Anatomy And Physiology Questions - The Cardiovascular System: The Blood

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  • 1/45 Questions

    Which is NOT a major function of the blood?

    • Transportation of nutrients
    • Regulation of blood pH
    • Protection against disease infection
    • Transportation of heat
    • Production of oxygen
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Anatomy And Physiology Questions - The Cardiovascular System: The Blood - Quiz
About This Quiz

Questions about components of blood (RBCs, WBCs, platelets) and haemostasis. It covers aspects from the 'Fetal', 'Infancy', and 'Childhood' case units.

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  • 2. 

    The normal average temperature of blood is around

    • 98.6ºF (37ºC)

    • 100.4ºF (38ºC)

    • 90.8ºF (32.7ºC)

    • 89.6ºF (32ºC)

    • 101.6ºF (38.7ºC)

    Correct Answer
    A. 100.4ºF (38ºC)
    Explanation
    The normal average temperature of blood is 98.6ºF (37ºC). This is a well-known fact and is considered the standard average body temperature for humans.

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  • 3. 

    The normal pH range for blood is

    • 7.35 - 8.5

    • 7.35 - 9.45

    • 6.35 - 7.35

    • 6.35 - 9.35

    • 7.35 - 7.45

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35 - 7.45
    Explanation
    The normal pH range for blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This range is slightly alkaline, indicating that blood is slightly basic. Maintaining the pH within this narrow range is crucial for normal physiological functioning. Any significant deviation from this range can disrupt various biochemical processes in the body and lead to health problems.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not a component of blood?

    • Blood plasma

    • Formed elements

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Platelets

    • White blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon dioxide
    Explanation
    Carbon dioxide is not a component of blood. Blood plasma is the liquid portion of blood that carries nutrients, hormones, and waste products. Formed elements include red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are all essential components of blood. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, while white blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system. Carbon dioxide, on the other hand, is a waste product produced by cells and transported in the bloodstream to the lungs for elimination.

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  • 5. 

    The haematocrit is composed of

    • WBC

    • Platelets

    • RBC

    • Plasma

    • Proteins

    Correct Answer
    A. RBC
    Explanation
    The hematocrit is a measure of the volume percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It indicates the proportion of RBCs to the total blood volume. Therefore, the correct answer is RBC because the hematocrit is specifically composed of red blood cells.

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  • 6. 

    How much of blood plasma is water (approximately)?

    • 95%

    • 91%

    • 88%

    • 80%

    • 50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 91%
    Explanation
    Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that carries various substances throughout the body. It is primarily composed of water, which makes up approximately 91% of its composition. This high water content is essential for maintaining proper hydration, transporting nutrients, hormones, and waste products, as well as regulating body temperature.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?

    • Albumins

    • Globulins

    • Fibrinogens

    • Myoglobin

    • Haemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Globulins
    Explanation
    Globulins are a group of plasma proteins that play a crucial role in disease resistance. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which are essential for immune responses and fighting off infections. Globulins also act as transport proteins, carrying various substances such as hormones, vitamins, and metals throughout the body. Therefore, their involvement in disease resistance makes them the correct answer to the question.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?

    • Albumins

    • Globulins

    • Fibrinogens

    • Prostaglandins

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrinogens
    Explanation
    Fibrinogens are plasma proteins that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, fibrinogens are converted into fibrin by the enzyme thrombin. This fibrin forms a mesh-like structure, which helps in the formation of blood clots. These clots prevent excessive bleeding and aid in the healing process. Therefore, fibrinogens are directly involved in the blood clotting mechanism, making them the correct answer to the question.

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  • 9. 

    A haemocrit measures

    • Percentage of RBC in packed blood

    • Percentage of WBC in packed blood

    • Percentage of platelets in packed blood

    • Percentage of RBC and WBC in packed blood

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Percentage of RBC in packed blood
    Explanation
    A haematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells (RBC) in packed blood. It is a simple blood test that provides information about the volume of RBCs in relation to the total blood volume. This measurement is important in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anaemia, polycythemia, and dehydration. By determining the percentage of RBCs, healthcare professionals can assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and evaluate the overall health of the patient's circulatory system.

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  • 10. 

    The process by which formed elements of the blood develop is called:

    • Haematocritation

    • Haemopoiesis

    • Albumin genesis

    • Immunology

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Haemopoiesis
    Explanation
    Haemopoiesis is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which the formed elements of the blood, such as red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma proteins, are produced. This process takes place in the bone marrow, where stem cells differentiate and mature into the various blood cell types. Haemopoiesis is essential for maintaining a healthy blood supply and is regulated by various factors and hormones in the body. The other options, Haematocritation, Albumin genesis, and Immunology, do not accurately describe the process of blood cell development.

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  • 11. 

    A megakaryoblast will develop into

    • RBC

    • WBC

    • Platelet

    • WBC and platelet

    • Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelet
    Explanation
    A megakaryoblast is a precursor cell that gives rise to platelets, which are small, disk-shaped cell fragments involved in blood clotting. Platelets are not red blood cells (RBCs) or white blood cells (WBCs). Therefore, the correct answer is platelet.

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  • 12. 

    During haemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells differentiate into

    • Progenitor cells

    • Enzymes

    • Plasma proteins

    • Haeme molecules

    • Nitric oxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Progenitor cells
    Explanation
    During haemopoiesis, myeloid stem cells differentiate into progenitor cells. Progenitor cells are intermediate cells that have the ability to further differentiate into specific blood cell types. They are more specialized than stem cells but less specialized than fully mature blood cells. This process is crucial for the production of different types of blood cells, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which are essential for various physiological functions in the body.

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  • 13. 

    This hormone stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow

    • EPO

    • TPO

    • Human growth hormone

    • Calcitonin

    • Follicle stimulating hormone

    Correct Answer
    A. EPO
    Explanation
    EPO, or erythropoietin, is a hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the red bone marrow. It is released by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. EPO travels to the bone marrow and binds to specific receptors on the surface of red blood cell precursors, promoting their proliferation and maturation. This process helps to increase the number of red blood cells in the body, improving oxygen delivery to tissues and organs.

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  • 14. 

    How many haemoglobin moleculs are in each RBC?

    • 50 million

    • 100 million

    • 280 million

    • 320 million

    • 430 million

    Correct Answer
    A. 280 million
    Explanation
    Each red blood cell (RBC) contains approximately 280 million haemoglobin molecules. Haemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues. The large number of haemoglobin molecules in each RBC allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the body.

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  • 15. 

    Ferritin is used to

    • Transport iron

    • Store iron

    • Convert iron

    • Synthesize iron

    • Digest iron

    Correct Answer
    A. Store iron
    Explanation
    Ferritin is a protein that is responsible for storing iron in the body. It acts as a storage form of iron, allowing the body to regulate iron levels and release it when needed. This helps prevent iron deficiency or iron overload. Ferritin does not transport, convert, synthesize, or digest iron, but rather serves as a storage depot for it.

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  • 16. 

    A red blood cell's function is

    • Nutrient transport

    • Cytokine stimulation

    • Blood cell proliferation

    • Gas transport

    • Disease resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas transport
    Explanation
    The function of a red blood cell is to transport gases, primarily oxygen and carbon dioxide, throughout the body. Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin that binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues and organs. At the same time, they also pick up carbon dioxide from the tissues and transport it back to the lungs to be exhaled. This gas transport is essential for the proper functioning of the body's cells and organs.

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  • 17. 

    A red blood cell without a nucleus, but with other cell organelles is called a

    • Proerythroblast

    • Cytokine

    • Precursor cell

    • Interleukin

    • Reticulocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Reticulocyte
    Explanation
    A reticulocyte is a red blood cell that has matured but still contains some remnants of its nucleus. It is considered a precursor cell because it is an intermediate stage between the proerythroblast (an immature red blood cell) and the mature erythrocyte (a red blood cell without a nucleus). The reticulocyte contains other cell organelles necessary for its function, such as mitochondria and ribosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is reticulocyte.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a phagocyte?

    • Monocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • Platelet

    • Eosinophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system as a phagocyte. Phagocytes are responsible for engulfing and destroying pathogens, such as bacteria and viruses, in the body. Monocytes are able to recognize and engulf these pathogens, helping to eliminate them and prevent infection. They are also involved in the immune response by presenting antigens to other immune cells. Therefore, monocytes are the correct answer as they are a type of phagocyte.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following reduces blood loss?

    • Erythrocyte

    • Platelet

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • Neutrophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelet
    Explanation
    Platelets are responsible for blood clotting, which helps to reduce blood loss. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets rush to the site and form a plug to stop the bleeding. They also release chemicals that attract other clotting factors and help in the formation of a stable blood clot. Therefore, platelets play a crucial role in reducing blood loss and promoting wound healing.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following promotes inflammation?

    • Eosinophil

    • Monocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • Neutrophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Basophil
    Explanation
    Basophils promote inflammation. They are a type of white blood cell that plays a role in the immune response by releasing histamine and other chemicals. Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to redness, swelling, and heat, which are characteristic features of inflammation. Therefore, basophils contribute to the inflammatory response in the body.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following destroys antigen-antibody complexes?

    • Eosinophil

    • Monocyte

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • Neutrophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Eosinophil
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response against parasitic infections and allergic reactions. They release enzymes and toxic proteins that can destroy antigen-antibody complexes. This helps to remove these complexes and prevent further immune reactions.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following provides immune responses against parasites?

    • Eosinophil

    • Macrophage

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • Platelet

    Correct Answer
    A. Eosinophil
    Explanation
    Eosinophils provide immune responses against parasites. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response against parasitic infections. They are specifically designed to target and destroy parasites, such as helminths, through the release of toxic granules. Eosinophils are attracted to sites of infection and inflammation and can release various chemical mediators to eliminate parasites. Additionally, they can also modulate the immune response by producing cytokines and interacting with other immune cells.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not an agranular leukocyte?

    • Monocyte

    • Macrophage

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Basophil
    Explanation
    Basophil is the correct answer because it is a granular leukocyte, not an agranular one. Agranular leukocytes lack visible granules in their cytoplasm, while granular leukocytes have visible granules. Monocytes, macrophages, and lymphocytes are all agranular leukocytes, which means they do not have visible granules in their cytoplasm. Basophils, on the other hand, are granular leukocytes and contain visible granules.

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  • 24. 

    The process of a white blood cell squeezing between cells to exit the blood vessel is called

    • Emigration

    • Wandering

    • Adhesion

    • Haemopoiesis

    • Phagocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Emigration
    Explanation
    Emigration refers to the process of a white blood cell squeezing between cells to exit the blood vessel. This process is crucial for the immune system as it allows white blood cells to reach infected or injured tissues and initiate an immune response. During emigration, white blood cells adhere to the blood vessel wall, extend pseudopodia, and migrate through the vessel wall to the site of infection or injury. This process is an essential part of the body's defense mechanism against pathogens and foreign substances.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following do mast cells not release?

    • Heparin

    • Histamine

    • Nitric oxide

    • Protease

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitric oxide
    Explanation
    Mast cells are known to release various substances, including heparin, histamine, and protease. However, they do not release nitric oxide. Nitric oxide is primarily produced by endothelial cells and neurons, and it plays a role in various physiological processes such as vasodilation and neurotransmission. Therefore, mast cells do not release nitric oxide.

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  • 26. 

    This hormone causes the development of megakaryoblasts.

    • Erythropoietin

    • Thrombopoietin

    • Nitric oxide

    • Human growth hormone

    • Heparin

    Correct Answer
    A. Thrombopoietin
    Explanation
    Thrombopoietin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that stimulates the development and maturation of megakaryoblasts, which are precursor cells for platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting and the formation of blood clots to prevent excessive bleeding. Therefore, thrombopoietin is essential for the production and regulation of platelets in the body.

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  • 27. 

    Which methods provide haemostasis?

    • Vascular spasm, clotting, polycythaemia

    • Haemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

    • Emigration, clotting, haemolysis

    • Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, clotting

    • Anaemia, haemogenesis, platelet plug formation

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, clotting
    Explanation
    Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, and clotting are methods that provide hemostasis. Platelet plug formation occurs when platelets adhere to the site of injury and aggregate to form a plug, which helps to stop bleeding. Vascular spasm is the constriction of blood vessels in response to injury, reducing blood flow and preventing further bleeding. Clotting, also known as coagulation, involves a series of chemical reactions that result in the formation of a fibrin clot, which reinforces the platelet plug and further stops bleeding. These three methods work together to achieve hemostasis and prevent excessive blood loss.

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  • 28. 

    Once this is formed, the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are identical.

    • Thromboplastin

    • Prothrombinase

    • Fibrinogen

    • Fibrin

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombinase
    Explanation
    Prothrombinase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the coagulation cascade. It is responsible for converting prothrombin into thrombin, which is a key step in the formation of a blood clot. Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at the point where prothrombinase is formed, making the pathways identical from that point onwards. Therefore, once prothrombinase is formed, the subsequent steps in the coagulation process are the same regardless of which pathway was initially activated.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following clotting factors has the most to do with strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot?

    • Factor V

    • Factor VII

    • Factor XI

    • Factor XIII

    • Factor XIV

    Correct Answer
    A. Factor XIII
    Explanation
    Factor XIII is responsible for strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot. It plays a crucial role in cross-linking fibrin strands, which are the building blocks of a clot. Factor XIII helps to form strong bonds between fibrin strands, making the clot more resistant to breakdown. This factor is essential for the formation of a stable clot that can effectively stop bleeding and promote wound healing.

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  • 30. 

    Considering RH blood types, which of the below situations would result in maternal antibodies attacking the fetus?

    • Mum is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative

    • Mum is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

    • Mum is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative

    • Mum is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive

    Correct Answer
    A. Mum is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
    Explanation
    When a mother is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive, there is a potential for the mother's immune system to produce antibodies against the Rh factor in the fetus's blood. This can occur when the fetus's blood enters the mother's bloodstream during pregnancy or childbirth. The mother's immune system recognizes the Rh factor as foreign and produces antibodies to attack it. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosis fetalis. This can result in severe anemia, jaundice, and other complications for the fetus.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2?

    • Heparin

    • Fibrinogen

    • Plasmin

    • Antithrombin

    • Prostacyclin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostacyclin
    Explanation
    Prostacyclin opposes the action of thromboxane A2. Thromboxane A2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregator that promotes blood clot formation. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, is a vasodilator and platelet inhibitor that prevents blood clot formation. Therefore, prostacyclin acts in opposition to thromboxane A2 by inhibiting its effects and promoting blood flow.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is an anticoagulant?

    • Heparin

    • Fibrinogen

    • Protease

    • Prostacyclin

    • Plasmin

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is an anticoagulant because it inhibits the activity of thrombin and other clotting factors, preventing the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used in medical settings to prevent blood clots during surgeries or to treat conditions such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. Fibrinogen, protease, prostacyclin, and plasmin are not anticoagulants but are involved in the clotting process.

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  • 33. 
    Which of the following cells will develop into macrophages? - ProProfs

    Which of the following cells will develop into macrophages?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Cell C will develop into macrophages. Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by engulfing and digesting pathogens and cellular debris. They are derived from monocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that circulate in the bloodstream. Monocytes can migrate into tissues and differentiate into macrophages, where they perform their immune functions. Therefore, cell C, which is labeled as the monocyte precursor, will develop into macrophages.

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  • 34. 
    Which of the following cells will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age? - ProProfs

    Which of the following cells will increase the number of nuclear lobes as they age?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    As cells age, they undergo changes in their nucleus. One such change is an increase in the number of nuclear lobes. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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  • 35. 
    Which of the following cells is normally classified as small or large? - ProProfs

    Which of the following cells is normally classified as small or large?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The question is asking which of the given cells is normally classified as small or large. The answer is B, but without further context, it is not possible to determine the exact classification of the cell. It could be either small or large, depending on the criteria being used for classification.

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  • 36. 
    Which one is a WBC? - ProProfs

    Which one is a WBC?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • B and C

    • A, B and C

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Option C is a white blood cell (WBC) because it is the only option that represents a type of blood cell. Options A and B do not specify any type of cell, and option D includes both option B and C, which would make it incorrect as option B is not a WBC. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

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  • 37. 
    Which one is the pluripotent stem cell? - ProProfs

    Which one is the pluripotent stem cell?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The pluripotent stem cell is represented by option A. Pluripotent stem cells have the ability to differentiate into any type of cell in the body. Option A is likely the correct answer because it is the only option provided and there is no other information given to suggest otherwise.

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  • 38. 
    Which cell is the myeloid stem cell? - ProProfs

    Which cell is the myeloid stem cell?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • G

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    B is the correct answer because myeloid stem cells are responsible for producing red blood cells, platelets, and certain types of white blood cells. This process is known as myelopoiesis. Therefore, the myeloid stem cell is the cell that gives rise to these different blood cell types, making option B the correct choice.

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  • 39. 
    Which cell is the reticulocyte? - ProProfs

    Which cell is the reticulocyte?

    • D

    • G

    • E

    • F

    • H

    Correct Answer
    A. E
  • 40. 
    Which cell is the T lymphocyte? - ProProfs

    Which cell is the T lymphocyte?

    • C

    • J

    • K

    • L

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. J
  • 41. 
    Which cell is the natural killer cell? - ProProfs

    Which cell is the natural killer cell?

    • A

    • C

    • J

    • K

    • L

    Correct Answer
    A. L
    Explanation
    The correct answer is L. The natural killer cell is a type of lymphocyte that plays a critical role in the immune system's defense against viral infections and cancer. It is capable of recognizing and killing infected or abnormal cells without prior activation or the need for specific antigens. Therefore, option L is the correct answer as it represents the natural killer cell.

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  • 42. 
    What is this figure demonstrating? - ProProfs

    What is this figure demonstrating?

    • Erythropoiesis

    • RBC differentiation

    • Emigration

    • Clot formation

    • Clot retraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Emigration
    Explanation
    This figure is demonstrating the process of emigration. Emigration refers to the movement of white blood cells (leukocytes) from the bloodstream into the surrounding tissues. It is an important step in the immune response, as it allows immune cells to reach the site of infection or injury and carry out their functions. The figure likely shows leukocytes leaving the blood vessel and entering the tissue, highlighting the process of emigration.

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  • 43. 
    What does this figure represent? - ProProfs

    What does this figure represent?

    • Erythropoiesis

    • RBC differentiation

    • Emigration

    • Clot formation

    • Clot retraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Clot formation
    Explanation
    This figure represents the process of clot formation. Clot formation occurs when there is damage to a blood vessel, leading to the activation of platelets and the formation of a fibrin mesh. This mesh traps red blood cells and other components of the blood, forming a clot that helps to stop bleeding.

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  • 44. 

    What antibodies does a person with type O blood have in their plasma?

    • A

    • B

    • A and B

    • No antibodies

    • Not enough information to answer

    Correct Answer
    A. A and B
    Explanation
    A person with type O blood has neither A nor B antigens on their red blood cells, so their plasma contains antibodies against both A and B antigens. This is because they can produce antibodies against any antigens that they do not possess on their own red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is A and B.

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  • 45. 

    What antigens does a person have on their RBC if their plasma has antibody A?

    • A

    • B

    • O

    • A and B

    • No antigens

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    If a person's plasma has antibody A, it means that their immune system has produced antibodies against antigen A. Since antigens and antibodies have a specific relationship, it can be inferred that the person's RBCs must have antigen A on them. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Hermine0817

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