Anatomy Final Pt 2
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A 22-year-old man presented to his family physician with a laceration of the fi brous sheets or bands that cover his body under the skin and invest the muscles. Which of the following structures would most likely be injured?
- A.
Tendon
- B.
Facia
- C.
Synovial tendon sheath
- D.
Aponeurosis
- E.
Ligament
Correct Answer
B. FaciaExplanation
The correct answer is Facia. The fibrous sheets or bands that cover the body under the skin and invest the muscles are called fascia. If a person has a laceration in this area, it is most likely that the fascia would be injured.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A 46-year-old male patient with high blood pressure was examined in the emergency department, and his physician found a leakage of blood from the blood vessel that normally carries richly oxygenated blood. Which of the following vessels would most likely be damaged?
- A.
Superior vena cava
- B.
Pulmonary arteries
- C.
Pulmonary veins
- D.
Portal vein
- E.
Coronary sinus
Correct Answer
C. Pulmonary veinsExplanation
The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. In a healthy individual, these veins should not have any leakage of blood. Therefore, if a leakage of blood is found in a patient, it suggests that the pulmonary veins are damaged. This is the most likely vessel to be damaged in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A 33-year-old male patient complains of feeling severe pain when he tries to turn his neck. A physician realizes that the problem is in his pivot (trochoid) joint. Which of the following joints would most likely be examined?
- A.
Atlantooccipital joint
- B.
Atlantoaxial joint
- C.
Carpometacarpal joint
- D.
Proximal tibiofi bular joint
- E.
Intervertebral disks
Correct Answer
B. Atlantoaxial jointExplanation
The physician would most likely examine the Atlantoaxial joint. The patient's complaint of severe pain when turning his neck suggests a problem with the joint responsible for rotation between the atlas (C1) and axis (C2) vertebrae, which is the Atlantoaxial joint. This joint allows for the majority of rotational movement in the neck, and dysfunction or injury in this area can cause severe pain and limited range of motion.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A 21-year-old patient has a lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Erb– Duchenne paralysis). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.
Paralysis of the rhomboid major
- B.
Inability to elevate the arm above the horizontal Inability to elevate the arm above the horizontal Inability to elevate the arm above the horizontal Inability to elevate the arm above the horizontal Inability to elevate the arm above the horizontal
- C.
Arm tending to lie in medial rotation
- D.
Loss of sensation on the medial side of the arm
- E.
Inability to adduct the thumb
Correct Answer
C. Arm tending to lie in medial rotationExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 21-year-old patient with a lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Erb-Duchenne paralysis) is an arm tending to lie in medial rotation. This is because the upper trunk of the brachial plexus innervates the muscles responsible for external rotation of the arm, and when this is affected, the unopposed action of the internal rotators causes the arm to lie in a medial rotation position.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A patient comes in with a gunshot wound and requires surgery in which his thoracoacromial trunk needs to be ligated. Which of the following arterial branches would maintain normal blood fl ow?
- A.
Acromial
- B.
Pectoral
- C.
Clavicular
- D.
Deltoid
- E.
Superior thoracic
Correct Answer
E. Superior thoracicExplanation
The superior thoracic artery would maintain normal blood flow if the thoracoacromial trunk is ligated during surgery. The thoracoacromial trunk is a major branch of the axillary artery, and it gives rise to several arteries including the acromial, pectoral, clavicular, and deltoid arteries. Ligation of the thoracoacromial trunk would cut off blood supply to these branches, but the superior thoracic artery, which is a separate branch of the axillary artery, would still provide blood flow to the area.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 27-year-old patient presents with an inability to draw the scapula forward and downward because of paralysis of the pectoralis minor. Which of the following would most likely be a cause of his condition?
- A.
Fracture of the clavicle
- B.
Injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus
- C.
Fracture of the coracoid process
- D.
Axillary nerve injury
- E.
Defects in the posterior wall of the Axilla
Correct Answer
C. Fracture of the coracoid processExplanation
Paralysis of the pectoralis minor, which is responsible for drawing the scapula forward and downward, is most likely caused by a fracture of the coracoid process. The coracoid process is a bony projection of the scapula that serves as an attachment site for the pectoralis minor muscle. If the coracoid process is fractured, it can disrupt the attachment of the pectoralis minor, leading to paralysis of the muscle and the inability to draw the scapula forward and downward.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A 22-year-old patient received a stab wound in the chest that injured the intercostobrachial nerve. Which of the following conditions results from the described lesion of the nerve?
- A.
Inability to move the ribs
- B.
Loss of tactile sensation on the lateral aspect of the arm
- C.
Absence of sweating on the posterior aspect of the arm
- D.
Loss of sensory fi bers from the second intercostal nerve
- E.
Damage to the sympathetic preganglionic fibers
Correct Answer
D. Loss of sensory fi bers from the second intercostal nerveExplanation
The intercostobrachial nerve is responsible for providing sensory fibers to the lateral aspect of the arm. Therefore, if this nerve is injured, it would result in a loss of tactile sensation on the lateral aspect of the arm. The other options are not related to the intercostobrachial nerve and are not consistent with the described lesion.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A 16 year-old boy fell from a motorcycle, and his radial nerve was severely damaged because of a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus. Which of the following conditions would most likely result from this accident?
- A.
Loss of wrist extension leading to wrist drop
- B.
Weakness in pronating the forearm
- C.
Sensory loss over the ventral aspect of the base of the thumb
- D.
Inability to oppose the thumb
- E.
Inability to abduct the fi ngers
Correct Answer
A. Loss of wrist extension leading to wrist dropExplanation
The radial nerve innervates the muscles responsible for wrist extension. In this case, the severe damage to the radial nerve due to the fracture of the midshaft of the humerus would result in the loss of function of these muscles. This loss of wrist extension leads to a condition called wrist drop, where the wrist cannot be extended and hangs in a flexed position. Therefore, the most likely result from this accident would be the loss of wrist extension leading to wrist drop.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A patient comes in complaining that she cannot fl ex her proximal interphalangeal joints. Which of the following muscles appear(s) to be paralyzed on further examination of her fi nger?
- A.
Palmar interossei
- B.
Dorsal interossei
- C.
Flexor digitorum profundus
- D.
Flexor digitorum superficialis
- E.
Lumbricals
Correct Answer
D. Flexor digitorum superficialisExplanation
The patient's inability to flex her proximal interphalangeal joints suggests a paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle. This muscle is responsible for flexing the middle phalanges of the fingers, which allows for flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints. The other muscles listed, such as the palmar interossei, dorsal interossei, flexor digitorum profundus, and lumbricals, are not directly involved in flexing the proximal interphalangeal joints.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A 21-year-old woman walks in with a shoulder and arm injury after falling during horseback riding. Examination indicates that she cannot adduct her arm because of paralysis of which of the following muscles?
- A.
Teres Minor
- B.
Suoraspinatus
- C.
Latissmus Dorsi
- D.
Infraspinatus
- E.
Serratus anterior
Correct Answer
C. Latissmus DorsiExplanation
The correct answer is Latissimus Dorsi. The patient's inability to adduct her arm suggests paralysis of the Latissimus Dorsi muscle. The Latissimus Dorsi muscle is responsible for adducting and extending the arm at the shoulder joint. If this muscle is paralyzed, it would result in the inability to bring the arm towards the midline of the body.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A 14-year-old boy falls on his outstretched hand and has a fracture of the scaphoid bone. The fracture is most likely accompanied by a rupture of which of the following arteries?
- A.
Branchial artery
- B.
Ulnar artery
- C.
Deep Palmar arterial arch
- D.
Radial Artery
- E.
Princeps pollicis artery
Correct Answer
D. Radial ArteryExplanation
When a 14-year-old boy falls on his outstretched hand and fractures his scaphoid bone, the fracture is most likely accompanied by a rupture of the radial artery. The scaphoid bone is located in the wrist, and the radial artery runs along the thumb side of the forearm and wrist. A fracture in this area can cause damage to the radial artery, leading to bleeding and potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A 35-year-old man walks in with a stab wound to the most medial side of the proximal portion of the cubital fossa. Which of the following structures would most likely be damaged?
- A.
Biceps Brachii tendon
- B.
Radial nerve
- C.
Branchial artery
- D.
Radial recurrent artery
- E.
Median nerve
Correct Answer
E. Median nerveExplanation
The most likely structure to be damaged in this scenario is the median nerve. The question mentions a stab wound to the most medial side of the proximal portion of the cubital fossa. The cubital fossa is located on the anterior aspect of the elbow, and the median nerve runs through this region. Therefore, a stab wound in this area could potentially injure the median nerve.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A 12-year-old boy walks in; he fell out of a tree and fractured the upper portion of his humerus. Which of the following nerves are intimately related to the humerus and are most likely to be injured by such a fracture?
- A.
Axillary and musculocutaneous
- B.
Radial and ulnar
- C.
Radial and axillary
- D.
Median and musculocutaneous
- E.
Median and ulnar
Correct Answer
C. Radial and axillaryExplanation
The humerus is located in the upper arm, and the nerves that are most closely related to this bone are the radial and axillary nerves. Therefore, a fracture of the upper portion of the humerus is most likely to injure these nerves.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A man injures his wrist on broken glass. Which of the following structures entering the palm superfi cial to the fl exor retinaculum may be damaged?
- A.
Ulnar nerve and median nerve
- B.
Median nerve and fl exor digitorum profundus
- C.
Median nerve and fl exor pollicis longus
- D.
Ulnar artery and ulnar nerve
- E.
Ulnar nerve and fl exor digitorum superfi Cialis
Correct Answer
D. Ulnar artery and ulnar nerveExplanation
The ulnar artery and ulnar nerve are the structures that enter the palm superficial to the flexor retinaculum. Injuring the wrist on broken glass can potentially damage these structures. The other options mentioned do not enter the palm superficial to the flexor retinaculum and therefore would not be affected in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Use this to answer ques 15-19 A 62-year-old woman slips and falls on the bathroom fl oor. As a result, she has a posterior dislocation of the hip joint and a fracture of the neck of the femur 15 Rupture of the ligamentum teres capitis femoris may lead to damage to a branch of which of the following arteries?
- A.
Medial circumflex femoral
- B.
Lateral circumflex femoral
- C.
Obtruator
- D.
Superior gluteal
- E.
Inferior gluteal
Correct Answer
C. ObtruatorExplanation
The rupture of the ligamentum teres capitis femoris may lead to damage to the obturator artery. The obturator artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery and supplies blood to the muscles and structures in the medial compartment of the thigh, including the hip joint. Damage to this artery can result in compromised blood supply to the affected area, leading to ischemia and potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Fracture of the neck of the femur results in avascular necrosis of the femoral head, probably resulting from lack of blood supply from which of the following arteries?
- A.
Obturator
- B.
Superior Gluteal
- C.
Inferior gluteal
- D.
Medial femoral circumflex
- E.
Lateral femoral circumflex
Correct Answer
D. Medial femoral circumflexExplanation
Fracture of the neck of the femur can lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, which is caused by a lack of blood supply. The blood supply to the femoral head is mainly provided by the medial femoral circumflex artery. When the neck of the femur is fractured, it can disrupt the blood flow through this artery, resulting in avascular necrosis. Therefore, the fracture of the neck of the femur can lead to avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to the lack of blood supply from the medial femoral circumflex artery.Rate this question:
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- 17.
If the acetabulum is fractured at its posterosuperior margin by dislocation of the hip joint, which of the following bones could be involved?
- A.
Pubis
- B.
Ischium
- C.
Illium
- D.
Sacrum
- E.
Head of the femur
Correct Answer
C. IlliumExplanation
If the acetabulum is fractured at its posterosuperior margin by dislocation of the hip joint, the bone that could be involved is the ilium. The ilium is one of the three bones that make up the acetabulum, along with the ischium and pubis. A fracture in this region can occur due to a traumatic injury or dislocation of the hip joint, which can result in damage to the ilium bone. The other options, including the pubis, ischium, sacrum, and head of the femur, are not directly involved in the formation of the acetabulum and are less likely to be affected by this specific type of fracture.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The woman experiences weakness when abducting and medially rotating the thigh after this accident. Which of the following muscles is most likely damaged?
- A.
Piriformis
- B.
Obturator internus
- C.
Quadratus femoris
- D.
Gluteaus Maximus
- E.
Gluteaus Minimus
Correct Answer
E. Gluteaus MinimusExplanation
The woman experiences weakness when abducting and medially rotating the thigh after the accident. The gluteus minimus muscle is most likely damaged because it is responsible for these movements.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The woman undergoes hip surgery. If all of the arteries that are part of the cruciate anastomosis of the upper thigh are ligated, which of the following arteries maintains blood fl ow?
- A.
Medial femoral circumflex
- B.
Lateral femoral circumfl ex
- C.
Superior gluteal
- D.
Inferior gluteal
- E.
First perforating
Correct Answer
C. Superior glutealExplanation
The superior gluteal artery maintains blood flow in the upper thigh if all of the arteries that are part of the cruciate anastomosis are ligated.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A 17-year-old boy with a stab wound received multiple injuries on the upper part of the arm and required surgery. If the brachial artery were ligated at its origin, which of the following arteries would supply blood to the profunda brachii artery?
- A.
Lateral thoracic
- B.
Subscapular
- C.
Posterior humeral circumfl ex
- D.
Superior ulnar collateral
- E.
Radial recurrent
Correct Answer
C. Posterior humeral circumfl exExplanation
If the brachial artery is ligated at its origin, the blood supply to the profunda brachii artery would be provided by the posterior humeral circumflex artery.Rate this question:
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- 21.
An 18-year-old boy involved in an automobile accident presents with arm that cannot abduct. His paralysis is caused by damage to which of the following nerves?
- A.
Suprascapular and axillary
- B.
Musculocutaneous and median
- C.
Axillary and radial
- D.
Radial and musculocutaneous
- E.
Median and ulnar
Correct Answer
A. Suprascapular and axillaryExplanation
The correct answer is Suprascapular and axillary. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for shoulder abduction. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, which also contributes to shoulder abduction. Damage to both of these nerves would result in the inability to abduct the arm. Musculocutaneous and median nerves innervate muscles of the forearm, not the shoulder. Axillary and radial nerves innervate different muscles in the arm and do not control shoulder abduction. Median and ulnar nerves innervate muscles of the hand, not the shoulder.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A 38-year-old homebuilder was involved in an accident and is unable to supinate his forearm. Which of the following nerves are most likely damaged?
- A.
Suprascapular and axillary
- B.
Musculocutaneous and median
- C.
Axillary and radial
- D.
Radial and musculocutaneous
- E.
Median and ulnar
Correct Answer
D. Radial and musculocutaneousExplanation
The radial nerve innervates the muscles responsible for forearm supination, while the musculocutaneous nerve innervates the muscles responsible for elbow flexion. Therefore, damage to both the radial and musculocutaneous nerves would result in the inability to supinate the forearm.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A 31-year-old patient complains of sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial third of the hand and the medial one and one-half fi ngers. He is diagnosed by a physician as having “funny bone” symptoms. Which of the following nerves is injured?
- A.
Axillary
- B.
Radial
- C.
Median
- D.
Ulnar
- E.
Musculocutaneous
Correct Answer
D. UlnarExplanation
The ulnar nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the medial third of the hand and the medial one and one-half fingers. This nerve is commonly referred to as the "funny bone" nerve because it can be easily irritated or injured, leading to symptoms such as sensory loss in the described areas.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A 23-year-old woman who receives a deep cut to her ring fi nger by a kitchen knife is unable to move the metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following pairs of nerves was damaged?
- A.
Median & Ulna
- B.
Radial and median
- C.
Musculocutaneous and ulnar
- D.
Ulnar and radial
- E.
Radial and axillary
Correct Answer
D. Ulnar and radialExplanation
The ulnar and radial nerves were likely damaged because the woman is unable to move the metacarpophalangeal joint of her ring finger. The ulnar nerve innervates the muscles responsible for flexing the ring finger, while the radial nerve innervates the muscles responsible for extending the finger. Damage to both nerves would result in the inability to move the joint.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A patient has a torn rotator cuff of the shoulder joint as the result of an automobile accident. Which of the following muscle tendons is intact and has normal function?
- A.
Supraspinatus
- B.
Subscapularis
- C.
Teres major
- D.
Teres minoor
- E.
Infraspinatus
Correct Answer
C. Teres majorExplanation
The teres major muscle tendon is intact and has normal function in a patient with a torn rotator cuff of the shoulder joint as a result of an automobile accident. This is because the teres major muscle is not part of the rotator cuff muscles. The rotator cuff muscles include the supraspinatus, subscapularis, infraspinatus, and teres minor.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A 27-year-old man with cubital tunnel syndrome complains of numbness and tingling in the ring and little fi nger and back and sides of his hand because of damage to a nerve in the tunnel at the elbow. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be paralyzed?
- A.
Flexor digitorum superficialis
- B.
Opponens Pollicis
- C.
Two medial Lumbricals
- D.
Pronator teres
- E.
Supinator
Correct Answer
C. Two medial LumbricalsExplanation
The two medial lumbrical muscles are most likely to be paralyzed in a 27-year-old man with cubital tunnel syndrome. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by compression or irritation of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, which can result in numbness and tingling in the ring and little finger and the back and sides of the hand. The ulnar nerve innervates the two medial lumbrical muscles, which are responsible for flexing the metacarpophalangeal joints and extending the interphalangeal joints of the ring and little fingers. Therefore, damage to the ulnar nerve in the cubital tunnel can lead to paralysis of these muscles.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A patient bleeding from the shoulder secondary to a knife wound is in fair condition because there is vascular anastomosis around the shoulder. Which of the following arteries is most likely a direct branch of the subclavian artery that is involved in the anastomosis? (A) Dorsal scapular artery (B) Thoracoacromial artery (C) Circumfl ex scapular artery (D) Transverse cervical artery (E) Suprascapular artery
- A.
Dorsal scapular artery
- B.
Thoracoacromial artery
- C.
Circumflex Scapular artery
- D.
Transverse cervical artery
- E.
Suprascapular artery
Correct Answer
A. Dorsal scapular arteryExplanation
The correct answer is the Dorsal scapular artery. The patient is in fair condition because there is vascular anastomosis around the shoulder. The Dorsal scapular artery is a direct branch of the subclavian artery and is involved in the anastomosis. This artery helps to provide a collateral blood supply to the shoulder region, allowing for adequate blood flow even if there is bleeding from the shoulder due to a knife wound.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A 31-year-old roofer walks in with tenosynovitis resulting from a deep penetrated wound in the palm by a big nail. Examination indicates that he has an infection in the ulnar bursa. This infection most likely resulted in necrosis of which of the following tendons?
- A.
Tendon of the flexor carpi ulnaris
- B.
Tendon of the flexor pollicis longus
- C.
Tendon of the flexor digitorum profundus
- D.
Tendon of the flexor carpi radialis
- E.
Tendon of the palmaris longus
Correct Answer
C. Tendon of the flexor digitorum profundusExplanation
The infection in the ulnar bursa can lead to necrosis of the tendon of the flexor digitorum profundus. This is because the flexor digitorum profundus tendon runs through the ulnar bursa, and an infection in the bursa can spread to the tendon, causing tissue death (necrosis).Rate this question:
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- 29.
A man is unable to hold typing paper between his index and middle fi ngers. Which of the following nerves was likely injured?
- A.
Radial nerve
- B.
Median nerve
- C.
Ulnar nerve
- D.
Musculocutaneous nerve
- E.
Axillary nerve
Correct Answer
C. Ulnar nerveExplanation
The ulnar nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles that control the movements of the fingers and hand. It specifically controls the muscles that allow for the adduction and abduction of the fingers. In this scenario, the man is unable to hold the typing paper between his index and middle fingers, indicating a loss of adduction function. This suggests that the ulnar nerve, which controls the adductor muscles, is likely injured.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Questions 30–34: A 20-year-old college student receives a severe blow on the inferolateral side of the left knee joint while playing football. Radiographic examination reveals a fracture of the head and neck of the fi bula. 30. Which of the following nerves is damaged?
- A.
Sciatic
- B.
Tibial
- C.
Common peroneal
- D.
Deep peroneal
- E.
Superficial Peroneal
Correct Answer
C. Common peronealExplanation
The common peroneal nerve is most likely damaged in this scenario because it innervates the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg, which includes the muscles that dorsiflex the foot and extend the toes. Fractures of the head and neck of the fibula can result in compression or stretching of the common peroneal nerve, leading to motor and sensory deficits in the lower leg and foot. The other nerves listed do not innervate the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg and are less likely to be affected by this specific injury.Rate this question:
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- 31.
After injury to this nerve, which of the following muscles could be paralyzed?
- A.
Gastrocnemius
- B.
Popliteus
- C.
Extensor hallucis longus
- D.
Flexor digitorum longus
- E.
Tibialis posterior
Correct Answer
C. Extensor hallucis longusExplanation
After injury to the nerve mentioned, the Extensor hallucis longus muscle could be paralyzed.Rate this question:
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- 32.
If the lateral (fibular) collateral ligament is torn by this fracture, which of the following conditions may occur?
- A.
Abnormal passive abduction of the extended leg
- B.
Abnormal passive adduction of the extended leg
- C.
Anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia
- D.
Posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia
Correct Answer
B. Abnormal passive adduction of the extended legExplanation
If the lateral (fibular) collateral ligament is torn by this fracture, it would result in a loss of stability on the lateral side of the knee joint. This would lead to abnormal passive adduction of the extended leg, where the leg moves inward towards the midline of the body. This occurs because the torn ligament can no longer provide the necessary support to prevent this inward movement.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following arteries could also be damaged by this fracture?
- A.
Popliteal
- B.
Posterior tibial
- C.
Anterior tibial
- D.
Peroneal
- E.
Lateral inferior genicular
Correct Answer
C. Anterior tibialExplanation
The fracture mentioned in the question could potentially damage the anterior tibial artery.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following conditions would occur from this fracture?
- A.
Ischemia in the gastrocnemius
- B.
Loss of plantar flexion
- C.
Trendelenburg’s sign
- D.
Anterior tibial compartment syndrome
- E.
Flat foot
Correct Answer
D. Anterior tibial compartment syndromeExplanation
Anterior tibial compartment syndrome would occur from this fracture.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A 47-year-old woman is unable to invert her foot after she stumbled on her driveway. Which of the following nerves are most likely injured?
- A.
Superfi cial and deep peroneal
- B.
Deep peroneal and tibial
- C.
Superfi cial peroneal and tibial
- D.
Medial and lateral plantar
- E.
Obturator and tibial
Correct Answer
B. Deep peroneal and tibialExplanation
The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, which is the ability to invert the foot. The tibial nerve is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot. In this case, the woman is unable to invert her foot, suggesting that the deep peroneal nerve is injured. The tibial nerve may also be injured, as it is involved in the same movement.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A patient with a deep knife wound in the buttock walks with a waddling gait that is characterized by the pelvis falling toward one side at each step. Which of the following nerves is damaged?
- A.
Obturator nerve
- B.
Nerve to obturator internus
- C.
Superior gluteal nerve
- D.
Inferior gluteal nerve
- E.
Femoral nerve
Correct Answer
C. Superior gluteal nerveExplanation
The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles. These muscles help to stabilize the pelvis during walking and maintain a level pelvis. If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the gluteus medius and minimus muscles will be weakened or paralyzed, causing the pelvis to fall toward the unaffected side during walking. This results in a waddling gait, as described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A patient presents with sensory loss on adjacent sides of the great and second toes and impaired dorsifl exion of the foot. These signs probably indicate damage to which of the following nerves?
- A.
Superficial peroneal
- B.
Lateral plantar
- C.
Deep peroneal
- D.
Sural
- E.
Tibial
Correct Answer
C. Deep peronealExplanation
The patient's symptoms of sensory loss on adjacent sides of the great and second toes and impaired dorsiflexion of the foot indicate damage to the deep peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal nerve innervates the muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot and also provides sensory innervation to the adjacent sides of the great and second toes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A 52-year-old woman slipped and fell and now complains of being unable to extend her leg at the knee joint. Which of the following muscles was paralyzed as a result of this accident?
- A.
Semitendinosus
- B.
Sartorius
- C.
Gracilis
- D.
Quadriceps femoris
- E.
Iceps femoris
Correct Answer
D. Quadriceps femorisExplanation
The correct answer is Quadriceps femoris. The quadriceps femoris is responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint. If this muscle is paralyzed, the person would be unable to extend their leg at the knee joint, which aligns with the woman's complaint after slipping and falling.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A knife wound penetrates the superfi cial vein that terminates in the popliteal vein. Bleeding occurs from which of the following vessels?
- A.
Posterior tibial vein
- B.
Anterior tibial vein
- C.
Peroneal vein
- D.
Great saphenous vein
- E.
Lesser saphenous vein
Correct Answer
E. Lesser saphenous veinExplanation
The correct answer is the lesser saphenous vein. In this scenario, the superficial vein that is penetrated is the one that terminates in the popliteal vein. Among the options provided, the only vein that terminates in the popliteal vein is the lesser saphenous vein. Therefore, bleeding would occur from the lesser saphenous vein.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A patient experiences paralysis of the muscle that originates from the femur and contributes directly to the stability of the knee joint. Which of the following muscles is involved?
- A.
Vastus larealis
- B.
Semimembranous
- C.
Sartorius
- D.
Biceps femoris (long head)
- E.
Rectus femoris
Correct Answer
A. Vastus larealisExplanation
The correct answer is Vastus lateralis. The question states that the muscle originates from the femur and contributes directly to the stability of the knee joint. The Vastus lateralis muscle meets both of these criteria. It originates from the femur and is one of the four muscles that make up the quadriceps muscle group, which is responsible for extending the knee joint and providing stability.Rate this question:
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- 41.
42. A 24-year-old woman complains of weakness when she extends her thigh and rotates it laterally. Which of the following muscles is paralyzed?
- A.
Obturator externus
- B.
Sartorius
- C.
Tensor fasciae latate
- D.
Gluteus maximus
- E.
Semitendinosus
Correct Answer
D. Gluteus maximusExplanation
The gluteus maximus is responsible for extending the thigh and rotating it laterally. If this muscle is paralyzed, it would result in weakness in these movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Gluteus maximus.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A patient with hereditary blood clotting problems presents with pain in the back of her knee. An arteriogram reveals a blood clot in the popliteal artery at its proximal end. Which of the following arteries will allow blood to reach the foot?
- A.
Anterior tibial
- B.
Posterior tibial
- C.
Peroneal
- D.
Lateral circumflex femoral
- E.
Superior medial genicular
Correct Answer
D. Lateral circumflex femoralExplanation
The lateral circumflex femoral artery is the correct answer because it is not affected by the blood clot in the popliteal artery. It is a branch of the deep femoral artery and supplies blood to the lateral thigh. Since it is not dependent on the popliteal artery for blood flow, it can still provide blood to the foot despite the clot. The other arteries listed, such as the anterior tibial, posterior tibial, peroneal, and superior medial genicular arteries, are all branches of the popliteal artery and would be affected by the clot, limiting blood flow to the foot.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A 72-year-old woman complains of a cramp-like pain in her thigh and leg. She was diagnosed as having a severe intermittent claudication. Following surgery, an infection was found in the adductor canal, damaging the enclosed structures. Which of the following structures remains intact?
- A.
Femoral artery
- B.
Femoral vein
- C.
Saphenous nerve
- D.
Great saphenous vein
- E.
Nerve to the vastus medials
Correct Answer
D. Great saphenous veinExplanation
The great saphenous vein remains intact because the infection and damage were found in the adductor canal, which does not involve the great saphenous vein. The adductor canal is located in the thigh and contains the femoral artery, femoral vein, saphenous nerve, and nerve to the vastus medialis. However, the great saphenous vein is not enclosed within the adductor canal and therefore remains unaffected.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A basketball player was hit in the thigh by an opponent’s knee. Which of the following arteries is likely to compress and cause ischemia because of the bruise and damage to the extensor muscles of the leg?
- A.
Popliteal
- B.
Deep femoral
- C.
Anterior tibial
- D.
Posterior tibial
- E.
Peroneal
Correct Answer
C. Anterior tibialExplanation
The anterior tibial artery is likely to compress and cause ischemia because it is located in the front of the leg and supplies blood to the extensor muscles. The bruise and damage to the extensor muscles can lead to swelling and compression of the artery, restricting blood flow and causing ischemia.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A 17-year-old boy was stabbed during a gang fi ght resulting in transection of the obturator nerve. Which of the following muscles is completely paralyzed?
- A.
Pectineus
- B.
Adductor magnus
- C.
Adductor longus
- D.
Biceps femoris
- E.
Semimembranous
Correct Answer
C. Adductor longusExplanation
The obturator nerve innervates the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, which includes the adductor longus muscle. When the obturator nerve is transected, it leads to complete paralysis of the adductor longus muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is Adductor longus.Rate this question:
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- 46.
An injury to the leg of a golfer results in loss of the ability to invert the foot. Which of the following muscles is most likely paralyzed?
- A.
Tibialis posterior
- B.
Peronus longus
- C.
Peronus brevis
- D.
Peronus tertius
- E.
Extensor digitorium longus
Correct Answer
A. Tibialis posteriorExplanation
An injury to the leg of a golfer resulting in the loss of the ability to invert the foot suggests damage to the tibialis posterior muscle. The tibialis posterior muscle is responsible for inversion of the foot, which is the movement of turning the sole of the foot inward. Paralysis of this muscle would cause the inability to perform this movement, leading to the observed symptom.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Before knee surgery, a surgeon ligates arteries participating in the anastomosis around the knee joint. Which of the following arteries is most likely spared?
- A.
Lateral superior genicular
- B.
Medial inferior genicular
- C.
Descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex
- D.
Saphenous branch of the descending genicular
- E.
Anterior tibial recurrent
Correct Answer
D. Saphenous branch of the descending genicularExplanation
The saphenous branch of the descending genicular artery is most likely spared during knee surgery. The other arteries mentioned, such as the lateral superior genicular artery, medial inferior genicular artery, descending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery, and anterior tibial recurrent artery, are all involved in the anastomosis around the knee joint and would therefore be ligated during surgery.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 27, 2012Quiz Created by
Arthurbach1
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