Anatomy Unit 4 Exam Practice

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Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The _________allow the passage of the ________artery, which is a branch of the subclavian and feeds the base of the brain with blood. 

    • A.

      Intervertebral foramen, vertebral

    • B.

      Vertebral canal, internal carotid

    • C.

      Transverse foramen, vertebral

    • D.

      Verebra promininens, internal carotid

    Correct Answer
    C. Transverse foramen, vertebral
    Explanation
    The transverse foramen is a structure found in the cervical vertebrae that allows the passage of the vertebral artery. The vertebral artery is a branch of the subclavian artery and supplies blood to the base of the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transverse foramen, vertebral."

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  • 2. 

    The _____ has no body or spinous process and is ring-like. 

    • A.

      Atlas

    • B.

      Axis

    • C.

      C2

    • D.

      C4

    Correct Answer
    A. Atlas
    Explanation
    The atlas is the first cervical vertebra in the spine. It is unique because it does not have a body or spinous process, and instead forms a ring-like structure. This allows for the rotation of the head on top of the axis, the second cervical vertebra, enabling movements such as nodding and shaking the head.

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  • 3. 

    The ala of the sacrum are technically remnants of what?

    • A.

      Articular processes

    • B.

      Transverse processes

    • C.

      Costal facets

    • D.

      Dorsal roots

    Correct Answer
    B. Transverse processes
    Explanation
    The ala of the sacrum are technically remnants of the transverse processes. The sacrum is a triangular bone located at the base of the spine, and it is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. The transverse processes are bony projections that extend outwards from the sides of each vertebra. During the fusion process, the transverse processes of the individual vertebrae become incorporated into the ala of the sacrum. Therefore, the correct answer is "Transverse processes."

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  • 4. 

    The ______ suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bone and the ________ suture separates the parietal bone from the temporal bone. 

    • A.

      Coronal, squamous

    • B.

      Squamous, coronal

    • C.

      Sagittal, coronal

    • D.

      Coronal, sagittal

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronal, squamous
    Explanation
    The coronal suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bone, while the squamous suture separates the parietal bone from the temporal bone.

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  • 5. 

    The lambdoid suture separates the parietal from the occipital bone? 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The lambdoid suture is a dense, fibrous joint that separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone in the human skull. It is located at the posterior part of the skull and has a distinctive "lambda" shape, resembling the Greek letter. This suture is important for the growth and development of the skull during infancy and childhood. Therefore, the statement that the lambdoid suture separates the parietal from the occipital bone is true.

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  • 6. 

    The _______  ligament acts to limit extension and prevent hyperextension of the spine, while the _________ ligament acts to limit flexion and prevent hyperflexion of the spine.  They both commonly act to stabilize the IV discs. 

    • A.

      Anterior longitudinal, posterior longitudinal

    • B.

      Posterior longitudinal, anterior longitudinal

    • C.

      Intertransverse, interspinous

    • D.

      Interspinous, intertransverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior longitudinal, posterior longitudinal
    Explanation
    The anterior longitudinal ligament limits extension and prevents hyperextension of the spine, while the posterior longitudinal ligament limits flexion and prevents hyperflexion of the spine. Both ligaments commonly stabilize the intervertebral discs.

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  • 7. 

    All of the following ligaments of the spine limit flexion, EXCEPT: 

    • A.

      Interspinous

    • B.

      Supraspinous

    • C.

      Ligamenta flava

    • D.

      Anterior longitudinal

    Correct Answer
    D. Anterior longitudinal
    Explanation
    interspinous, supraspinous, ligamenta flava, intertransverse (prevents lateral flexion), posterior longitudinal, and ligamentum nuchae (prevents cervical hyperflexion) ALL LIMIT FLEXION

    ONLY ONE THAT LIMITS EXTENSION IS ANTERIOR LONGITUDINAL

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  • 8. 

    This ligament preserves the curvature of the vertebral column and protects the IV discs: 

    • A.

      Supraspinous

    • B.

      Ligamenta flava

    • C.

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • D.

      Interspinous

    Correct Answer
    B. Ligamenta flava
    Explanation
    The ligamenta flava is responsible for preserving the curvature of the vertebral column and protecting the intervertebral discs. It is a strong elastic ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae, helping to maintain the stability and flexibility of the spine. The supraspinous ligament runs along the posterior aspect of the vertebral column and provides additional support, but it does not specifically preserve the curvature or protect the intervertebral discs. The ligamentum nuchae is located in the neck and is not directly involved in preserving the curvature of the vertebral column. The interspinous ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae and also provides support, but it does not specifically preserve the curvature or protect the intervertebral discs.

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  • 9. 

    The ______ ligament arches across the ring of the atlas to keep the dens in place with the atlas, while the ____ ligament courses laterally from the dens to attach on the medial aspect of the occipital condyles. 

    • A.

      Cruciate, Check

    • B.

      Alar, Cruciate

    • C.

      Check, Alar

    • D.

      Cruciate, Cervical

    Correct Answer
    A. Cruciate, Check
    Explanation
    Alar ligament is also called the check ligament.

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  • 10. 

    The ______ gives the IV disc the ability to be both elastic and compressible, while the _______strengthens it. 

    • A.

      Annulus fibrosis, Nucleus pulposus

    • B.

      Nucleus pulposus, Annulus fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Nucleus pulposus, Annulus fibrosis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Nucleus pulposus, Annulus fibrosis. The nucleus pulposus is the inner gel-like substance within the intervertebral disc that provides elasticity and compressibility. On the other hand, the annulus fibrosis is the outer ring of fibrous tissue that surrounds the nucleus pulposus and strengthens the disc.

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  • 11. 

    This muscle functions to elevate the hyoid bone during speaking or swallowing and is innervated by CN V3. 

    • A.

      Anterior Digastric

    • B.

      Posterior Digastric

    • C.

      Omohyoid

    • D.

      Stylohyoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior Digastric
    Explanation
    The muscle that functions to elevate the hyoid bone during speaking or swallowing and is innervated by CN V3 is the Anterior Digastric.

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  • 12. 

    The infrahyoid muscles are innervated by ________ and receive their blood supply from _________. 

    • A.

      Ansa cervicalis, facial artery

    • B.

      Facial nerve, facial artery

    • C.

      Ansa cervicalis, superior thyroid artery

    • D.

      Facial nerve, superior thyroid artery

    Correct Answer
    C. Ansa cervicalis, superior thyroid artery
    Explanation
    The infrahyoid muscles are innervated by the ansa cervicalis, which is a nerve loop formed by branches of the cervical spinal nerves. They receive their blood supply from the superior thyroid artery, which is a branch of the external carotid artery.

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  • 13. 

    What are the contents of the carotid sheath? Check all that apply.

    • A.

      Internal Jugular Vein

    • B.

      Common carotid artery

    • C.

      Vagus nerve

    • D.

      Ansa cervicalis

    • E.

      Phrenic nerve

    • F.

      External Jugular Vein

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Internal Jugular Vein
    B. Common carotid artery
    C. Vagus nerve
    D. Ansa cervicalis
    Explanation
    "INC" from lateral to medial. N represents vagus nerve and ansa cervicalis.

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  • 14. 

    The cervical plexus consists of ______ spinal nerves.  The superior loop of the ansa cervicalis consists of ____ spinal nerves, while the inferior loop consists of ______ spinal nerves, 

    • A.

      C1-C4; C3; C2-C4

    • B.

      C3-C5; C2; C1-C3

    • C.

      C1-C4; C1; C2-C3

    • D.

      C1-C4; C2; C1-C3

    Correct Answer
    C. C1-C4; C1; C2-C3
    Explanation
    The cervical plexus consists of spinal nerves C1-C4. The superior loop of the ansa cervicalis consists of spinal nerve C1, while the inferior loop consists of spinal nerves C2-C3.

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  • 15. 

    The muscles of facial expression are innervated by _______, while the muscles of mastication are innervated by _____. 

    • A.

      CN V3, CN VII

    • B.

      CN VII, CN V3

    • C.

      CN VIII, CN V2

    • D.

      CN V2, CN VII

    Correct Answer
    B. CN VII, CN V3
    Explanation
    The facial expression muscles, such as those responsible for smiling or frowning, are innervated by CN VII (facial nerve). On the other hand, the muscles of mastication, which are involved in chewing, are innervated by CN V3 (mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve).

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  • 16. 

    Which salivary gland is innervated by CN IX?

    • A.

      Submandibular

    • B.

      Sublingual

    • C.

      Parotid

    • D.

      Lacrimal

    Correct Answer
    C. Parotid
    Explanation
    Submandibular and sublingual - CN VII
    Lacrimal - CN VII

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  • 17. 

    This endocrine gland is found at the level of C5-T1 and secretes hormones that play a role in protein synthesis and calcium absorption. 

    • A.

      Thyroid

    • B.

      Parotid

    • C.

      Adrenal

    • D.

      Salivary

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the thyroid gland. The thyroid gland is located at the level of C5-T1 and is responsible for secreting hormones that are involved in protein synthesis and calcium absorption. The parotid gland is a salivary gland that is not located in this region and does not secrete hormones related to protein synthesis and calcium absorption. The adrenal gland is located above the kidneys and is primarily responsible for producing hormones involved in stress response. The salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva and are not involved in protein synthesis or calcium absorption.

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  • 18. 

    The _______ provides blood to the muscles and structures superficial to the cranium and has several branches, while the _______ provides blood to the cranium and brain. 

    • A.

      Internal carotid, external carotid

    • B.

      Subclavian, internal carotid

    • C.

      External carotid, internal carotid

    • D.

      Internal jugular, external jugular

    Correct Answer
    C. External carotid, internal carotid
    Explanation
    The external carotid artery provides blood to the muscles and structures superficial to the cranium, while the internal carotid artery provides blood to the cranium and brain.

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  • 19. 

    The most inferior branch of the external carotid is the ________.  The most superior branch of the external carotid is the _______. 

    • A.

      Superior thyroid, superficial temporal

    • B.

      Ascending pharyngeal, superficial temporal

    • C.

      Superficial temporal, superior thyroid

    • D.

      Ascending pharyngeal, lingual

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior thyroid, superficial temporal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is superior thyroid, superficial temporal. The superior thyroid artery is the most inferior branch of the external carotid artery, while the superficial temporal artery is the most superior branch.

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  • 20. 

    The spinal cord is a continuation of the medulla oblongata that exits the skull through the _________ and ends at the level of _______, where the _______, a tapering of the spinal cord to a narrow, cone-shape is found. 

    • A.

      Foramen magnum, L1/L2, medullary cone

    • B.

      Jugular foramen, L1/L2, conus medullaris

    • C.

      Foramen magnum, L2/L3, medullary cone

    • D.

      Foramen magnum, L1/L2, cauda equina

    Correct Answer
    A. Foramen magnum, L1/L2, medullary cone
    Explanation
    The spinal cord is a continuation of the medulla oblongata that exits the skull through the foramen magnum and ends at the level of L1/L2, where the medullary cone, a tapering of the spinal cord to a narrow, cone-shape is found. The foramen magnum is the large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes. L1/L2 refers to the level of the spinal cord where it ends, which is between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. The medullary cone is the tapered end of the spinal cord.

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  • 21. 

    The most superficial of the meninges is the: 

    • A.

      Pia mater

    • B.

      Arachnoid mater

    • C.

      Dura mater

    • D.

      Filum terminale

    Correct Answer
    C. Dura mater
    Explanation
    The dura mater is the most superficial of the meninges. It is a thick, tough, and fibrous membrane that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. It is located just beneath the skull and vertebral column. The pia mater and arachnoid mater are located beneath the dura mater and are considered deeper layers of the meninges. The filum terminale is a slender filament that extends from the end of the spinal cord and is not directly related to the meninges.

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  • 22. 

    In a cross section of the spinal cord, the peripheral white portion consists of ________forming nerve tracts, and the central gray portion consists of ________. 

    • A.

      Axons, neuron cell bodies

    • B.

      Neuron cell bodies, axons

    Correct Answer
    A. Axons, neuron cell bodies
    Explanation
    In a cross section of the spinal cord, the peripheral white portion consists of axons forming nerve tracts, while the central gray portion consists of neuron cell bodies. This is because axons are responsible for transmitting signals from the neuron cell bodies to other parts of the body, and the white portion contains bundles of these axons. On the other hand, the gray portion contains the cell bodies of neurons, which are responsible for processing and integrating information.

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  • 23. 

    The anterior (ventral) horn of the spinal cord contains the cell bodies of _______, while the posterior (dorsal) horn of the spinal cord contains cell bodies of ________. 

    • A.

      Motor neurons, sensory neurons

    • B.

      Sensory neurons, motor neurons

    Correct Answer
    A. Motor neurons, sensory neurons
    Explanation
    The anterior (ventral) horn of the spinal cord contains the cell bodies of motor neurons, which are responsible for transmitting signals from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands. On the other hand, the posterior (dorsal) horn of the spinal cord contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons, which transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system.

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  • 24. 

    All but which cranial nerves associate at the brain stem?

    • A.

      CN I and CN III

    • B.

      CN II and CN IV

    • C.

      CN I and CN II

    • D.

      CN II and CN III

    Correct Answer
    C. CN I and CN II
    Explanation
    Cranial nerves I (olfactory nerve) and II (optic nerve) do not associate at the brain stem. Cranial nerves III (oculomotor nerve) and IV (trochlear nerve) both associate at the brain stem. Therefore, the correct answer is CN I and CN II.

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  • 25. 

    A pt comes into the ER with a cut above his left eyebrow. You decide the patient is going to need a few stitches and want to use a local anesthetic to ease the pain.  What nerve needs to be blocked in order for this to work?

    • A.

      CN V1

    • B.

      CN V2

    • C.

      CN V3

    • D.

      CN IX

    Correct Answer
    A. CN V1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CN V1. CN V1 refers to the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, which supplies sensory innervation to the area above the left eyebrow. Blocking this nerve with a local anesthetic would help to numb the area and alleviate the pain during the stitching procedure.

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  • 26. 

    _______ originates in the superior colliculus of the midbrain, which supplies the __________ fibers, and the ________ nucleus, which supplies the parasympathetic effect fibers. 

    • A.

      CN III, somatic efferent, Edinger-Westphal

    • B.

      CN IV, somatic efferent, Edinger-Westphal

    • C.

      CN III, somatic afferent, Edinger-Westphal

    • D.

      CN IV, somatic afferent, Edinger-Westphal

    Correct Answer
    A. CN III, somatic efferent, Edinger-Westphal
    Explanation
    CN III (oculomotor nerve) originates in the superior colliculus of the midbrain. It supplies somatic efferent fibers, which control the movement of the extraocular muscles. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus, also located in the midbrain, supplies parasympathetic effect fibers. These fibers control the constriction of the pupil and the accommodation of the lens for near vision. Therefore, the correct answer is CN III, somatic efferent, Edinger-Westphal.

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  • 27. 

    The __________ fibers of CN III go on to supply the sphincter pupillae of the iris and ciliary muscle of the ciliary body, while the ________ fibers go on to supply most of the extraocular muscles. 

    • A.

      Parasympathetic efferent, somatic efferent

    • B.

      Somatic efferent, parasympathetic efferent

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasympathetic efferent, somatic efferent
    Explanation
    The parasympathetic efferent fibers of CN III supply the sphincter pupillae of the iris and the ciliary muscle of the ciliary body. These fibers are responsible for constriction of the pupil and accommodation of the lens for near vision. On the other hand, the somatic efferent fibers of CN III supply most of the extraocular muscles. These muscles control the movement of the eye, including elevation, depression, adduction, and abduction.

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  • 28. 

    The cochlear portion of CN VIII is responsive to the inner hair cells of organ of Corti, while the vestibular portion is responsive to the vestibular system of inner ear (semicircular canals, utricle, sacule). 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The cochlear portion of CN VIII is responsible for transmitting auditory information from the inner hair cells of the organ of Corti to the brain. This portion is involved in hearing. On the other hand, the vestibular portion of CN VIII is responsible for transmitting information related to balance and spatial orientation from the vestibular system of the inner ear, which includes the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule. Therefore, the statement that the cochlear portion is responsive to the inner hair cells of the organ of Corti and the vestibular portion is responsive to the vestibular system is true.

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  • 29. 

    The majority of spinal cord injuries are a result from road-traffic accidents. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Followed by domestic and industrial accidents.

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  • 30. 

    The dorsal nuclei of CN X supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the ________, the nucleus ambiguous of CN X supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the ______, and the solitary nucleus supplies the afferents of_________. 

    • A.

      Heart; GI; Taste & Visceral organs

    • B.

      GI; Heart; Taste & Visceral organs

    • C.

      Taste & Visceral organs; GI; Heart

    • D.

      GI; Taste & Visceral organs; Heart

    Correct Answer
    B. GI; Heart; Taste & Visceral organs
    Explanation
    The dorsal nuclei of CN X supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the GI (gastrointestinal) system, the nucleus ambiguous of CN X supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the heart, and the solitary nucleus supplies the afferents (sensory input) of taste and visceral organs.

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  • 31. 

    This artery is a branch of the subclavian and passes through the transverse foramen and the foramen magnum into the skull, where two branches converge to form the basilar artery. 

    • A.

      Vertebral

    • B.

      Internal Carotid

    • C.

      External Carotid

    • D.

      Middle cerebral

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertebral
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Vertebral. The vertebral artery is a branch of the subclavian artery and it passes through the transverse foramen and the foramen magnum into the skull. Inside the skull, two branches of the vertebral artery come together to form the basilar artery.

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  • 32. 

    A(n) _________ stroke is a type of _______ stroke that results in the spilling of blood into cerebral tissue, causing deprivation to tissues upstream of the ruptured blood vessel. 

    • A.

      Intracerebral, hemorrhagic

    • B.

      Embolic, ischemic

    • C.

      Subarachnoid, hemorrhagic

    • D.

      TIA, ischemic

    Correct Answer
    A. Intracerebral, hemorrhagic
    Explanation
    An intracerebral stroke is a type of hemorrhagic stroke that results in the spilling of blood into cerebral tissue, causing deprivation to tissues upstream of the ruptured blood vessel.

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  • 33. 

    A(n) _______ stroke is a type of ______ stroke that results in sudden and severe headaches caused by the spilling of blood into the subarachnoid space. 

    • A.

      Subarachnoid, hemorrhagic

    • B.

      Intracerebral, hemorrhagic

    • C.

      Embolic, hemorrhagic

    • D.

      Thrombolic, ischemic

    Correct Answer
    A. Subarachnoid, hemorrhagic
    Explanation
    A subarachnoid stroke is a type of hemorrhagic stroke that results in sudden and severe headaches caused by the spilling of blood into the subarachnoid space.

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  • 34. 

    All of the following nerves are associated with the eye EXCEPT

    • A.

      CN II

    • B.

      CN IV

    • C.

      CN VI

    • D.

      CN III

    • E.

      CN VIII

    Correct Answer
    E. CN VIII
    Explanation
    CN II - visual impulses
    CN VI - Lateral Rectus and sensory info to brain
    CN III - medial, inferior and superior rectus and inferior oblique
    CN IV - Superior oblique

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  • 35. 

    Irregularities of what part of the eye is associated with astigmatism?

    • A.

      Choroid

    • B.

      Cornea

    • C.

      Iris

    • D.

      Macula lutea

    Correct Answer
    B. Cornea
    Explanation
    Astigmatism is a refractive error that occurs when the cornea, the clear front surface of the eye, is irregularly shaped. This irregularity causes light to focus on multiple points instead of a single point on the retina, resulting in blurred or distorted vision. The cornea plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina, and any irregularities in its shape can lead to astigmatism. The other parts of the eye mentioned, such as the choroid, iris, and macula lutea, do not directly contribute to the development of astigmatism.

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  • 36. 

    This portion of the eye contains the fovea centralis, which is the highest point of focus in the eye. 

    • A.

      Macula Lutea

    • B.

      Retina

    • C.

      Choroid

    • D.

      Sclera

    Correct Answer
    A. Macula Lutea
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Macula Lutea. The macula lutea is a small, yellowish area located at the center of the retina. It contains the fovea centralis, which is responsible for the sharpest vision and highest point of focus in the eye. The macula lutea plays a crucial role in tasks that require detailed vision, such as reading and recognizing faces.

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  • 37. 

    All of the following originate from the nuchal ligament, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Trapezius

    • B.

      Rhomboid Major

    • C.

      Rhomboid Minor

    • D.

      Serratus Posterior Superior

    • E.

      Splenius Capitis

    Correct Answer
    B. Rhomboid Major
    Explanation
    All of the muscles listed are derived from the nuchal ligament except for the rhomboid major. The nuchal ligament is a strong band of connective tissue that runs along the back of the neck, providing support and stability. The trapezius, rhomboid minor, serratus posterior superior, and splenius capitis all have attachments to the nuchal ligament, allowing them to contribute to the movement and stabilization of the neck and upper back. However, the rhomboid major does not have any direct attachment to the nuchal ligament. Instead, it originates from the spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae and inserts into the medial border of the scapula.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following insert on the mastoid process, EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • B.

      Longissimus

    • C.

      Splenius Capitis

    • D.

      Splenius Cervicis

    Correct Answer
    D. Splenius Cervicis
    Explanation
    The mastoid process is a bony prominence located behind the ear. It serves as an attachment site for several muscles involved in head and neck movement. The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the mastoid process, helping to rotate and flex the head. The Longissimus muscle also inserts on the mastoid process, aiding in head extension and rotation. The Splenius Capitis muscle attaches to the mastoid process, assisting in head and neck extension and rotation. However, the Splenius Cervicis muscle does not insert on the mastoid process. Instead, it attaches to the transverse processes of the upper cervical vertebrae.

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  • 39. 

    The meningeal layer of dura mater may separate from the _______ layer, creating _________, known as falx cerebri, falx cerebeli, and tentorium cerebelli. 

    • A.

      Cerebral, dural infoldings

    • B.

      Periosteal, dural infoldings

    • C.

      Parietal, pia mater

    • D.

      Frontal, pia mater

    Correct Answer
    B. Periosteal, dural infoldings
    Explanation
    The meningeal layer of the dura mater is a tough, fibrous membrane that surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. It is composed of two layers - the periosteal layer and the meningeal layer. The periosteal layer is the outermost layer of the dura mater, while the meningeal layer is the innermost layer. In certain areas, such as the falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, and tentorium cerebelli, the meningeal layer may separate from the periosteal layer, creating dural infoldings. These dural infoldings provide additional support and stabilization for the brain within the skull.

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  • 40. 

    ________ is the nervous system's response to an increase in cranial pressure, leading to ______, widening of pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.

    • A.

      Cushing's Reflex, Cushing's Triad

    • B.

      Cushing's Traid, Cushing's Reflex

    Correct Answer
    A. Cushing's Reflex, Cushing's Triad
    Explanation
    Cushing's Reflex is the nervous system's response to an increase in cranial pressure, leading to Cushing's Triad. Cushing's Triad is characterized by widening of pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.

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  • 41. 

    _________ of the midbrain controls movement of head and neck in response to visual stimuli, while the ______ controls movement of head and neck in response to auditory stimuli. 

    • A.

      Superior colliculus, inferior colliculus

    • B.

      Inferior colliculus, superior colliculus

    Correct Answer
    A. Superior colliculus, inferior colliculus
    Explanation
    The superior colliculus of the midbrain controls movement of the head and neck in response to visual stimuli. This means that when our eyes detect something visually stimulating, the superior colliculus coordinates the movement of our head and neck to focus on that stimulus. On the other hand, the inferior colliculus controls movement of the head and neck in response to auditory stimuli. This means that when we hear a sound that grabs our attention, the inferior colliculus coordinates the movement of our head and neck to orient towards the source of the sound.

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  • 42. 

    BONUS! What is the largest bone in the leg?

    Correct Answer
    tibia
    femur
    huh?
    Explanation
    The tibia and femur are both bones in the leg, while "huh?" is not a bone. The tibia, also known as the shinbone, is located on the inner side of the leg and is the second largest bone in the body. The femur, also known as the thigh bone, is the largest bone in the body and is located in the upper leg.

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  • 43. 

    Focusing on a near object, the ciliary muscles ______ while the suspensory ligaments ______.

    • A.

      Contract, relax

    • B.

      Relax, contract

    • C.

      Contract, contract

    • D.

      Relax, relax

    Correct Answer
    A. Contract, relax
    Explanation
    This creates a wider/fatter lens.

    Focusing on far object will relax the ciliary muscle and tense the suspensory ligaments creating a flatter lens.

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