that individuals would quickly lose their ability to think clearly and take appropriate actions.

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• 36.

### The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight leves

• A.

280 end 400

• B.

280 and 390

• C.

275 and 400

• D.

285 and 420

D. 285 and 420
Explanation
The correct answer is 285 and 420. The MNPS airspace extends vertically between these flight levels.

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• 37.

### In accordance doc 4444 OACI when Medium and a Light A/C are using the same ray or parallel ray separated by 760 m , shall be applied separation

• A.

4 NM

• B.

3 NM

• C.

2 NM

• D.

5NM

D. 5NM
Explanation
According to document 4444 OACI, when a medium and a light aircraft are using the same or parallel ray separated by 760 meters, a separation of 5 NM should be applied.

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• 38.

### When setting up a minimum noise climb , the minimum height at wich a power reduction shall be allowed is

• A.

600m (2000 ft )

• B.

300 m ( 1000 ft )

• C.

450 m (1500ft )

• D.

150m (500ft )

B. 300 m ( 1000 ft )
Explanation
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is 300m (1000 ft). This means that the aircraft can start reducing its engine power once it reaches this altitude during the climb. This is done to minimize noise pollution in the surrounding area, as reducing engine power can help reduce the overall noise generated by the aircraft. By implementing this minimum height requirement, aircraft operators can contribute to noise reduction efforts and mitigate the impact of their operations on nearby communities.

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• 39.

### A class B fire is fire of

• A.

Electrical source fire

• B.

Special fire , metal gas, chemical product

• C.

Liquid or liquefiable solid

• D.

Solid material usually of organic nature

C. Liquid or liquefiable solid
Explanation
A class B fire refers to a fire involving flammable liquids or liquefiable solids. This means that the fire is caused by substances that can easily ignite and burn in a liquid or solid form. These substances could include gasoline, oil, grease, solvents, or other similar materials. It is important to understand the classification of fires in order to use the appropriate fire extinguishing methods and ensure the safety of individuals and property.

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• 40.

### One of the main characteristic of wind shear is that it

• A.

Occurs only at a low altitud (2000 ft ) and never in the horizontal plane

• B.

Can occur any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

• C.

Can occur at any altitud in both the vertical and horizontal planes

• D.

Occurs only ata low altitude ( 2000 ft ) and never in the vertical plane

C. Can occur at any altitud in both the vertical and horizontal planes
Explanation
Wind shear is a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance. It can occur at any altitude and in both the vertical and horizontal planes. This means that wind shear can happen at different heights and in different directions, making it a significant concern for aviation and weather forecasting. It is not limited to a specific altitude or confined to the horizontal plane.

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• Aug 05, 2023
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• Dec 29, 2019
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